DAY – 25 ( INSTA REVISION TEST – 25)INSTA REVISION PLAN 3.0, 2021

Solution: A

The Indian Parliamentary Group is an autonomous body, membership of which is open to all current or former members of the Indian Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Speaker of Lok Sabha is its ex-officio President. It was founded in 1949, following a Motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 16 August 1948. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Membership of the Indian Parliamentary Group is open to all Members of Parliament and ex-Members of Parliament. A Member of Parliament can become a life Member of the Group on payment of life subscription. On ceasing to be a Member of Parliament, a life member of the Group is designated as ‘Associate Life Member’. The management and control of the affairs of the Group are vested in the Executive Committee. The Speaker, Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of the Group.

Solution: A

Election Commission of India’s Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for conduct of political parties and candidates during elections mainly with respect to speeches, polling day, polling booths, portfolios, election manifestos, processions and general conduct. These set of norms has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code in its letter and spirit.

There shall be no appeal to caste or communal feelings for securing votes. Mosques, Churches, Temples or other places of worship shall not be used as forum for election propaganda. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Its main purpose is to ensure that ruling parties, at the Centre and in the States, do not misuse their position of advantage to gain an unfair edge. It is designed to avert practices which are deemed corrupt under model code of conduct. For example, politicians should not make hate speeches, putting one community against another or make promises about new projects that may sway a voter.

The MCC is not enforceable by law. However, certain provisions of the MCC may be enforced through invoking corresponding provisions in other statutes such as the Indian Penal Code, 1860, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and Representation of the People Act, 1951. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The government of India has provisions for allowing its citizens to cast vote during an election in three different ways: In person, by post, and through a proxy.

Proxy voting allows a registered elector to delegate his voting rights to a representative he nominates. This was introduced in 2003 for very few countries to have such a provision. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Only “classified service voter” serving in the armed forces or paramilitary forces is allowed to avail of these benefits; the proxy, too, must be a registered voter of the same constituency. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: C

Representation of Peoples Act 1951:

• The Representation of People Act, 1951 is an act of Parliament of India to provide for the conduct of elections of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State, the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of those Houses, the corrupt practices and other offences at or in connection with such elections and the decision of doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with such elections.
• The Act was enacted by the provisional parliament under Article 327 of Indian Constitution, before the first general election.
• All the seats in the House of the People allotted to the States shall be seats to be filled by persons chosen by direct election from parliamentary constituencies in the States. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Every parliamentary constituency shall be a single member constituency.
• Every State to which only one seat is allotted shall form one parliamentary constituency. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: A

Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor. However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister. In accordance with the convections of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

The council of ministers in the states is constituted and function in the same way as the council of ministers at the Centre. The salaries and allowances of ministers shall be determined by the state legislature. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the state Legislative Assembly. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: C

The Speaker of Assembly maintains order and decorum in the assembly for conducting its business and regulating its proceedings. This is his primary responsibility and he has final power in this regard. He decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not and his decision on this question is final. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

He appoints the chairmen of all the committees of the assembly and supervises their functioning. He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules Committee and the General Purpose Committee. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: D

The Constitution lays down a special procedure for the passing of Money Bills in the state legislature. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the legislative council. It can be introduced in the legislative assembly only and that too on the recommendation of the governor. Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

If the legislative council does not return the bill to the legislative assembly within 14 days, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiry of the said period in the form originally passed by the legislative assembly. Thus, the legislative assembly has more powers than legislative council with regard to a money bill. At the most, the legislative council can detain or delay a money bill for a period of 14 days. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Lok Adalat is a forum where the cases (or disputes) which are pending in a court or which are at pre-litigation stage (not yet brought before a court) are compromised or settled in an amicable manner.

Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

A permanent Lok Adalat can pass an award on merits, even without the consent of parties. Such an award is final and binding. From that no appeal is possible. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 has been enacted to provide for the establishment of the Gram Nyayalayas at the grass roots level for the purposes of providing access to justice to the citizens at their doorsteps and to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to social, economic or other disabilities.

The Gram Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: C

The Central Council of Local Government was set up in 1954. It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India by an order of the President of India. Originally, it was known as the Central Council of Local Self-Government. The Council is an advisory body. It consists of the Minister for Urban Development in the Government of India and the ministers for local self-government in states. The Union minister acts as the Chairman of the Council. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Till 1958, it dealt with both urban as well as rural local governments, but after 1958 it has been dealing with matters of urban local government only. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: B

The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) of the Central Government of India discusses, debates and is the final decision-making body on senior appointments in the national security apparatus ,defence policy and expenditure, and generally all matters of India’s national security. The CCS is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. The CCS consists of the following members:

Prime Minister

Minister of Home Affairs

Minister of Defence

Minister of External Affairs

Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: D

All the above laws have bearing on Health

The Act prohibits a person to produce/manufacture/cultivate, possess, sell, purchase, transport, store, and/or consume any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance which has a direct bearing on personal and social health.

Food adulteration, such as mixing of ammonia in milk, significantly risks public health and is thus regulated by the Act.

Bio-medical wastes emitted by hospitals and other such institutions are regulated by this act, which could become a local menace by leaching into groundwater, spread microorganisms etc.

Suppose a wrong medicine was prescribed by a hospital to patient, consuming which causes immense damage to the patient. The patient, as a consumer, can raise this issue in the consumer court and get adequate compensation.

