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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘National Policy on Biofuels-2018’ which was recently
approved by the cabinet, consider the following statements:- With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap
funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries in addition to additional
tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels. - The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved National Policy on Biofuels – 2018.
Salient Features:
- The Policy categorizes biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
- The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
- Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
- With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
- The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops..
- Roles and responsibilities of all the concerned Ministries/Departments with respect to biofuels has been captured in the Policy document to synergize efforts.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved National Policy on Biofuels – 2018.
Salient Features:
- The Policy categorizes biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
- The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
- Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
- With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
- The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops..
- Roles and responsibilities of all the concerned Ministries/Departments with respect to biofuels has been captured in the Policy document to synergize efforts.
- With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding International Solid Waste Association (ISWA)
- It is a non-governmental, independentand non-profit association by statutes.
- ISWA promotes and develop professional waste management worldwide as a contribution to sustainable development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
ISWA is a non-governmental, independent and non-profit association by statutes. ISWA promotes and develop professional waste management worldwide as a contribution to sustainable development.
ISWA’s vision is an Earth where no waste exists. It focus on Sustainable Waste Management. It is located in Vienna, Austria.
Incorrect
Solution: C
ISWA is a non-governmental, independent and non-profit association by statutes. ISWA promotes and develop professional waste management worldwide as a contribution to sustainable development.
ISWA’s vision is an Earth where no waste exists. It focus on Sustainable Waste Management. It is located in Vienna, Austria.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mini Mum
- It lives in the leaf litters of lowland forests.
- It is one of the smallest frogs in the world
- It is endemic to Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Mini mum frog is found in eastern Madagascar, it lives in the leaf litters of lowland forests.
It is one of the smallest frogs in the world, reaching an adult body size of 9.7 mm in males and 11.3 mm in females, it could sit on a thumbtack.
These frogs belong to the subfamily Cophylinae which is endemic to Madagascar.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Mini mum frog is found in eastern Madagascar, it lives in the leaf litters of lowland forests.
It is one of the smallest frogs in the world, reaching an adult body size of 9.7 mm in males and 11.3 mm in females, it could sit on a thumbtack.
These frogs belong to the subfamily Cophylinae which is endemic to Madagascar.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Unlike the Kyoto Protocol, Paris Agreement is not legally-binding and it does not assign any emission cut targets on any country.
- The Paris Agreement officially entered into force after 155 parties to the convention accounting for at least 55% of total GHG emissions ratified it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Unlike the Kyoto Protocol, Paris Agreement is not legally-binding and it does not assign any emission cut targets on any country.
The Paris Agreement officially entered into force after 55 parties to the convention accounting for at least 55% of total GHG emissions ratified it.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Unlike the Kyoto Protocol, Paris Agreement is not legally-binding and it does not assign any emission cut targets on any country.
The Paris Agreement officially entered into force after 55 parties to the convention accounting for at least 55% of total GHG emissions ratified it.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Think 20
- It is an engagement group of Think Tanks from UNEP
- Each engagement group is independent and chaired by one of its national members, and each group develops a set of policy recommendations
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
It is an engagement group of Think Tanks from G20 countries.
The G20 confers with a set of engagement groups, which comprise civil society organizations from the G20 countries that represent different sectors of society.
Each engagement group is independent and chaired by one of its national members, and each group develops a set of policy recommendations that are formally submitted to the G20 ahead of the summit.
Incorrect
Solution: B
It is an engagement group of Think Tanks from G20 countries.
The G20 confers with a set of engagement groups, which comprise civil society organizations from the G20 countries that represent different sectors of society.
Each engagement group is independent and chaired by one of its national members, and each group develops a set of policy recommendations that are formally submitted to the G20 ahead of the summit.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Green Sea Turtle
- Green turtles are widely distributed in tropical and subtropical waters.
- They are included in the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) appendix 1.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Green turtles are named after the greenish colour of their cartilage and the fat deposits around their internal organs. They are black-brown or greenish yellow in colour. Green turtles are widely distributed in tropical and subtropical waters.
