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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT), consider the following statements
- Its judicial member should have been a judge of Supreme Court.
- Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) is considered to be a criminal court with respect to Indian Penal Code, and Code of Criminal Procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Armed Forces Tribunal is a military tribunal in India. It was established under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007. In 1999, the Law Commission’s 169th report stated that disciplinary and service matters required quick resolutions and proposed a special tribunal for the military and paramilitary forces. A judicial member should have been a judge of High Court. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
AFT is considered to be a criminal court with respect to Indian Penal Code, and Code of Criminal Procedure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Armed Forces Tribunal is a military tribunal in India. It was established under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007. In 1999, the Law Commission’s 169th report stated that disciplinary and service matters required quick resolutions and proposed a special tribunal for the military and paramilitary forces. A judicial member should have been a judge of High Court. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
AFT is considered to be a criminal court with respect to Indian Penal Code, and Code of Criminal Procedure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), consider the following statements
- The Central Government has constituted NCLT under the Companies Act, 2013.
- It is a quasi-judicial body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The National Company Law Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body in India that adjudicates issues relating to Indian companies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The tribunal was established under the Companies Act 2013 and was constituted on 1 June 2016 by the government of India and is based on the recommendation of the Justice Jain committee on law relating to insolvency and winding up of companies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The National Company Law Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body in India that adjudicates issues relating to Indian companies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The tribunal was established under the Companies Act 2013 and was constituted on 1 June 2016 by the government of India and is based on the recommendation of the Justice Jain committee on law relating to insolvency and winding up of companies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) is a not-for-profit public sector enterprise (PSE), set up by Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
- Students Innovations for Translation & Advancement of Research Explorations (SITARE) Scheme is aimed at supporting innovative student projects in the area of information technology (IT).
- LEAP Fund (Launching Entrepreneurial Driven Affordable Products) is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) is a not-for-profit Section 8, Schedule B, Public Sector Enterprise, set up by Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India as an Interface Agency to strengthen and empower the emerging Biotech enterprise to undertake strategic research and innovation, addressing nationally relevant product development needs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Students Innovations for Translation & Advancement of Research Explorations (SITARE) Scheme is aimed at supporting innovative student projects in the area of biotechnology. The scheme’s mandate is to promote and encourage young students for embracing translational research (defined under Section 4) to develop innovative products and technologies addressing unmet needs. SITARE-GYTI Award Grant is not a usual research fellowship. The scheme also provides an opportunity for orientation, training and mentoring through residential workshops etc. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
While the Bioincubators are able to support the “Space, Services and Knowledge” requirements of startups, wide gap exists in financial support required by a technology driven start up in the initial phase. BIRAC’s initiative – LEAP Fund (Launching Entrepreneurial Driven Affordable Products) primarily aims to address this need through the Incubators.
The LEAP Fund is to provide funding support of up to Rs 1 crore per startup. BioNEST Bioincubators (LEAP fund partners) will be given up to Rs 5 crore fund/ partner for investing in potential Startup against equity and equity linked instruments. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) is a not-for-profit Section 8, Schedule B, Public Sector Enterprise, set up by Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India as an Interface Agency to strengthen and empower the emerging Biotech enterprise to undertake strategic research and innovation, addressing nationally relevant product development needs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Students Innovations for Translation & Advancement of Research Explorations (SITARE) Scheme is aimed at supporting innovative student projects in the area of biotechnology. The scheme’s mandate is to promote and encourage young students for embracing translational research (defined under Section 4) to develop innovative products and technologies addressing unmet needs. SITARE-GYTI Award Grant is not a usual research fellowship. The scheme also provides an opportunity for orientation, training and mentoring through residential workshops etc. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
While the Bioincubators are able to support the “Space, Services and Knowledge” requirements of startups, wide gap exists in financial support required by a technology driven start up in the initial phase. BIRAC’s initiative – LEAP Fund (Launching Entrepreneurial Driven Affordable Products) primarily aims to address this need through the Incubators.
The LEAP Fund is to provide funding support of up to Rs 1 crore per startup. BioNEST Bioincubators (LEAP fund partners) will be given up to Rs 5 crore fund/ partner for investing in potential Startup against equity and equity linked instruments. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Tribes Advisory Councils have been constituted only in the Scheduled Areas States.
