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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Udaan scheme
- It is a Special Industry Initiative (SII) for Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) to provide skills and job opportunities to the youth.
- It is funded by Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and implemented by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
- The program is focused on youth of J&K who are graduate, post graduate or three-year diploma engineers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Udaan, the Special Industry Initiative (SII) for Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) is funded by Ministry of Home Affairs and implemented by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The program is a part of the overall initiative for addressing economic issues in J&K. While steps are being taken by the State and Central Government to revive economic activity in J&K, Udaan program is a special initiative to address the needs of the educated unemployed youth in J&K.
Udaan program is focused on youth of J&K who are graduate, post graduate or three-year diploma engineers. The aim is to provide skills and job opportunities to the youth. Simultaneously, the aim is also to provide exposure to corporate India towards the rich talent pool available in the state. The target was to reach out to 40,000 youth in J&K over a period of 6 years.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Udaan, the Special Industry Initiative (SII) for Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) is funded by Ministry of Home Affairs and implemented by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The program is a part of the overall initiative for addressing economic issues in J&K. While steps are being taken by the State and Central Government to revive economic activity in J&K, Udaan program is a special initiative to address the needs of the educated unemployed youth in J&K.
Udaan program is focused on youth of J&K who are graduate, post graduate or three-year diploma engineers. The aim is to provide skills and job opportunities to the youth. Simultaneously, the aim is also to provide exposure to corporate India towards the rich talent pool available in the state. The target was to reach out to 40,000 youth in J&K over a period of 6 years.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)
- NSDC was set up by Ministry of Finance as Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
- The Government of India through Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) holds 51% of the share capital of NSDC, while the private sector holds the remaining share capital.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a not-for-profit public limited company incorporated on July 31, 2008 under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 (corresponding to section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013). NSDC was set up by Ministry of Finance as Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
The Government of India through Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) holds 49% of the share capital of NSDC, while the private sector has the balance 51% of the share capital. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
NSDC aims to promote skill development by catalyzing creation of large, quality and for-profit vocational institutions. Further, the organisation provides funding to build scalable and profitable vocational training initiatives. Its mandate is also to enable support system which focuses on quality assurance, information systems and train the trainer academies either directly or through partnerships.
Incorrect
Solution: A
National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a not-for-profit public limited company incorporated on July 31, 2008 under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 (corresponding to section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013). NSDC was set up by Ministry of Finance as Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
The Government of India through Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) holds 49% of the share capital of NSDC, while the private sector has the balance 51% of the share capital. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
NSDC aims to promote skill development by catalyzing creation of large, quality and for-profit vocational institutions. Further, the organisation provides funding to build scalable and profitable vocational training initiatives. Its mandate is also to enable support system which focuses on quality assurance, information systems and train the trainer academies either directly or through partnerships.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Assam Rifles
- It came into being in 1835, as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’, primarily to protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids.
- The force being fondly called “The Sentinel of the North-East”.
- It is the oldest Central Para Military Force functions under Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Assam Rifles came into being in 1835, as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’. With approximately 750 men, this Force was formed to primarily protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids.
The Assam Rifles raised as Catchar Levy in 1835 is the oldest Central Para Military Force in India. It has its headquarters at Shillong and the Force is completely deployed in the North East for guarding the Indo-Myanmar Border, spread over 1,631 kilometres. It functions under the control of Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Their long association with the region reflects in the force being fondly called “The Sentinel of the North-East” and “Friends of the Hill People” security in the north-eastern region and guarding the Indo-Myanmar border.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Assam Rifles came into being in 1835, as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’. With approximately 750 men, this Force was formed to primarily protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids.
The Assam Rifles raised as Catchar Levy in 1835 is the oldest Central Para Military Force in India. It has its headquarters at Shillong and the Force is completely deployed in the North East for guarding the Indo-Myanmar Border, spread over 1,631 kilometres. It functions under the control of Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Their long association with the region reflects in the force being fondly called “The Sentinel of the North-East” and “Friends of the Hill People” security in the north-eastern region and guarding the Indo-Myanmar border.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding e-Courts Project
- eCourts Project was conceptualized on the basis of recommendation of Ecommittee, Supreme Court of India
- Ecommittee is a body constituted by the Chief Justice of India, to assist him in formulating a National policy on computerization of Indian Judiciary.
- eCourts Mission Mode Project, is a Pan-India Project, monitored and funded by Department of Justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The eCourts Project was conceptualized on the basis of the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary – 2005” submitted by eCommittee, Supreme Court of India with a vision to transform the Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts.