It is listed as endangered species in the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) red list. Green turtles are also included in the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) appendix 1.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Green turtles are named after the greenish colour of their cartilage and the fat deposits around their internal organs. They are black-brown or greenish yellow in colour. Green turtles are widely distributed in tropical and subtropical waters.
It is listed as endangered species in the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) red list. Green turtles are also included in the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) appendix 1.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The CentralGovernment may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part 2 of Schedule II of the law to be
- As long as the notification is in force such wild animal shall be included in Schedule Vof the law, depriving them of any protection under that law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Vermin Species
- Any animal which poses a threat to human and their livelihood especially farming, can be declared Vermin under Schedule V of Wildlife Protection act 1972.
- As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter.
- The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part 2 of Schedule II of the law to be vermin for any areafor a given period of time.
- As long as the notification is in force such wild animal shall be included in Schedule Vof the law, depriving them of any protection under that law.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Vermin Species
- Any animal which poses a threat to human and their livelihood especially farming, can be declared Vermin under Schedule V of Wildlife Protection act 1972.
- As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter.
- The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part 2 of Schedule II of the law to be vermin for any areafor a given period of time.
- As long as the notification is in force such wild animal shall be included in Schedule Vof the law, depriving them of any protection under that law.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
- It is an autonomous body
- It aims to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India under the MoEFCC. It’s not an autonomous body.
Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated:
- To collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities.
- To disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals.
- To establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
- Co-ordinate actions by various agencies in connection with the enforcement of the provisions of the Act.
- Assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate co-ordination and universal action for wildlife crime control.
- It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.
It is to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India under the MoEFCC. It’s not an autonomous body.
Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated:
- To collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities.
- To disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals.
- To establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
- Co-ordinate actions by various agencies in connection with the enforcement of the provisions of the Act.
- Assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate co-ordination and universal action for wildlife crime control.
- It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.
It is to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Roofed Turtle
- It is found in India, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan.
- In India, it is found in Ganges, Brahmaputra and Indus River drainages.
- It is listed on Appendix I of CITES.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Indian roofed turtle is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae. It can be distinguished by the distinct “roof” at the topmost part of the shell. It is found in the major rivers of South Asia. It is found in India, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan.
In India, it is found in Ganges, Brahmaputra and Indus River drainages. The protected areas in Jalpaiguri, West Bengal is known for protecting this species.
It is listed on Appendix I of CITES and as Least Concern in the IUCN list.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Indian roofed turtle is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae. It can be distinguished by the distinct “roof” at the topmost part of the shell. It is found in the major rivers of South Asia. It is found in India, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan.
In India, it is found in Ganges, Brahmaputra and Indus River drainages. The protected areas in Jalpaiguri, West Bengal is known for protecting this species.
It is listed on Appendix I of CITES and as Least Concern in the IUCN list.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Biostasy
- The term was applied by Erhart
- In this phase, there is dying or lack of vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Biostasy: A term that was applied by Erhart in 1956 to periods of soil formation, with rhexistasy referring to phases of denudation.
In periods of biostasy, there is normal vegetation, while in phases of rhexistasy there is dying out or lack of vegetation, as a result of soil erosion resulting from climatic changes, tectonic displacement, etc.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Biostasy: A term that was applied by Erhart in 1956 to periods of soil formation, with rhexistasy referring to phases of denudation.
In periods of biostasy, there is normal vegetation, while in phases of rhexistasy there is dying out or lack of vegetation, as a result of soil erosion resulting from climatic changes, tectonic displacement, etc.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Sedimentary cycle
- Sedimentary cycles are the ones in which the reservoir are sedimentary rocks only.
- Sedimentary cycles include those of nitrogen, phosphorus, Sulphur and iron
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Sedimentary cycles are the ones in which the reservoir is the Earth’s crust.