- It shall be the duty of the Tribes Advisory Council to advise on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Chief Minister of concerned state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Tribes Advisory Councils have been constituted in the Scheduled Areas States i.e. Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan and non-Scheduled Areas States of Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
With regard to the Tribes Advisory Council, the Para 4 (1) of the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution envisages that “There shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein. In terms of clause (2) of Para 4 of the Fifth Schedule, it shall be the duty of the Tribes Advisory Council to advise on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Tribes Advisory Councils have been constituted in the Scheduled Areas States i.e. Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan and non-Scheduled Areas States of Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
With regard to the Tribes Advisory Council, the Para 4 (1) of the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution envisages that “There shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein. In terms of clause (2) of Para 4 of the Fifth Schedule, it shall be the duty of the Tribes Advisory Council to advise on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the functions of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
- To intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.
- To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon.
- To encourage the efforts of non-governmental organisations (NGOs)
working in the field of human rights. - To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection
of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Correct
Solution: D
All statements given above are correct.
The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory but non-constitutional body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
The functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are:
- To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court.
- To intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.
- To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon.
- To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
- To review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures.
- To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and
make recommendations for their effective implementation. - To undertake and promote research in the field of human rights.
8. To spread human rights literacy among the people and promote awareness
of the safeguards available for the protection of these rights. - To encourage the efforts of non-governmental organisations (NGOs)
working in the field of human rights. - To undertake such other functions as it may consider necessary for the
promotion of human rights.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All statements given above are correct.
The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory but non-constitutional body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
The functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are:
- To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court.
- To intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.
- To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon.
- To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
- To review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures.
- To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and
make recommendations for their effective implementation. - To undertake and promote research in the field of human rights.
8. To spread human rights literacy among the people and promote awareness
of the safeguards available for the protection of these rights. - To encourage the efforts of non-governmental organisations (NGOs)
working in the field of human rights. - To undertake such other functions as it may consider necessary for the
promotion of human rights.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the features of the Family Courts Act, 1984?
- It makes it obligatory on the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a population exceeding one million.
- It provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
The Family Courts Act, 1984 was enacted to provide for the establishment of
Family Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy
settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts.
Family Courts Act, 1984 makes it obligatory on the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a population exceeding one million.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
The Family Courts Act, 1984 was enacted to provide for the establishment of
Family Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy
settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts.
Family Courts Act, 1984 makes it obligatory on the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a population exceeding one million.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to NITI Aayog, consider the following statements
- It is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body.
- NITI Aayog plays important role in designing strategic and long term policies and programmes for the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The NITI Aayog is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.
NITI AYOG has never been passed as an act of Parliament nor it has been mentioned anywhere in the Constitution thus it’s definitely neither statutory nor a constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
NITI Aayog plays important role in designing strategic and long term policies and programmes for the Government. It also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The NITI Aayog is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.
NITI AYOG has never been passed as an act of Parliament nor it has been mentioned anywhere in the Constitution thus it’s definitely neither statutory nor a constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
NITI Aayog plays important role in designing strategic and long term policies and programmes for the Government. It also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Central Vigilance Commissioner, consider the following statements:
- It is an investigating agency.
- The Central Vigilance Commissioner holds the office for 5 years
- It submits its report to the president of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Central Vigilance Commission is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. It is not an investigating agency. The CVC either gets the investigation done through the CBI or through chief vigilance officers (CVO) in government offices. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Central Vigilance Commissioner is to be appointed by the President of India. He holds the office for 4 years. He can be removed or suspended from the office by the President on the ground of misbehavior but only after the Supreme Court has held an inquiry into his case and recommended action against him. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It submits its report to the President of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct
Incorrect
Solution: A
Central Vigilance Commission is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. It is not an investigating agency. The CVC either gets the investigation done through the CBI or through chief vigilance officers (CVO) in government offices. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Central Vigilance Commissioner is to be appointed by the President of India. He holds the office for 4 years. He can be removed or suspended from the office by the President on the ground of misbehavior but only after the Supreme Court has held an inquiry into his case and recommended action against him. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It submits its report to the President of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
- UPSC is a constitutional body
- It conducts examinations for appointments to the services of the union, which includes all India services, central services and public services of the union territories.