Ecommittee is a body constituted by the Government of India in pursuance of a proposal received from Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India to constitute an eCommittee to assist him in formulating a National policy on computerization of Indian Judiciary and advise on technological communication and management related changes. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The eCourts Mission Mode Project, is a Pan-India Project, monitored and funded by Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India for the District Courts across the country.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The eCourts Project was conceptualized on the basis of the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary – 2005” submitted by eCommittee, Supreme Court of India with a vision to transform the Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts.
Ecommittee is a body constituted by the Government of India in pursuance of a proposal received from Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India to constitute an eCommittee to assist him in formulating a National policy on computerization of Indian Judiciary and advise on technological communication and management related changes. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The eCourts Mission Mode Project, is a Pan-India Project, monitored and funded by Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India for the District Courts across the country.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Fire Services is a state subject
- 13th Finance Commission recommended to upgrade fire services across the country by suggesting share for the same in grants transferred.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
“Fire Services” is a state subject and has been included as a municipal function in the XII schedule of the Constitution of India in terms of Article 243-W. As such, it is the primary responsibility of the state governments/municipal bodies to enforce the National Building Code. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
13th Finance Commission recognizing the need to restructure Fire and Emergency Services across the country has recommended that a portion of the grants provided to the urban local bodies should be spent on revamping of fire services within their respective jurisdiction. Further the Finance Commission has also recommended that all municipal corporations with a population of more than 1 million (2001 census) must put in place a fire hazard response and mitigation plan for their respective areas. Government of India as a supplemental initiative is also implementing a centrally sponsored scheme at a cost of ₹ 200 crores for strengthening of Fire and Emergency Services in the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
“Fire Services” is a state subject and has been included as a municipal function in the XII schedule of the Constitution of India in terms of Article 243-W. As such, it is the primary responsibility of the state governments/municipal bodies to enforce the National Building Code. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
13th Finance Commission recognizing the need to restructure Fire and Emergency Services across the country has recommended that a portion of the grants provided to the urban local bodies should be spent on revamping of fire services within their respective jurisdiction. Further the Finance Commission has also recommended that all municipal corporations with a population of more than 1 million (2001 census) must put in place a fire hazard response and mitigation plan for their respective areas. Government of India as a supplemental initiative is also implementing a centrally sponsored scheme at a cost of ₹ 200 crores for strengthening of Fire and Emergency Services in the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Aaadhar based payment
- Aadhaar Payment Bridge is used to make payment with Aadhar number to a person’s bank account
- Aadhar enabled Payment System can do banking transactions through biometrics at micro-ATMs
- Pay to Aadhaar works on UPI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Aadhaar Payment Bridge (APB): A payment can be made to a person’s bank account via his/her Aadhaar number, provided it is linked to his/her Aadhaar number. Government of India transfers benefits and subsidies directly to the beneficiaries’ bank account through APB. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AEPS): AEPS is the platform in which a person can do basic banking transactions including withdrawal, deposit cash, fund transfer, etc. from his/her bank account at Micro-ATMs using biometric authentication. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Aadhaar Pay: It is merchant version of AEPS. The Application works on a low cost android phone with single finger biometric device. It enables merchant to take cashless payment from his customers.
Pay to Aadhaar: It is a facility available on UPI platform integrated in BHIM app. It enables Person-to-Person (P2P) remittance using Aadhaar number of the recipient as financial address. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Aadhaar Payment Bridge (APB): A payment can be made to a person’s bank account via his/her Aadhaar number, provided it is linked to his/her Aadhaar number. Government of India transfers benefits and subsidies directly to the beneficiaries’ bank account through APB. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AEPS): AEPS is the platform in which a person can do basic banking transactions including withdrawal, deposit cash, fund transfer, etc. from his/her bank account at Micro-ATMs using biometric authentication. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Aadhaar Pay: It is merchant version of AEPS. The Application works on a low cost android phone with single finger biometric device. It enables merchant to take cashless payment from his customers.
Pay to Aadhaar: It is a facility available on UPI platform integrated in BHIM app. It enables Person-to-Person (P2P) remittance using Aadhaar number of the recipient as financial address. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding AYUSH sector
- AYUSH-82 is developed by Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences to control diabetes.
- Pharmacopoeial Laboratory for Indian Medicine sets the standards and testing of homeopathic drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
For the management of diabetes mellitus, the Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) has developed a formulation namely, AYUSH- 82 from 05 Ayurvedic medicinal plants. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Pharmacopoeial Laboratory for Indian Medicine (PLIM) is a subordinate office of Ministry of AYUSH located at Ghaziabad. The laboratory was established in 1970 as a Pharmacopoeial Standards Setting – cum Drugs testing laboratory at national level for Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani (ASU) Medicine.
Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia Laboratory, Ghaziabad was set up as a national laboratory for the purpose of laying down standards and testing for identity, purity and quality of homoeopathic medicines. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
For the management of diabetes mellitus, the Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) has developed a formulation namely, AYUSH- 82 from 05 Ayurvedic medicinal plants. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Pharmacopoeial Laboratory for Indian Medicine (PLIM) is a subordinate office of Ministry of AYUSH located at Ghaziabad. The laboratory was established in 1970 as a Pharmacopoeial Standards Setting – cum Drugs testing laboratory at national level for Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani (ASU) Medicine.
Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia Laboratory, Ghaziabad was set up as a national laboratory for the purpose of laying down standards and testing for identity, purity and quality of homoeopathic medicines. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding child labour
- Child labour is banned in all forms for children below 18 years
- National Child Labour Project Scheme is mandated to rehabilitate such children and provide them with stipend with formal education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Government enacted the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016. The Amendment inter alia covers the complete prohibition on employment or work of children below 14 years of age in all occupations and processes; linking the age of the prohibition of employment with the age for free and compulsory education under Right to Education Act, 2009; prohibition on employment of adolescents (14 to 18 years of age) in hazardous occupations or processes and making stricter punishment for the employers contravening the provisions of the Act. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In pursuance of National Child Labour Policy, the National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme was started in 1988 to rehabilitate children rescued from child labour. Under the Scheme, working children are identified through child labour survey, withdrawn from work and put into the special training centres so as to provide them with an environment to subsequently join mainstream education system. In these special training centres, besides formal education, the children are provided stipend, supplementary nutrition, vocational training and regular health check-ups. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Government enacted the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016. The Amendment inter alia covers the complete prohibition on employment or work of children below 14 years of age in all occupations and processes; linking the age of the prohibition of employment with the age for free and compulsory education under Right to Education Act, 2009; prohibition on employment of adolescents (14 to 18 years of age) in hazardous occupations or processes and making stricter punishment for the employers contravening the provisions of the Act. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In pursuance of National Child Labour Policy, the National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme was started in 1988 to rehabilitate children rescued from child labour. Under the Scheme, working children are identified through child labour survey, withdrawn from work and put into the special training centres so as to provide them with an environment to subsequently join mainstream education system. In these special training centres, besides formal education, the children are provided stipend, supplementary nutrition, vocational training and regular health check-ups. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Water Commission
- It operates hydro-meteorological stations on river basins
- It has flood forecasting stations under its command
- The monitoring of glacial lakes falls under its domain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Central Water Commission is operating a network of 954 hydro-meteorological observation stations throughout the country on all major river basins to observe (i) water level (gauge), (ii) discharge, (iii) water quality, (iv) silt besides (v) selected meteorological parameters including snow observations at key stations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
There are 187 flood forecasting stations, of which 150 are level forecasting and 37 are inflow forecasting stations on major dams/barrages. They are under the administrative control of CWC. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
CWC is monitoring glacial lakes/water bodies in the Himalayan Region of Indian River basins on monthly basis from the monsoon season of 2011 onwards. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Central Water Commission is operating a network of 954 hydro-meteorological observation stations throughout the country on all major river basins to observe (i) water level (gauge), (ii) discharge, (iii) water quality, (iv) silt besides (v) selected meteorological parameters including snow observations at key stations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
There are 187 flood forecasting stations, of which 150 are level forecasting and 37 are inflow forecasting stations on major dams/barrages. They are under the administrative control of CWC. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
CWC is monitoring glacial lakes/water bodies in the Himalayan Region of Indian River basins on monthly basis from the monsoon season of 2011 onwards. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Pradhanmantri Rojgar Prothsahan Yojana seeks to enhance registration of the labour in social security schemes
- Labour Courts are constituted under Trade Union Act, 1926.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana was implemented in 2016-17 with the objective of promoting employment generation and an allocation of ₹ 1,000 crores. Under the scheme, Government of India will pay the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS) contribution of 12 per cent for all new employees enrolling in EPFO for the first three years of their employment. This will incentivise the employers to recruit unemployed persons and also to formalize informal employees. The scheme will be applicable to those having earnings ₹ 15,000/- per month. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Maintenance of harmonious industrial relations remains an avowed objective of Ministry of Labour and Employment. Twenty-two Central Government Industrial Tribunal (CGIT) cum-Labour Courts were set up under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for adjudication of industrial disputes in organizations for which the central government is the appropriate government. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana was implemented in 2016-17 with the objective of promoting employment generation and an allocation of ₹ 1,000 crores. Under the scheme, Government of India will pay the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS) contribution of 12 per cent for all new employees enrolling in EPFO for the first three years of their employment. This will incentivise the employers to recruit unemployed persons and also to formalize informal employees. The scheme will be applicable to those having earnings ₹ 15,000/- per month. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Maintenance of harmonious industrial relations remains an avowed objective of Ministry of Labour and Employment. Twenty-two Central Government Industrial Tribunal (CGIT) cum-Labour Courts were set up under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for adjudication of industrial disputes in organizations for which the central government is the appropriate government. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
- It is a Maternity Benefit Programme implemented in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
- All Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers are beneficiaries of this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
Objectives
- Providing partial compensation for the wage loss in terms of cash incentive s so that the woman can take adequate res t before and after delivery of the first living child.