Sedimentary cycles include those of phosphorus, Sulphur, iron, calcium, and other more-earthbound elements.
Nitrogen cycle is a part of gaseous cycle.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Sedimentary cycles are the ones in which the reservoir is the Earth’s crust.
Sedimentary cycles include those of phosphorus, Sulphur, iron, calcium, and other more-earthbound elements.
Nitrogen cycle is a part of gaseous cycle.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ecological Pyramids
- Grassland ecosystem: Upright pyramid of Numbers
- Aquatic ecosystem: Inverted pyramid of biomass
- Pond ecosystem: Inverted pyramid of energy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Pyramid of Energy is always upright.
Pyramid of numbers
Pyramid of Biomass
Incorrect
Solution: A
Pyramid of Energy is always upright.
Pyramid of numbers
Pyramid of Biomass
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with reference to Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds
- It is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats
- It is developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
- India is a contracting party to this treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA) is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland and the Canadian Archipelago.
Developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), AEWA brings together countries and the wider international conservation community in an effort to establish coordinated conservation and management of migratory waterbirds throughout their entire migratory range.
Parties to this treaty
India is not a party to this treaty.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA) is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland and the Canadian Archipelago.
Developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), AEWA brings together countries and the wider international conservation community in an effort to establish coordinated conservation and management of migratory waterbirds throughout their entire migratory range.
Parties to this treaty
India is not a party to this treaty.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ocean acidification
- The PH level of oceans has decreased below 7 and the water has become acidic.
- The main cause of ocean acidification is uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH of the Earth’s oceans, caused by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere.
An estimated 30–40% of the carbon dioxide from human activity released into the atmosphere dissolves into oceans, rivers and lakes.
To achieve chemical equilibrium, some of it reacts with the water to form carbonic acid.
The Ocean acidification has increased only after the industrialisation. Pre-Industrialisation pH value of the Ocean water was 8.179 which were coming down to 8.1074 which constituted 19% increase of H+ ions. Presently, the pH value of Ocean water is 8.069.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH of the Earth’s oceans, caused by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere.
An estimated 30–40% of the carbon dioxide from human activity released into the atmosphere dissolves into oceans, rivers and lakes.
To achieve chemical equilibrium, some of it reacts with the water to form carbonic acid.
The Ocean acidification has increased only after the industrialisation. Pre-Industrialisation pH value of the Ocean water was 8.179 which were coming down to 8.1074 which constituted 19% increase of H+ ions. Presently, the pH value of Ocean water is 8.069.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the sources for radioactive pollution?
- Accidents in nuclear power plants and nuclear waste.
- Nuclear weapon testing and explosion
- Radiation therapy and direct exposures to radiation for diagnostic purposes
- Cosmic rays from space and terrestrial radiations from radio-nuclides present in earth’s crust such as radium-224
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Artificial Sources of Radioactive pollution
- Accidents in nuclear power plants and nuclear waste.
- Nuclear weapon testing and explosion (Nuclear fallout). The fall Out contains radioactive substances such as strontium-90, caesium-137, iodine-131, etc.
- Uranium mining and mining of other radioactive material like thorium (monazite is the ore of thorium).
- Radiation therapy and direct exposures to radiation for diagnostic purposes (e.g. X-rays), chemotherapy etc.
- The slow nuclear radiations can emanate from a variety of sources viz. nuclear reactors, laboratories, etc.
Natural Sources
They include cosmic rays from space and terrestrial radiations from radio-nuclides present in earth’s crust such as radium-224, uranium-238, thorium-232, potassium-40, carbon-14, etc.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Artificial Sources of Radioactive pollution
- Accidents in nuclear power plants and nuclear waste.
- Nuclear weapon testing and explosion (Nuclear fallout). The fall Out contains radioactive substances such as strontium-90, caesium-137, iodine-131, etc.
- Uranium mining and mining of other radioactive material like thorium (monazite is the ore of thorium).
- Radiation therapy and direct exposures to radiation for diagnostic purposes (e.g. X-rays), chemotherapy etc.