- The Chairman and the members of the commission hold office for the period of the 6 years or until the age of 65 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Union Public Service Commission is India’s premier central recruiting agency. It is responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services. While Department of Personnel and Training is the central personnel agency in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC is a constitutional body, it has been established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India and consists of a Chairman and ten Members, who are appointed and removed by President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The chairman and members of the commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The members can resign in between the term by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed by the president following the procedure provided in the constitution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Union Public Service Commission is India’s premier central recruiting agency. It is responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services. While Department of Personnel and Training is the central personnel agency in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC is a constitutional body, it has been established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India and consists of a Chairman and ten Members, who are appointed and removed by President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The chairman and members of the commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The members can resign in between the term by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed by the president following the procedure provided in the constitution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Joint State Public Service Commission is a constitutional body.
- The number of members of a JSPSC and their conditions of service are determined by the parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The number of members of a JSPSC and their conditions of service are determined by the president. A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state governors. Each governor places the report before the state legislature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The number of members of a JSPSC and their conditions of service are determined by the president. A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state governors. Each governor places the report before the state legislature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Cabinet Secretariat, consider the following statements:
- It functions directly under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
- The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
- It is responsible for facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The business allocated to Cabinet Secretariat under Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 includes (i) Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees; and (ii) Rules of Business.
The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The Secretariat assists in decision-making in Government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst Ministries/Departments and evolving consensus through the instrumentality of the standing/adhoc Committees of Secretaries. Management of major crisis situations in the country and coordinating activities of various ministries in such a situation is also one of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The business allocated to Cabinet Secretariat under Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 includes (i) Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees; and (ii) Rules of Business.
The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The Secretariat assists in decision-making in Government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst Ministries/Departments and evolving consensus through the instrumentality of the standing/adhoc Committees of Secretaries. Management of major crisis situations in the country and coordinating activities of various ministries in such a situation is also one of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC), consider the following statements:
- It is incorporated as ‘not for profit’ company.
- It facilitates skill development of poor persons belonging to De-notified Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic tribe as well.
- It provides micro financing through State Channelizing Agencies (SCAs)/ Self Help Groups (SHGs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC) is a Govt. of India Undertaking under the aegis of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. NBCFDC was incorporated under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 on 13th January 1992 (now section 8 of Companies Act 2013) as a Company not for profit with an objective to promote economic and developmental activities for the benefit of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and to assist the poorer section of these classes in skill development and self-employment ventures. NBCFDC provides financial assistance through State Channelizing Agencies (SCAs) nominated by the State Governments/UTs and Banks (RRBs & PSBs). NBCFDC also provides Micro Financing through SCAs/ Self Help Groups (SHGs). The Corporation can assist a wide range of income generating activities to assist the poorer section of these classes in self-employment ventures under following broad sectors:
- Agriculture and Allied Activities
- Small Business/Artisan and Traditional Occupation
- Transport and Service Sector etc.
- Technical, Vocational and Professional Trades/Courses
The Corporation additionally facilitates skill development of poor persons belonging to OBCs, persons of Economically Backward Classes (EBCs), De-notified Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribe, Sr. Citizen, Beggars and Transgender.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC) is a Govt. of India Undertaking under the aegis of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. NBCFDC was incorporated under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 on 13th January 1992 (now section 8 of Companies Act 2013) as a Company not for profit with an objective to promote economic and developmental activities for the benefit of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and to assist the poorer section of these classes in skill development and self-employment ventures. NBCFDC provides financial assistance through State Channelizing Agencies (SCAs) nominated by the State Governments/UTs and Banks (RRBs & PSBs). NBCFDC also provides Micro Financing through SCAs/ Self Help Groups (SHGs). The Corporation can assist a wide range of income generating activities to assist the poorer section of these classes in self-employment ventures under following broad sectors:
- Agriculture and Allied Activities
- Small Business/Artisan and Traditional Occupation
- Transport and Service Sector etc.
- Technical, Vocational and Professional Trades/Courses
The Corporation additionally facilitates skill development of poor persons belonging to OBCs, persons of Economically Backward Classes (EBCs), De-notified Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribe, Sr. Citizen, Beggars and Transgender.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body.