- The cash incentive provided would lead to improved health seeking behaviour amongst the Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW& LM).
Target beneficiaries
- All Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers, excluding PW&LM who are in regular employment with the Central Government or the State Governments or PSUs or those who are in receipt of similar benefits under any law for the time being in force. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- All eligible Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers who have their pregnancy on or after 01.01.2017 for first child in family.
- The date and stage of pregnancy for a beneficiary would be counted with respect to her LMP date as mentioned in the MCP card.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
Objectives
- Providing partial compensation for the wage loss in terms of cash incentive s so that the woman can take adequate res t before and after delivery of the first living child.
- The cash incentive provided would lead to improved health seeking behaviour amongst the Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW& LM).
Target beneficiaries
- All Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers, excluding PW&LM who are in regular employment with the Central Government or the State Governments or PSUs or those who are in receipt of similar benefits under any law for the time being in force. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- All eligible Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers who have their pregnancy on or after 01.01.2017 for first child in family.
- The date and stage of pregnancy for a beneficiary would be counted with respect to her LMP date as mentioned in the MCP card.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWhich is the first state/UT to adopt Mahila Police Volunteers initiative
Correct
Solution: D
Ministry of Women and Child Development in collaboration with the Ministry of Home Affairs has envisaged engagement of Mahila Police Volunteers (MPVs) in the States/UTs who will act as a link between police and community and help women in distress. All Chief Secretaries of States/UTs were requested to adopt this initiative in their respective States. Haryana was the first state to adopt the initiative at Karnal and Mahindergarh District on a pilot basis under Nirbhaya Fund during the financial year 2016-2017. Further, the proposals of Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Gujarat, Mizoram, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh have also been approved for implementation of MPVs.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Ministry of Women and Child Development in collaboration with the Ministry of Home Affairs has envisaged engagement of Mahila Police Volunteers (MPVs) in the States/UTs who will act as a link between police and community and help women in distress. All Chief Secretaries of States/UTs were requested to adopt this initiative in their respective States. Haryana was the first state to adopt the initiative at Karnal and Mahindergarh District on a pilot basis under Nirbhaya Fund during the financial year 2016-2017. Further, the proposals of Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Gujarat, Mizoram, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh have also been approved for implementation of MPVs.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsFood and Nutrition Board (FNB) is a technical support wing under
Correct
Solution: C
The Food & Nutrition Board (FNB) is a technical support wing under Child Development Bureau of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It has a countrywide set up comprising of a Technical Wing at the Centre, four Regional Offices and Quality Control Laboratories at Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai and 43 Community Food & Nutrition Extension Units (CFNEUs) under the Regional offices, located in 29 States/ UTs.
It was setup for analyzing the food and nutritional supplements for food safety and quality to ensure nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition in ICDS Scheme.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Food & Nutrition Board (FNB) is a technical support wing under Child Development Bureau of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It has a countrywide set up comprising of a Technical Wing at the Centre, four Regional Offices and Quality Control Laboratories at Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai and 43 Community Food & Nutrition Extension Units (CFNEUs) under the Regional offices, located in 29 States/ UTs.
It was setup for analyzing the food and nutritional supplements for food safety and quality to ensure nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition in ICDS Scheme.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP)
- The objective is to improve the safety and operational performance of selected existing dams and associated appurtenances in a sustainable manner.
- It is an externally-aided project, 50:50 sharing between World Bank and the States / Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Govt. of India has taken up the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) with the financial assistance of the World Bank for the repair and rehabilitation of initially about 225 dam projects across the seven states of India.
The objectives of DRIP are
- to improve the safety and operational performance of selected existing dams and associated appurtenances in a sustainable manner, and
- to strengthen the dam safety institutional setup of participating States / Implementing Agencies.
Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) is an externally-aided project. 80% of the total project is provided by the World Bank as loan/credit and remaining 20% is borne by the States / Central Government (for CWC). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Govt. of India has taken up the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) with the financial assistance of the World Bank for the repair and rehabilitation of initially about 225 dam projects across the seven states of India.