- The slow nuclear radiations can emanate from a variety of sources viz. nuclear reactors, laboratories, etc.
Natural Sources
They include cosmic rays from space and terrestrial radiations from radio-nuclides present in earth’s crust such as radium-224, uranium-238, thorium-232, potassium-40, carbon-14, etc.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following conditions qualify for Disqualification on Ground of Defection?
- If he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House;
- If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;
- If any nominated member joins any political party before the expiry of six months.
- If any independently elected member joins any political party;
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Disqualification on Ground of Defection
The Constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualifiedfrom being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on theground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. A member incurs disqualification under the defection law:
- if he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House;
- if he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;
- if any independently elected member joins any political party; and
- if any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.
The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Disqualification on Ground of Defection
The Constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualifiedfrom being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on theground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. A member incurs disqualification under the defection law:
- if he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House;
- if he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;
- if any independently elected member joins any political party; and
- if any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.
The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution is/are amended by Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States
- Goods and Services Tax Council
- Representation of states in Parliament
- Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special
majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
(a) Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament,
(b) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament, and
(c) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of
half of the state legislatures.By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States
- Election of the President and its manner.
- Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
- Supreme Court and high courts.
- Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
- Goods and Services Tax Council.
- Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
- Representation of states in Parliament.
- Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).
Incorrect
Solution: A
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special
majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
(a) Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament,
(b) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament, and
(c) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of
half of the state legislatures.By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States
- Election of the President and its manner.
- Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
- Supreme Court and high courts.
- Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
- Goods and Services Tax Council.
- Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
- Representation of states in Parliament.
- Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsThe School Education Quality Index has been launched by
Correct
Solution: D
About the School Education Quality Index (SEQI):
- Developed by NITI Aayog to evaluate the performance of States and Union Territories (UTs) in the school education sector.
- Aim: To bring an ‘outcomes’ focus to education policy by providing States and UTs with a platform to identify their strengths and weaknesses and undertake requisite course corrections or policy interventions.
- The index is developed through a collaborative process, including key stakeholders such as Ministry of Human Resource and Development (MHRD), the World Bank and sector experts.
It consists of 30 critical indicators that assess the delivery of quality education. These indicators are categorized as below:
- Category 1: Outcomes;
- Domain 1: Learning outcomes
- Domain 2: Access outcomes
- Domain 3: Infrastructure and facilities for outcomes
- Domain 4: Equity outcomes
- Category 2: Governance processes aiding outcomes.
Significance of the index:
- Schooling should result in successful learning outcomes. In this regard, SEQI acts as a credible system of assessment and helps to design necessary remedial actions.
Incorrect
Solution: D
About the School Education Quality Index (SEQI):
- Developed by NITI Aayog to evaluate the performance of States and Union Territories (UTs) in the school education sector.
- Aim: To bring an ‘outcomes’ focus to education policy by providing States and UTs with a platform to identify their strengths and weaknesses and undertake requisite course corrections or policy interventions.
- The index is developed through a collaborative process, including key stakeholders such as Ministry of Human Resource and Development (MHRD), the World Bank and sector experts.
It consists of 30 critical indicators that assess the delivery of quality education. These indicators are categorized as below:
- Category 1: Outcomes;
- Domain 1: Learning outcomes
- Domain 2: Access outcomes
- Domain 3: Infrastructure and facilities for outcomes
- Domain 4: Equity outcomes
- Category 2: Governance processes aiding outcomes.
Significance of the index:
- Schooling should result in successful learning outcomes. In this regard, SEQI acts as a credible system of assessment and helps to design necessary remedial actions.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bioremediation measures
- Phyto-stabilization is the process by which plants accumulate contaminants into the roots and above ground shoots or leaves.
- Phytodegradation refers to the uptake of organic contaminants and their transformation to more stable, less toxic, less mobile form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Phytoextraction / phytoaccumulation is the process by which plants accumulate contaminants into the roots and above ground shoots or leaves.