- The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) came is a national-level apex organization functioning under the administrative control of Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December, 1985. The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) came into existence in 1987. It is a national-level apex organization functioning under the administrative control of Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Govt. of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December, 1985. The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) came into existence in 1987. It is a national-level apex organization functioning under the administrative control of Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Govt. of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under the Water Act, 1974.
- Central Ground Water Board (CGWB is the national apex agency entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and regulation of ground water resources of the country.
- Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) is a project for the repair and rehabilitation of dam projects across the seven states of India with the financial assistance from Asian Development Bank (ADB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), a subordinate office of the Ministry of Water Resources, Government of India, is the National Apex Agency entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and regulation of ground water resources of the country. Central Ground Water Board was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tube wells Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. It was merged with the Ground Water Wing of the Geological Survey of India during 1972. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Govt. of India has taken up the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) with the financial assistance of the World Bank for the repair and rehabilitation of initially about 225 dam projects across the seven states of India, namely Jharkhand (DVC), Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, and Uttarakhand (UJVNL). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), a subordinate office of the Ministry of Water Resources, Government of India, is the National Apex Agency entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and regulation of ground water resources of the country. Central Ground Water Board was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tube wells Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. It was merged with the Ground Water Wing of the Geological Survey of India during 1972. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Govt. of India has taken up the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) with the financial assistance of the World Bank for the repair and rehabilitation of initially about 225 dam projects across the seven states of India, namely Jharkhand (DVC), Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, and Uttarakhand (UJVNL). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following qualifications have been prescribed for the members of the Finance commission?
- A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
- A person who has specialized knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
- A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
- A person who has special knowledge of economics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance
Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the president
of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the president. They hold office for such period as specified by the president in his order. They are eligible for reappointment.
The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four other members should be selected from amongst the following:
- A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
- A person who has specialized knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
- A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
- A person who has special knowledge of economics.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance
Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the president
of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the president. They hold office for such period as specified by the president in his order. They are eligible for reappointment.
The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four other members should be selected from amongst the following:
- A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
- A person who has specialized knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
- A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
- A person who has special knowledge of economics.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsThe Programme for International Students Assessment (PISA) has been conducted by
Correct
Solution: C
Program for International Student Assessment (PISA):
- It is an international assessment that measures 15-year-old students’ reading, mathematics, and science literacy every three years.
- First conducted in 2000, the major domain of study rotates between reading, mathematics, and science in each cycle.
- PISA also includes measures of general or cross-curricular competencies, such as collaborative problem solving.
- PISA is coordinated by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), an intergovernmental organization of industrialized countries, and is conducted in the United States by NCES.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Program for International Student Assessment (PISA):
- It is an international assessment that measures 15-year-old students’ reading, mathematics, and science literacy every three years.
- First conducted in 2000, the major domain of study rotates between reading, mathematics, and science in each cycle.
- PISA also includes measures of general or cross-curricular competencies, such as collaborative problem solving.
- PISA is coordinated by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), an intergovernmental organization of industrialized countries, and is conducted in the United States by NCES.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the functions of Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities?
- The Commissioner takes up the matters pertaining to the grievances of the linguistic minorities
- It provides assistance to Union government only; State governments have their separate office to protect linguistic minorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with
respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the
States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this
regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956
inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. This article
contains the following provisions:
1. There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be
appointed by the President of India.
2. It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters
relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the
Constitution3. He would report to the President upon those matters at such
intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such
reports before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of
the states concerned.The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities
The Commissioner takes up all the matters pertaining to the grievances arising out of the non-implementation of the Constitutional and Nationally Agreed Scheme of Safeguards provided to linguistic minorities that come to its notice or are brought to its knowledge by the linguistic minority individuals, groups, associations or organizations at the highest political and administrative levels of the state governments and UT administrations and recommends remedial actions to be taken.
To promote and preserve linguistic minority groups, the Ministry of Minority Affairs has requested the State Governments / Union Territories to give wide publicity to the constitutional safeguards provided to linguistic minorities and to take necessary administrative measures. The state governments and UT Administrations were urged to accord priority to the implementation of the scheme of safeguards for linguistic minorities. The Commissioner launched a 10-point programme to lend fresh impetus to Governmental efforts towards the preservation of the language and culture of linguistic minorities.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with
respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the
States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this
regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956
inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. This article
contains the following provisions:
1. There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be
appointed by the President of India.