Solution: A

Traditionally, the Bank President has always been a U.S. citizen nominated by the President of the United States, the largest shareholder in the bank. The nominee is subject to confirmation by the Board of Governors, to serve for a five-year, renewable term. The president is responsible for chairing the meetings of the Boards of Directors and for overall management of the World Bank Group. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: B

Financial Action Task Force was set up in 1989 by the G7 countries with headquarters in Paris. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

FATF acts as an “international watchdog‟ on issues of money-laundering and financing of terrorism. It has 37 members, which include all 5 permanent members of the Security Council and other countries with economic influence. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Two regional organisations, the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and the European Commission (EC) are also its members. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

https://www.fatf-gafi.org/about/

Solution: A

BRICS is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Originally the first four were grouped as “BRIC” (or “the BRICs”), before the induction of South Africa in 2010. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

Last summit of BRICS was held at South Africa. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

The proposal for the creation of an “Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank” was first made by the Vice Chairman of the China Center for International Economic Exchanges, a Chinese thinktank, at the Bo’ao Forum in April 2009. The initiative was officially launched by Chinese President Xi Jinping on a state visit to Indonesia in October 2013. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Salient Features of National Policy on Biofuels – 2018

1. The Policy categorises biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
2. The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
3. Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
4. With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
5. The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops.
6. Roles and responsibilities of all the concerned Ministries/Departments with respect to biofuels has been captured in the Policy document to synergise efforts.

https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1532265

Solution: D

The Krishna is an east-flowing river that originates at Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and merges with the Bay of Bengal, flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. Together with its tributaries, it forms a vast basin that covers 33% of the total area of the four states. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

In 1969, the Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal (KWDT) was set up under the Inter-State River Water Dispute Act, 1956, and presented its report in 1973. The report, which was published in 1976, divided the 2060 TMC (thousand million cubic feet) of Krishna water at 75 per cent dependability into three parts: 560 TMC for Maharashtra, 700 TMC for Karnataka and 800 TMC for Andhra Pradesh. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Krishna River empties into the Bay of Bengal at Hamasaladeevi (near Koduru) in Andhra Pradesh. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: A
Party is recognised as a national party if any of the following conditions is fulfilled:

1. If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and, in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states; or
2. If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are elected from three states; or
3. If it is recognised as a state party in four states

A party is recognised as a state party in a state if any of the following conditions is fulfilled:

1. If it secures six per cent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the legislative assembly of the state concerned; and, in addition, it wins 2 seats in the assembly of the state concerned; or
2. If it secures six per cent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; and, in addition, it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; or
   3. If it wins three per cent of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to the legislative assembly of the state concerned or 3 seats in the assembly, whichever is more; or
3. If it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; or
4. If it secures eight per cent of the total valid votes polled in the state at a General Election to the Lok Sabha from the state or to the legislative assembly of the state. This condition was added in 2011.

Solution: D

Both the statements are incorrect.

Project CHAMAN is a pioneer project to provide strategic development to the horticulture sector, so as to increase farmer’s income. This project is being implemented by National Crop Forecast Centre (MNCFC) using remote sensing technology and is likely to be completed in March 2018 in all the states.

Mission Fingerling, a programme aimed at achieving the Blue Revolution by enabling holistic development and management of fisheries.

Solution: D

The Okjokull glacier became the first Icelandic glacier lost due to climate change.

https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/trending-globally/memorial-plaque-installed-at-okjokull-glacier-the-first-one-in-iceland-lost-to-climate-change-5917394/

Solution: A

Duncan pass is located between South and little Andaman. It is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It is about 48 km wide; it separates Rutland Island to the north, and Little Andaman to the south. West of Duncan Passage is the Bay of Bengal; east is the Andaman Sea. Several small islands and islets lie along the passage.

Solution: D

Both the statements given above are incorrect.

Fair Price Shop means a shop which has been licensed to distribute essential commodities by an order issued under section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, to the ration card holders under the Targeted Public Distribution System.

The term is defined in Section 2(4) of National Food Security Act, 2013.

Ration card means a document issued under an order or authority of the State Government for the purchase of essential commodities from the fair price shops under the Public Distribution System (PDS) / Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).

Ration Card is issued per family. It is voluntary and not compulsory for citizens to acquire it. However, all those citizens who want to get subsidised food may need to get that.

Though ration cards have been in use for a very long time, the term got legally defined later in Section 2(16) of National Food Security Act, 2013.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

The Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) is an intergovernmental body with over 180 members, within the framework of the Joint Food Standards Programme established by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO), with the purpose of protecting the health of consumers and ensuring fair practices in the food trade.

It was established in 1960’s.

The Codex Alimentarius is recognized by the World Trade Organization as an international reference point for the resolution of disputes concerning food safety and consumer protection.

Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
There are 8 balls that are green and 7 that are white.
Now, if we pick 8 + 7 = 15 balls, there remains a chance that 8/8 are green and 7/7 are white that
is all 15 are green and white.
Now, if we pick 15+1 = 16 balls, there cannot be more than 15 balls that are green and white, so
we will get at least 1 red ball.
So,16 is the answer.

Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
In 2000, Average profit of A= Rs.6000.
In 1999, Average profit of A= Rs.4000.
Difference = Rs.2000

Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Let their marks be (x + 9) and x.
Then, x + 9 =56/100(x + 9 + x)
25(x + 9) = 14(2x + 9)
3x = 99
x = 33
So, their marks are 42 and 33

Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The difference between Labour and Steel is 36 degrees. And total cost is (6lakh=) 360 degrees.
So the percentage= 36/360 x 100 =10% of the total cost.

Correct Answer: C
Answer Justification:
Explanation :
Total cards = 52
Drawn cards(Heart) = 2
Present total cards = total cards-drawn cards =52-2=50
Remaining Card 13-2 = 11
Probability = 11/50