The objectives of DRIP are
- to improve the safety and operational performance of selected existing dams and associated appurtenances in a sustainable manner, and
- to strengthen the dam safety institutional setup of participating States / Implementing Agencies.
Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) is an externally-aided project. 80% of the total project is provided by the World Bank as loan/credit and remaining 20% is borne by the States / Central Government (for CWC). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Water Commission
- It is headed by Minister of Jal Shakti.
- It is a statutory body and a premier Technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Central Water Commission is a premier Technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources and is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Government of India. It is not a statutory body. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The Commission is entrusted with the general responsibilities of initiating, coordinating and furthering in consultation of the State Governments concerned, schemes for control, conservation and utilization of water resources throughout the country, for purpose of Flood Control, Irrigation, Navigation, Drinking Water Supply and Water Power Development. It also undertakes the investigations, construction and execution of any such schemes as required.
Central Water Commission CWC Central Water Commission CWC is headed by a Chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The work of the Commission is divided among 3 wings namely, Designs and Research (D&R) Wing, River Management (RM) Wing and Water Planning and Projects (WP&P) Wing.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Central Water Commission is a premier Technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources and is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Government of India. It is not a statutory body. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The Commission is entrusted with the general responsibilities of initiating, coordinating and furthering in consultation of the State Governments concerned, schemes for control, conservation and utilization of water resources throughout the country, for purpose of Flood Control, Irrigation, Navigation, Drinking Water Supply and Water Power Development. It also undertakes the investigations, construction and execution of any such schemes as required.
Central Water Commission CWC Central Water Commission CWC is headed by a Chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The work of the Commission is divided among 3 wings namely, Designs and Research (D&R) Wing, River Management (RM) Wing and Water Planning and Projects (WP&P) Wing.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA)
- It is an attached office created by executive order under Ministry of civil aviation.
- Its function is to determine the tariff for the aeronautical services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) is a statutory body constituted under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008 (27 of 2008) notified vide Gazette Notification dated 5th December 2008. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The AERA was established by the Government vide its notification no GSR 317 (E) dated 12.05.09 with its head office at Delhi.
The statutory functions of the AERA as enshrined in the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008 are as below:
- To determine the tariff for the aeronautical services.
- To determine the amount of the Development Fees in respect of major airports.
- To determine the amount of the Passengers Service Fee levied under rule 88 of the Aircraft Rules, 1937 made under the Aircraft Act, 1934.
- To monitor the set Performance Standards relating to quality, continuity and reliability of service as may be specified by the Central Government or any authority authorized by it in this behalf.
- To call for such information as may be necessary to determine the tariff under clause (a).
- To perform such other functions relating to tariff, as may be entrusted to it by the Central Government or as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this Act.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) is a statutory body constituted under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008 (27 of 2008) notified vide Gazette Notification dated 5th December 2008. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The AERA was established by the Government vide its notification no GSR 317 (E) dated 12.05.09 with its head office at Delhi.
The statutory functions of the AERA as enshrined in the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008 are as below:
- To determine the tariff for the aeronautical services.
- To determine the amount of the Development Fees in respect of major airports.
- To determine the amount of the Passengers Service Fee levied under rule 88 of the Aircraft Rules, 1937 made under the Aircraft Act, 1934.
- To monitor the set Performance Standards relating to quality, continuity and reliability of service as may be specified by the Central Government or any authority authorized by it in this behalf.
- To call for such information as may be necessary to determine the tariff under clause (a).
- To perform such other functions relating to tariff, as may be entrusted to it by the Central Government or as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this Act.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
- It was set up based on the recommendation of the Pande Committee
- It is headed by Minister for Civil Aviation.
- It is the authority for implementation of Chicago convention of International Civil Aviation Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) was initially set up as a Cell in the DGCA in January 1978 on the recommendation of the Pande Committee. The BCAS was reorganized into an independent department under the Ministry of Civil Aviation on 1st April, 1987. The main responsibilities of BCAS include laying down standards and measures with respect to security of civil flights at international and domestic airports in India.
BCAS is the regulatory authority for civil aviation security in India. It is headed by an officer of the rank of Director General of Police and is designated as Director General, Bureau of Civil Aviation Security. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Director General, Bureau of Civil Aviation Security is the appropriate authority for implementation of Annexure-17 to Chicago convention of International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
Director General, Bureau of Civil Aviation is responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the National Civil Aviation Security Programme(NCASP).
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) was initially set up as a Cell in the DGCA in January 1978 on the recommendation of the Pande Committee. The BCAS was reorganized into an independent department under the Ministry of Civil Aviation on 1st April, 1987. The main responsibilities of BCAS include laying down standards and measures with respect to security of civil flights at international and domestic airports in India.