Phyto-transformation or phytodegradation refers to the uptake of organic contaminants from soil, sediments, or water and their transformation to more stable, less toxic, less mobile form.
Phyto-stabilization is a technique in which plants reduce the mobility and migration of contaminated soil. Leachable constituents are adsorbed and bound into the plant structure so that they form unstable mass of plant from which the contaminants will not re-enter the environment.
Phytodegradation is the breakdown of contaminants through the activity existing in the rhizosphere. This activity is due to the presence of proteins and enzymes produced by the plants or by soil organisms such as bacteria, yeast, and fungi.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Phytoextraction / phytoaccumulation is the process by which plants accumulate contaminants into the roots and above ground shoots or leaves.
Phyto-transformation or phytodegradation refers to the uptake of organic contaminants from soil, sediments, or water and their transformation to more stable, less toxic, less mobile form.
Phyto-stabilization is a technique in which plants reduce the mobility and migration of contaminated soil. Leachable constituents are adsorbed and bound into the plant structure so that they form unstable mass of plant from which the contaminants will not re-enter the environment.
Phytodegradation is the breakdown of contaminants through the activity existing in the rhizosphere. This activity is due to the presence of proteins and enzymes produced by the plants or by soil organisms such as bacteria, yeast, and fungi.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), consider the following statements:
- It is an international organization currently having 123 member states.
- Recently, India became the member of OECD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD):
- OECD stands for Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
- It is an international economic organisation
- Established in 1961
- Secretariat: Paris
- Members: 35
- Aims to stimulate economic progress and world trade
- Its members are committed to Democracy and Market Economy
- Most OECD members are high-income economies with a very high Human Development Index (HDI) and are regarded as developed countries
- India is not a member of OECD
Publications:
- OECD Economic survey of India
- Government at a Glance
- Education at a Glance
- Multilateral Automatic Exchange of Financial Account Information (MCAA) — multilateral convention on administrative assistance in taxation matters
- How migrants can contribute to developing countries’ economies
- Employment Protection Index
- Your Better Life Index
Incorrect
Solution: D
Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD):
- OECD stands for Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
- It is an international economic organisation
- Established in 1961
- Secretariat: Paris
- Members: 35
- Aims to stimulate economic progress and world trade
- Its members are committed to Democracy and Market Economy
- Most OECD members are high-income economies with a very high Human Development Index (HDI) and are regarded as developed countries
- India is not a member of OECD
Publications:
- OECD Economic survey of India
- Government at a Glance
- Education at a Glance
- Multilateral Automatic Exchange of Financial Account Information (MCAA) — multilateral convention on administrative assistance in taxation matters
- How migrants can contribute to developing countries’ economies
- Employment Protection Index
- Your Better Life Index
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Advisory Board for Banking Frauds
- It has been constituted by RBI
- It consists a chairman and three other members
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF)
- The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has constituted an ‘Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF)’ to examine bank fraud of over ₹50 crore and recommend action.
- Headquartered in Delhi, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will provide required secretarial services, logistic and analytical support along with the necessary funding to the board.
Composition:
- Besides the chairman, the Board consists of three other members.
- The tenure of the Chairman and members would be for a period of two years from 21st August, 2019.
Functions:
- The board’s jurisdiction would be confined to those cases involving the level of officers of General Manager and above in the Public Sector Banks in respect of an allegation of fraud in a borrowal account.
- It would function as the first level of examination of all large fraud cases before recommendations or references are made to the investigative agencies by the respective public sector banks (PSBs).
- Lenders would refer all large fraud cases above ₹50 crore to the board and on receipt of its recommendation or advice, the bank concerned would take further action in such matter.
- The Central Bureau of Investigation may also refer any case or matter to the board where it has any issue or difficulty or in technical matters with the PSB concerned.
- It would also periodically carry out frauds analysis in the financial system and give inputs for policy formulation related to the fraud to the RBI.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF)
- The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has constituted an ‘Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF)’ to examine bank fraud of over ₹50 crore and recommend action.