2. It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters
relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the
Constitution3. He would report to the President upon those matters at such
intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such
reports before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of
the states concerned.The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities
The Commissioner takes up all the matters pertaining to the grievances arising out of the non-implementation of the Constitutional and Nationally Agreed Scheme of Safeguards provided to linguistic minorities that come to its notice or are brought to its knowledge by the linguistic minority individuals, groups, associations or organizations at the highest political and administrative levels of the state governments and UT administrations and recommends remedial actions to be taken.
To promote and preserve linguistic minority groups, the Ministry of Minority Affairs has requested the State Governments / Union Territories to give wide publicity to the constitutional safeguards provided to linguistic minorities and to take necessary administrative measures. The state governments and UT Administrations were urged to accord priority to the implementation of the scheme of safeguards for linguistic minorities. The Commissioner launched a 10-point programme to lend fresh impetus to Governmental efforts towards the preservation of the language and culture of linguistic minorities.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsThe Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by
Correct
Solution: B
Article 350 B of the Constitution provides for the appointment by President of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
It shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under this Constitution and report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct, and the President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent to the Governments of the States concerned.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Article 350 B of the Constitution provides for the appointment by President of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
It shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under this Constitution and report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct, and the President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent to the Governments of the States concerned.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Chenchus Tribe
- They are endemic to Central India
- They help in the conservation of the Tigers
- They have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Chenchus are Adivasi, a designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka and Odisha. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
They are an aboriginal tribe whose traditional way of life has been based on hunting and gathering.
They help to conserve the big cats in Nallamala Forest. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
They have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Chenchus are Adivasi, a designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka and Odisha. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
They are an aboriginal tribe whose traditional way of life has been based on hunting and gathering.
They help to conserve the big cats in Nallamala Forest. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
They have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
- It works under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- It is a statutory body under the Special Police Establishment, 1941.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI.
The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).
The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI.
The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).
The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Simlipal National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
- It is located in Odisha state
- It is part of UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Simlipal National Park:
- Simlipal National Park is national park and a tiger reserve in Mayurbhanj district of Odisha.
- It is part of Similipal-Kuldiha-Hadgarh Elephant Reserve popularly known as Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve.
- Simlipal National Park derives its name from the abundance of semul (red silk cotton trees) that bloom here.
- It was the second largest national park in India.
- Its reserve is part of UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2009.
- The Park has protected area of 845.70 square kilometres and has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani.
- It is home to 99 royal Bengal tigers and 432 wild elephants.
- Besides it is famous for gaurs (Indian bison), chausingha as well as an orchidarium.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Simlipal National Park:
- Simlipal National Park is national park and a tiger reserve in Mayurbhanj district of Odisha.
- It is part of Similipal-Kuldiha-Hadgarh Elephant Reserve popularly known as Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve.
- Simlipal National Park derives its name from the abundance of semul (red silk cotton trees) that bloom here.
- It was the second largest national park in India.
- Its reserve is part of UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2009.
- The Park has protected area of 845.70 square kilometres and has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani.
- It is home to 99 royal Bengal tigers and 432 wild elephants.
- Besides it is famous for gaurs (Indian bison), chausingha as well as an orchidarium.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statement regarding Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA)
- It is statutory body established under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956.
- It is the designated Central Authority for regulating Inter-country Adoption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
About CARA:
- CARA is an apex body of Government of India for promoting and facilitating In-country Adoption and is the designated Central Authority for regulating Inter-country Adoption.
CARA was designated as a Statutory Body on 15 Jan 2016, under the provisions of Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
Incorrect
Solution: B
About CARA:
- CARA is an apex body of Government of India for promoting and facilitating In-country Adoption and is the designated Central Authority for regulating Inter-country Adoption.
CARA was designated as a Statutory Body on 15 Jan 2016, under the provisions of Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Bureau of Indian Standards, consider the following statements:
- It prescribes the standards for covering goods and systems under the standardization regime.
- It is regulated under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
- BIS is the only national body that frames standards.
- It works under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India.
- BIS is responsible for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
- It prescribes the standards for covering goods and systems under the standardization regime.
- The Bureau of Indian standards (BIS) Act 2016 establishes the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) as the National Standards Body of India.