BCAS is the regulatory authority for civil aviation security in India. It is headed by an officer of the rank of Director General of Police and is designated as Director General, Bureau of Civil Aviation Security. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Director General, Bureau of Civil Aviation Security is the appropriate authority for implementation of Annexure-17 to Chicago convention of International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
Director General, Bureau of Civil Aviation is responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the National Civil Aviation Security Programme(NCASP).
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Kamarajar Port Limited
- It is located at Ennore and the first port in India which is a public company.
- It is the only corporatized major port in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Kamarajar Port Limited, formerly Ennore Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, it is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The port was declared as a major port under the Indian Ports Act, 1908 in March 1999 and incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999. The Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized major port and is registered as a company. Today, the landlord port is the dominant port model in larger and medium sized ports.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Kamarajar Port Limited, formerly Ennore Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, it is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The port was declared as a major port under the Indian Ports Act, 1908 in March 1999 and incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999. The Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized major port and is registered as a company. Today, the landlord port is the dominant port model in larger and medium sized ports.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ship Recycling
- India has more than 40 per cent share in the global ship recycling industry.
- Alang-Sosiya, Gujarat is the largest ship recycling yard in the world.
- It provides a green route to generate the secondary steel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
India has 25-30 per cent share in the global ship recycling industry. Ship recycling is carried out mainly at Alang-Sosiya in Gujarat. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
The shipbreaking yards in Alang-Sosiya are located in the state of Gujarat around 50 km by road from the city of Bhavnagar. They were initially set up in 1983 and stretch on a 10 km long beach with a vast tidal range. Alang-Sosiya is the world’s largest shipbreaking site. The Gujarat Maritime Board (GMB), a public body running all ports in Gujarat, regulates the shipbreaking yards in Alang-Sosiya. The GMB rents out shipbreaking plots to the shipbreakers on a 10-year lease basis.
It has high recycling potential of more than 450 ships (approximately 4.5 million LDT) per annum. Ship recycling serves the nation by producing about more than 3.5 million ton per annum of re-rollable steel without exploiting the natural resources and provides a green route to generate the secondary steel in place of generation of steel from the ore itself.
Incorrect
Solution: B
India has 25-30 per cent share in the global ship recycling industry. Ship recycling is carried out mainly at Alang-Sosiya in Gujarat. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
The shipbreaking yards in Alang-Sosiya are located in the state of Gujarat around 50 km by road from the city of Bhavnagar. They were initially set up in 1983 and stretch on a 10 km long beach with a vast tidal range. Alang-Sosiya is the world’s largest shipbreaking site. The Gujarat Maritime Board (GMB), a public body running all ports in Gujarat, regulates the shipbreaking yards in Alang-Sosiya. The GMB rents out shipbreaking plots to the shipbreakers on a 10-year lease basis.
It has high recycling potential of more than 450 ships (approximately 4.5 million LDT) per annum. Ship recycling serves the nation by producing about more than 3.5 million ton per annum of re-rollable steel without exploiting the natural resources and provides a green route to generate the secondary steel in place of generation of steel from the ore itself.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Sarathi project consolidates vehicle registration, taxation, permit, fitness and associated services across the country.
- Vahan Project looks after the driving license, learner licence, driving schools and related activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
Transport Mission Mode Project has successfully automated RTO operations, set up a consolidated transport database. Along with it, a host of citizen and trade centric applications have also been implemented. The salient aspects of this Mission Mode Project are two flagship applications – Vahan and Sarathi. While Vahan consolidates vehicle registration, taxation, permit, fitness and associated services across the country, Sarathi looks after the driving license, learner licence, driving schools and related activities. This has been implemented in more than 1,000 RTOs across 13 states/UTs with state-specific rules, tax structure, etc.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
Transport Mission Mode Project has successfully automated RTO operations, set up a consolidated transport database. Along with it, a host of citizen and trade centric applications have also been implemented. The salient aspects of this Mission Mode Project are two flagship applications – Vahan and Sarathi. While Vahan consolidates vehicle registration, taxation, permit, fitness and associated services across the country, Sarathi looks after the driving license, learner licence, driving schools and related activities. This has been implemented in more than 1,000 RTOs across 13 states/UTs with state-specific rules, tax structure, etc.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
Martial Art Forms : State
- Kalaripayattu : Kerala
- MallaKhamb : Madhya Pradesh
- Gatka : Punjab
- Huyen langlon : Assam
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Four indigenous martial art forms included in Khelo India Youth Games:
The Khelo India Youth games were launched in 2018 as a multidisciplinary grassroots event for under-17 years and under-21 years.
- Conducted annually, the best performers are given an annual scholarship of ₹5 lakh for eight years to prepare for international sporting events.