- Headquartered in Delhi, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will provide required secretarial services, logistic and analytical support along with the necessary funding to the board.
Composition:
- Besides the chairman, the Board consists of three other members.
- The tenure of the Chairman and members would be for a period of two years from 21st August, 2019.
Functions:
- The board’s jurisdiction would be confined to those cases involving the level of officers of General Manager and above in the Public Sector Banks in respect of an allegation of fraud in a borrowal account.
- It would function as the first level of examination of all large fraud cases before recommendations or references are made to the investigative agencies by the respective public sector banks (PSBs).
- Lenders would refer all large fraud cases above ₹50 crore to the board and on receipt of its recommendation or advice, the bank concerned would take further action in such matter.
- The Central Bureau of Investigation may also refer any case or matter to the board where it has any issue or difficulty or in technical matters with the PSB concerned.
- It would also periodically carry out frauds analysis in the financial system and give inputs for policy formulation related to the fraud to the RBI.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWith reference to African Elephants, consider the following statements
- They are vulnerable as per the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- The average life span of African elephant is greater than Asian elephant
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
African Elephants:
- African elephants are the largest land animals on Earth. They are slightly larger than Asian elephants.
- African elephants are keystone species, meaning they play a critical role in their ecosystem. Also known as “ecosystem engineers,” elephants shape their habitat in many ways.
- There are two subspecies of African elephants, the Savanna (or bush) elephant and the Forest elephant. Savanna elephants are the larger of two.
- They are vulnerable as per the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- Asian elephants can live up to 48 years whereas African elephants can live up to 70 years.
Incorrect
Solution: C
African Elephants:
- African elephants are the largest land animals on Earth. They are slightly larger than Asian elephants.
- African elephants are keystone species, meaning they play a critical role in their ecosystem. Also known as “ecosystem engineers,” elephants shape their habitat in many ways.
- There are two subspecies of African elephants, the Savanna (or bush) elephant and the Forest elephant. Savanna elephants are the larger of two.
- They are vulnerable as per the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- Asian elephants can live up to 48 years whereas African elephants can live up to 70 years.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsGlobal Wage Report is published by
Correct
Solution: D
Global Wage Report
- It is published by The International Labour Organization (ILO).
- It looks at recent trends in wages, the global economic and labour market context, and the impact that the pandemic has had on wages.
- The report also includes a number of policy recommendations to mitigate the negative impact of the crisis.
- The Average wages in two-third countries fell or grew more slowly in the first six months of 2020 due to Covid-19 pandemic.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Global Wage Report
- It is published by The International Labour Organization (ILO).
- It looks at recent trends in wages, the global economic and labour market context, and the impact that the pandemic has had on wages.
- The report also includes a number of policy recommendations to mitigate the negative impact of the crisis.