- The Act enables the Central Government to appoint any authority/agency, in addition to the BIS, to verify the conformity of products and services with the established standard and issue certificate of conformity.
- There is a provision for repair or recall, of the products (bearing Standard Mark) that do not conform to the relevant Indian Standard.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
- BIS is the only national body that frames standards.
- It works under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India.
- BIS is responsible for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
- It prescribes the standards for covering goods and systems under the standardization regime.
- The Bureau of Indian standards (BIS) Act 2016 establishes the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) as the National Standards Body of India.
- The Act enables the Central Government to appoint any authority/agency, in addition to the BIS, to verify the conformity of products and services with the established standard and issue certificate of conformity.
- There is a provision for repair or recall, of the products (bearing Standard Mark) that do not conform to the relevant Indian Standard.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
National Park : River flowing through the Park
- Bandipur National Park : Kabini river
- Panna National Park : Ken River
- Nokrek national park : Simsang River
- Jim corbett national park : Bhagirathi River
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
Bandipur National Park,
Bandipur National Park, established in 1974 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national park located in the Indian state of Karnataka, which is the state with the second highest tiger population in India. Along with adjacent Nagarhole National Park, it is one of the Premier Tiger Reserves in the country. The park is flanked by the Kabini river in the north and the Moyar river in the south. The Nugu river runs through the park.
Panna National Park:
Panna National Park is a national park located in Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh in India. It has an area of 542.67 km2 (209.53 sq mi). It was declared in 1993 as the twenty second Tiger reserve of India and the fifth in Madhya Pradesh. The forests of Panna National Park along with Ken Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary and adjoining territorial divisions form a significant part of the catchment area of the 406 km (252 mi) Ken River which runs northeast for about 72 km (45 mi) through the park.
Nokrek National Park:
Nokrek National Park, the core area of Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, is a national park located approximately 2 km from Tura Peak in West Garo Hills district of Meghalaya, India. UNESCO added this National park to its list of Biosphere Reserves in May 2009. Along with Balpakram national park, Nokrek is a hotspot of biodiversity in Meghalaya. Established in 1986. All-important rivers and streams of the Garo Hills region rise from the Nokrek Range, of which the river Simsang, known as Someshwari when it emerges into Bangladesh at Baghmara, is the most prominent.
Jim Corbett National Park:
Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India and was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the endangered Bengal tiger. It is located in Nainital district and Pauri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand and was named after hunter and naturalist Jim Corbett. The park was the first to come under the Project Tiger initiative. The Ramganga river (West) along with its significant tributaries Sonanadi, Palain and Mandal forms the prominent hydrological resource for the Corbett.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bandipur National Park,
Bandipur National Park, established in 1974 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national park located in the Indian state of Karnataka, which is the state with the second highest tiger population in India. Along with adjacent Nagarhole National Park, it is one of the Premier Tiger Reserves in the country. The park is flanked by the Kabini river in the north and the Moyar river in the south. The Nugu river runs through the park.
Panna National Park:
Panna National Park is a national park located in Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh in India. It has an area of 542.67 km2 (209.53 sq mi). It was declared in 1993 as the twenty second Tiger reserve of India and the fifth in Madhya Pradesh. The forests of Panna National Park along with Ken Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary and adjoining territorial divisions form a significant part of the catchment area of the 406 km (252 mi) Ken River which runs northeast for about 72 km (45 mi) through the park.
Nokrek National Park:
Nokrek National Park, the core area of Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, is a national park located approximately 2 km from Tura Peak in West Garo Hills district of Meghalaya, India. UNESCO added this National park to its list of Biosphere Reserves in May 2009. Along with Balpakram national park, Nokrek is a hotspot of biodiversity in Meghalaya. Established in 1986. All-important rivers and streams of the Garo Hills region rise from the Nokrek Range, of which the river Simsang, known as Someshwari when it emerges into Bangladesh at Baghmara, is the most prominent.
Jim Corbett National Park:
Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India and was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the endangered Bengal tiger. It is located in Nainital district and Pauri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand and was named after hunter and naturalist Jim Corbett. The park was the first to come under the Project Tiger initiative. The Ramganga river (West) along with its significant tributaries Sonanadi, Palain and Mandal forms the prominent hydrological resource for the Corbett.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 points‘Global Stocktake (GST)’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following Treaties/Agreements/Conventions?