- In a recent move, the Sports Ministry inducted four indigenous martial art forms — Kalaripayattu of Kerala, Mallakhamb of Central India, Gatka of Punjab and Thang-ta of Manipur —into the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG).
What is Mallakhamb?
- It is a traditional form of gymnastics performed with a wooden pole (made of wood from sheesham or Indian rosewood and polished with castor oil), a cane, or a rope.
- Though Madhya Pradesh declared Mallakhamb the State sport only in 2013, it had been developed as a competitive sport since 1981, with rules and regulations introduced at the first National Championship that year.
Gatka:
- It is a style of fighting with wooden sticks that originated in Punjab in the 15th Century.
- The bana and chola are worn for ritualistic performances but when performed as a sport, the practitioner wears track pants and T-shirt, and the stick is no longer the size of a man.
Huyen langlon
- Huyen langlon is an Indian martial art from Manipur. In the Meitei language, huyenmeans war while langlon or langlong can mean net, knowledge or art. Huyen langlon consists of two main components: thang-ta (armed combat) and sarit sarak (unarmed fighting). The primary weapons of huyen langlon are the thang (sword) and ta (spear).
Kalaripayattu:
- It is a Martial art which originated as a style in Kerala during 3nd century BC to the 2nd century AD.
- The word kalari first appears in Sangam literature to describe both a battlefield and combat arena.
- It is also considered to be one of the oldest fighting systems in existence.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Four indigenous martial art forms included in Khelo India Youth Games:
The Khelo India Youth games were launched in 2018 as a multidisciplinary grassroots event for under-17 years and under-21 years.
- Conducted annually, the best performers are given an annual scholarship of ₹5 lakh for eight years to prepare for international sporting events.
- In a recent move, the Sports Ministry inducted four indigenous martial art forms — Kalaripayattu of Kerala, Mallakhamb of Central India, Gatka of Punjab and Thang-ta of Manipur —into the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG).
What is Mallakhamb?
- It is a traditional form of gymnastics performed with a wooden pole (made of wood from sheesham or Indian rosewood and polished with castor oil), a cane, or a rope.
- Though Madhya Pradesh declared Mallakhamb the State sport only in 2013, it had been developed as a competitive sport since 1981, with rules and regulations introduced at the first National Championship that year.
Gatka:
- It is a style of fighting with wooden sticks that originated in Punjab in the 15th Century.
- The bana and chola are worn for ritualistic performances but when performed as a sport, the practitioner wears track pants and T-shirt, and the stick is no longer the size of a man.
Huyen langlon
- Huyen langlon is an Indian martial art from Manipur. In the Meitei language, huyenmeans war while langlon or langlong can mean net, knowledge or art. Huyen langlon consists of two main components: thang-ta (armed combat) and sarit sarak (unarmed fighting). The primary weapons of huyen langlon are the thang (sword) and ta (spear).
Kalaripayattu:
- It is a Martial art which originated as a style in Kerala during 3nd century BC to the 2nd century AD.
- The word kalari first appears in Sangam literature to describe both a battlefield and combat arena.
- It is also considered to be one of the oldest fighting systems in existence.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities is undertaken by State Election Commission.
- State Election Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of Governor.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
State Election Commission:
- The Constitution of Indiavests in the State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities (Articles 243K, 243ZA).
- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
- As per article 243(C3) the Governor,when so requested by the State Election Commission, make available to the State Election Commission such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the SEC by clause (1).
Incorrect
Solution: A
State Election Commission:
- The Constitution of Indiavests in the State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities (Articles 243K, 243ZA).
- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
- As per article 243(C3) the Governor,when so requested by the State Election Commission, make available to the State Election Commission such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the SEC by clause (1).
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsThe term “Istanbul Convention” sometimes mentioned in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: C
Istanbul Convention:
- It is also called as the Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence.
- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- It is the most comprehensive legal framework that exists to tackle violence against women and girls, covering domestic violence, rape, sexual assault, female genital mutilation (FGM), so-called honour-based violence, and forced marriage.
- The Convention sets minimum standards for governments to meet when tackling violence against women.
- When a government ratifies the Convention, they are legally bound to follow it.
- As of March 2019, it has been signed by 45 countries and the European Union.
- The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers on 7 April 2011.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Istanbul Convention:
- It is also called as the Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence.
- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- It is the most comprehensive legal framework that exists to tackle violence against women and girls, covering domestic violence, rape, sexual assault, female genital mutilation (FGM), so-called honour-based violence, and forced marriage.
- The Convention sets minimum standards for governments to meet when tackling violence against women.
- When a government ratifies the Convention, they are legally bound to follow it.
