DAY – 23 ( INSTA REVISION TEST – 23)INSTA REVISION PLAN 3.0, 2021

Solution: A

It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It thus reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution: D

Both the statements are correct.

Solution: A

All the statements are correct.

Features of Government of India Act of 1919

• It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
• It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
• It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.

Solution: B

Simon Commission In November 1927 itself (i.e., 2 years before the schedule), the British Government announced the appointment a seven-member statutory commission under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon to report on the condition of India under its new Constitution.

All the members of the commission were British and hence, all the parties boycotted the commission.

The commission submitted its report in 1930 and recommended

• The abolition of dyarchy, Hence Statement 2 is
• extension of responsible government in the provinces,
• Establishment of a federation of British India. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
• Princely states, continuation of communal electorate and so on. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

To consider the proposals of the commission, the British Government convened three round table conferences of the representatives of the British
Government, British India and Indian princely states.

Solution: C

Both these aspects of freedom — the absence of external constraints as well as the existence of conditions in which people can develop their talents — are important. A free society would be one which enables all its members to develop their potential with the minimum of social constraints.

No individual living in society can hope to enjoy total absence of any kind of constraints or restrictions. It becomes necessary then to determine which social constraints are justified and which are not, which are acceptable and which should be removed.

It implies that freedom can be a component of only democratic societies, but it is not true. Even autocratic societies have some sense of freedom.

Moreover, in order to be free, an individual should be able to make decisions individually, with a support of collective decision-making in which no one individual dominates the others. So, it is wrong to say that ALL decisions should be made collectively to enjoy freedom.

Hence Statement 2 is incorrect and all other statements are correct.

Solution: B

There is no such provision for reservation in constitution. Endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.

The President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

When the President (on a demand being made) is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognised by that state, then he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognised in that state. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution: C

Both the statements are incorrect.

In August 1932, Ramsay MacDonald, the British Prime Minister, announced a scheme of representation of the minorities, which came to be known as the Communal Award.

Communal award not only continued separate electorates for the Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, AngloIndians and Europeans but also extended it to the depressed classes (scheduled castes).

On the basis of round table discussions, a ‘White Paper on Constitutional Reforms’ was prepared and submitted for the consideration of the Joint Select Committee of the British Parliament.

Solution: C

Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government except those assigned to the Union. The states thus derive power directly from the constitution. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

It shall flow from its people based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty.  Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

As per the resolution, all people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before law; and fundamental freedoms – of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action – subject to law and public morality. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution: D

A mere declaration of fundamental rights in the Constitution is meaningless,
useless and worthless without providing an effective machinery for their
enforcement, if and when they are violated.

Hence, Article 32 confers the
right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an
aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights
protected is in itself a fundamental right. This makes the fundamental rights
real.

That is why Dr Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important
article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution
would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very
heart of it’. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature
of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of
an amendment to the Constitution.

Solution: D
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the
Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.

The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Dr B R Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution.
All the four legislations given above in the options are part of implementation of DPSPs in letter and spirit.

Solution: C
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and
control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the
four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

The 42nd Amendment is regarded as the most controversial constitutional amendment in Indian history. It attempted to reduce the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts to pronounce upon the constitutional validity of laws. It laid down the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens to the nation.

The 52nd amendment to the Constitution added the Tenth Schedule which laid down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection. A Member of Parliament or state legislature was deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily resigned from his party or disobeyed the directives of the party leadership on a vote.

Solution: D

Four factors have contributed to the elephantine size of our Constitution.
(a) Geographical factors, that is, the vastness of the country and its diversity.
(b) Historical factors, e.g., the influence of the Government of India Act of 1935, which was bulky.
(c) Single Constitution for both the Centre and the states except Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Dominance of legal luminaries in the Constituent Assembly

Solution: A

• Lengthiest Written Constitution
• Drawn From Various Sources
• Blend of Rigidity and Flexibility
• Federal System with Unitary Bias
• Synthesis of Parliamentary Sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy
• Integrated and Independent Judiciary
• Three tier government.

Solution: A

The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

Article 1, on the other, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

That’s why, Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K C Wheare.

Solution: C

Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.

Features of the Act

1. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings.
2. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
3. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and three other judges.
4. It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
5. It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.

Pitt’s India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the company. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Charter Act of 1853 introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: D

The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at
the Centre but also in the states. The features of parliamentary government in India are:
(a) Presence of nominal and real executives;
(b) Majority party rule,
(c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
(d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
(e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
(f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

The Supreme Court is a federal court, the highest court of appeal, the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens and the guardian of the Constitution. Hence, the Constitution has made various provisions to ensure its independence—security of tenure of the judges, fixed service conditions for the judges, all the expenses of the Supreme Court charged on the Consolidated

Fund of India, prohibition on discussion on the conduct of judges in the legislatures, ban on practice after retirement, power to punish for its contempt vested in the Supreme Court, separation of the judiciary from the
executive, and so on

Solution: B

The Indian constitution borrows heavily from the constitution of other nations.

Suppose if the constituent assembly of India consisted of British administrators and only members of princely states, we wouldn’t have acknowledged the framing of the constitution as just and democratic.

Democracies can decide to vest greater or lesser power in its federal units; its only a matter of political structure.

A democracy need not be secular, for e.g. Pakistan.

Solution: D

Most constitutions refrain from doing so, and only provide a larger set of principles on which of the state should endeavour ensuring economic welfare.

In India, we follow principles of equity and fairness, as a part of DPSP, in the desirable distribution of economic resources in the society.

Solution: B

In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles’. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Constitution itself declares that DPSP are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution: B

The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens. Hence Statement 1 is correct. These were added during the operation of internal emergency (1975–77) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added one more fundamental duty. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:

(a) The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
(b) The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
(c) The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
(d) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
(e) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
(f) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
(g) Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
(h) No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).
(i) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).
(j) Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or culture (Article 29).
(k) All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article 30).
(l) The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).

Solution: D

Answer : b

Work equivalence method:

30 x 5 x 16 = 20 x 6 Xn

Gives the value of n as 20 days

1. Answer: a

   Ajay’s daily work = 4.1666%. Vijay’s daily work = 3.33% and the daily work of all the three together is 8.33%. Hence, Pradeep’s daily work will be 0.8333%. Hence, he will end up doing 10% of the total work in 12 days. This will mean that he will be paid Rs. 20.

Answer: c

Total work = 15 x 210= 3150 man days.

After 100 days, work done = 15 x 100 = 1500 man days

Work left = 3150 1500 1650 man days.

This work has to be done with 30 men working each day.

The number of days (more) required = 1650/30= 55 days

Answer 😀

A+V+S = 1

A+V= 19/23 ………………..(1)

V+S = 8/23

A+ 2V + S=27/23 …………(2)

(2) – (1) gives us : V = 4/23

Answer : a

Interpret the starting statement as: Anmol takes 30 days and Vinay takes 90 days. Hence, the answer

will be got by:

(1/30 + 1/90)* n=1

Alternatively, you can also solve using percentages

as: 3.33 +1.11 = 4.44% is the daily work. Hence,

the no. of days required is 100/4.44 = 22.5 days.