Correct
Solution: C
Global Stocktake (GST):
- The landmark Paris Agreement requires assessment of collective progress every five years as part of the regular process to increase the ambition of country climate commitments. This analysis, known as the Global Stocktake (GST), is an essential feature of the Paris Agreement, providing a solid foundation to empower countries to take bolder climate action.
- Under the Paris Agreement, each country has to present a climate action plan every five years.
- Under the Paris Agreement, the first global stocktake will happen in 2023.
- It will help world to determine whether it needs to do more and how much more.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Global Stocktake (GST):
- The landmark Paris Agreement requires assessment of collective progress every five years as part of the regular process to increase the ambition of country climate commitments. This analysis, known as the Global Stocktake (GST), is an essential feature of the Paris Agreement, providing a solid foundation to empower countries to take bolder climate action.
- Under the Paris Agreement, each country has to present a climate action plan every five years.
- Under the Paris Agreement, the first global stocktake will happen in 2023.
- It will help world to determine whether it needs to do more and how much more.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThe letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N?
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Difference between P & T is 5 i.e., T = 5 + 4 = 9
Difference between N & T is 3 i.e., N = 9 – 3 = 6
So, integer assigned to N = 6
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Difference between P & T is 5 i.e., T = 5 + 4 = 9
Difference between N & T is 3 i.e., N = 9 – 3 = 6
So, integer assigned to N = 6
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips back 20 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent at 8.00 a.m., at what time will he first touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground?
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Let ascent of the monkey in 1 hour = (30 – 20) = 10 feet.
So, the monkey ascends 90 feet in 9 hours i.e., 5 p.m.
Clearly, in the next 1 hour i.e., till 6 p.m.
The monkey ascends remaining 30 feet to touch the flag.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Let ascent of the monkey in 1 hour = (30 – 20) = 10 feet.
So, the monkey ascends 90 feet in 9 hours i.e., 5 p.m.
Clearly, in the next 1 hour i.e., till 6 p.m.
The monkey ascends remaining 30 feet to touch the flag.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIn a parking area, the total number of wheels of all the cars (four-wheelers) and scooters/motorbikes (two-wheelers) is 100 more than twice the number of parked vehicles. The number of cars parked is
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Let number of cars be x
Let number of scooters / motorbikes = y
Total number of parked vehicles = x + y
According to question
4x + 2y = 2 (x + y) + 100
4x + 2y = 2 x + 2y + 100
2x = 100
x = 50
Hence, Number of cars parked is 50.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Let number of cars be x
Let number of scooters / motorbikes = y
Total number of parked vehicles = x + y
According to question
4x + 2y = 2 (x + y) + 100
4x + 2y = 2 x + 2y + 100
2x = 100
x = 50
Hence, Number of cars parked is 50.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA man pointing to a photograph says, “The lady in the photograph is my nephew’s maternal grandmother.” How is the lady in the photograph related to the man’s sister who has no other sister?
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Clearly, the lady is the grandmother of man’s sister’s son i.e., the mother of the mother of man’s sister’s son
i.e., The mother of man’s sister.
So, the lady is the man’s mother.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Clearly, the lady is the grandmother of man’s sister’s son i.e., the mother of the mother of man’s sister’s son
i.e., The mother of man’s sister.
So, the lady is the man’s mother.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsA vessel is filled with liquid, 4 parts of which are water and 7 parts syrup. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup?
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Suppose the vessel initially contains 11 Litre of liquid.
Let x Litre of this liquid be replaced with water.
Quantity of water in new mixture = (4 – 4x/11 + x) L
Quantity of syrup in new mixture = (7 – 7x/11) L
4 – 4x/11 + x = 7- 7x/11
14x/11 = 3
x = 33/14
So, part of the mixture replaced =
(33/14 * 1/11) = 3/14
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Suppose the vessel initially contains 11 Litre of liquid.
Let x Litre of this liquid be replaced with water.
Quantity of water in new mixture = (4 – 4x/11 + x) L
Quantity of syrup in new mixture = (7 – 7x/11) L
4 – 4x/11 + x = 7- 7x/11
14x/11 = 3
x = 33/14
So, part of the mixture replaced =
(33/14 * 1/11) = 3/14