- As of March 2019, it has been signed by 45 countries and the European Union.
- The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers on 7 April 2011.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Commission for Women
- National Commission for Women is a statutory body constituted under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
- It doesn’t have suo-moto powers for investigating the matter related to women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
National Commission for Women
The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, to
- Review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women
- Recommend remedial legislative measures
- Facilitate redressal of grievances
- Advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women
It has suo-moto powers for investigating the matter related to women concern
Incorrect
Solution: A
National Commission for Women
The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, to
- Review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women
- Recommend remedial legislative measures
- Facilitate redressal of grievances
- Advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women
It has suo-moto powers for investigating the matter related to women concern
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
- It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971
- Chilika Lake was one of the first designated Ramsar site in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Ramsar Convention:
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands. It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the Convention was signed in 1971.
Chilika lake was one of the first designated Ramsar site in India in 1981.
Chilka Lake (Chilika Lake) is a brackish water lagoon, spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east coast of India, at the mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of Bengal, covering an area of over 1,100 km2. It is the largest coastal lagoon in India and the second largest lagoon in the world. The lagoon hosts over 160 species of birds in the peak migratory season.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Ramsar Convention:
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands. It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the Convention was signed in 1971.
Chilika lake was one of the first designated Ramsar site in India in 1981.
Chilka Lake (Chilika Lake) is a brackish water lagoon, spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east coast of India, at the mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of Bengal, covering an area of over 1,100 km2. It is the largest coastal lagoon in India and the second largest lagoon in the world. The lagoon hosts over 160 species of birds in the peak migratory season.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA basket contains 6 White 4 Black 2 Pink and 3 Green balls. If four balls are picked at random, what is the probability that atleast one is Black?
Correct
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :
Total Balls = 15
Probability = 11c4/15c4 = 22/91
One is black = 1 – 22/91 = 69/91
Incorrect
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :
Total Balls = 15
Probability = 11c4/15c4 = 22/91
One is black = 1 – 22/91 = 69/91
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThere are 100 tickets in a box numbered 1 to 100. 3 tickets are drawn at one by one.Find the
probability that the sum of number on the tickets is odd.
Correct
Correct Answer : B
Solution:
There will be 4 cases
Case 1: even, even, odd
Prob. = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2
Case 2: even, odd, even
Prob. = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2
Case 3: odd, even, even
Prob. = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2
Case 4: odd, odd, odd
Prob. = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2
Add all the cases, required prob. = ½
Incorrect
Correct Answer : B
Solution:
There will be 4 cases
Case 1: even, even, odd
Prob. = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2
Case 2: even, odd, even
Prob. = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2
Case 3: odd, even, even
Prob. = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2
Case 4: odd, odd, odd
Prob. = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2
Add all the cases, required prob. = ½
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsFind the probability that in a random arrangement of the letter of words in the word ‘PROBABILITY’
the two I’s come together.Correct
Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification:
Explanation :
Total outcomes = 11!/(2!*2!)
favourable outcomes = (10!*2!)/(2!*2!)
p = 2/11Incorrect
Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification:
Explanation :
Total outcomes = 11!/(2!*2!)
favourable outcomes = (10!*2!)/(2!*2!)
p = 2/11 -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA sphere of 5 cm radius is melted and small sphere of radius 1 cm is made from it. Find the number
of sphere that can be made from it.Correct
Correct Answer: B
Solution: Number of sphere=Volume of
large sphere/volume of small sphere
[4/3* π *r13 ]/ [4/3* π
*r23 ]=5*5*5/1*1*1=12Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Solution: Number of sphere=Volume of
large sphere/volume of small sphere
[4/3* π *r13 ]/ [4/3* π
*r23 ]=5*5*5/1*1*1=12 -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsThe ages of P, Q and R together are 57 years. Sis thrice as old as P and R is 12 years older than P.
Then, the difference between ages Q and R is?Correct
Correct Answer : B
Solution:
Let P‘s age = X
R 12 yrs older than P so R‘s age = x+12
Q is thrice as old as P so Q‘s age = 3x
x + (x+12) + 3x = 57
=> 5x = 45
x = 9
P‘s age = 9
Q‘s age = 3x = 27
R‘s age = x+12 = 21
Q-R=27-21=6yrsIncorrect
Correct Answer : B
Solution:
Let P‘s age = X
R 12 yrs older than P so R‘s age = x+12
Q is thrice as old as P so Q‘s age = 3x
x + (x+12) + 3x = 57
=> 5x = 45
x = 9
P‘s age = 9
Q‘s age = 3x = 27
R‘s age = x+12 = 21
Q-R=27-21=6yrs