- The Average wages in two-third countries fell or grew more slowly in the first six months of 2020 due to Covid-19 pandemic.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsThe Kuno National Park is situated in
Correct
Solution: A
Kuno National Park is a protected area in Madhya Pradesh that received the status of national park in 2018. The protected area was established in 1981 as a wildlife sanctuary in the Sheopur and Morena districts. It was also known as Kuno-Palpur and Palpur-Kuno Wildlife Sanctuary and it is part of the Kathiawar-Gir dry deciduous forests Eco region.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Kuno National Park is a protected area in Madhya Pradesh that received the status of national park in 2018. The protected area was established in 1981 as a wildlife sanctuary in the Sheopur and Morena districts. It was also known as Kuno-Palpur and Palpur-Kuno Wildlife Sanctuary and it is part of the Kathiawar-Gir dry deciduous forests Eco region.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme 1. The scheme was announced as a replacement for the Merchandise Export from India Scheme (MEIS). 2. The rebates under RoDTEP is WTO-compliant. 3. The scheme would refund to exporters the embedded central, state and local duties or taxes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: DThe Centre has notified the rates and norms for the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme. • A budgetary allocation of ₹12,454 crore has been made for 2021-22 under the scheme which covers 8,555 tariff lines, accounting for about 75% of traded items and 65% of India’s exports. About the scheme: The scheme was announced in 2020 as a replacement for the Merchandise Export from India Scheme (MEIS), which was not compliant with the rules of the World Trade Organisation. The scheme would refund to exporters the embedded central, state and local duties or taxes that were so far not being rebated or refunded and were, therefore, placing India’s exports at a disadvantage. Key features: 1. To enable zero rating of exports by ensuring domestic taxes are not exported, all taxes, including those levied by States and even Gram Panchayats, will be refunded under the scheme. 2. The rebates under RoDTEP is WTO-compliant as per legal advice, range from 0.5% to 4.3% of the Free On Board value of outbound consignments. 3. The lowest rate is offered on items like chocolates, toffees and sugar confectionary, while yarns and fibres have been granted the highest rate. 4. Steel, pharma and chemicals have not been included under the scheme because their exports have done well without incentives.20:06Incorrect
Solution: DThe Centre has notified the rates and norms for the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme. • A budgetary allocation of ₹12,454 crore has been made for 2021-22 under the scheme which covers 8,555 tariff lines, accounting for about 75% of traded items and 65% of India’s exports. About the scheme: The scheme was announced in 2020 as a replacement for the Merchandise Export from India Scheme (MEIS), which was not compliant with the rules of the World Trade Organisation. The scheme would refund to exporters the embedded central, state and local duties or taxes that were so far not being rebated or refunded and were, therefore, placing India’s exports at a disadvantage. Key features: 1. To enable zero rating of exports by ensuring domestic taxes are not exported, all taxes, including those levied by States and even Gram Panchayats, will be refunded under the scheme. 2. The rebates under RoDTEP is WTO-compliant as per legal advice, range from 0.5% to 4.3% of the Free On Board value of outbound consignments. 3. The lowest rate is offered on items like chocolates, toffees and sugar confectionary, while yarns and fibres have been granted the highest rate. 4. Steel, pharma and chemicals have not been included under the scheme because their exports have done well without incentives.20:06 -
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIn addition to its present role of representation and accountability, the Rajya Sabha could be the House that represents difference in our polity, difference marked not merely by its culture but its diversity. Difference in India is encoded not merely around regions, languages, and communities but also in its inegalitarian social relations. Representation through federal units hardly captures these multiple and often overlapping differences. There are some constituencies which will never be able to ensure their adequate representation through the electoral route: Muslims; women; linguistic, religious and ethnic diversity; regions such as the Northeast and Jammu & Kashmir; urban informal labour; the rural poor, just to name a few constituencies. The Constituent Assembly debates, and the need for the Upper House to be embedded, are a sufficient justification in this regard. One can understand the deep discomfiture that some of the nominated members feel in the House given the adversarial context in which they have to function. There are probably ways to shape representation that reaches out and connects to nodal concerns without being overwhelming.
What is the essential message being conveyed in the passage?
Correct
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Statement a is the underlying basis for statement b. However, the passage focuses on how we can make Rajya Sabha more representative in terms of capturing the diversity in India. Hence b.
Statement c is wrong as the passage talks about nominated members feeling discomfited sometimes which doesn’t necessarily mean that nominated members have no place in Rajya Sabha.
Incorrect
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Statement a is the underlying basis for statement b. However, the passage focuses on how we can make Rajya Sabha more representative in terms of capturing the diversity in India. Hence b.
Statement c is wrong as the passage talks about nominated members feeling discomfited sometimes which doesn’t necessarily mean that nominated members have no place in Rajya Sabha.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsIn addition to its present role of representation and accountability, the Rajya Sabha could be the House that represents difference in our polity, difference marked not merely by its culture but its diversity. Difference in India is encoded not merely around regions, languages, and communities but also in its inegalitarian social relations. Representation through federal units hardly captures these multiple and often overlapping differences. There are some constituencies which will never be able to ensure their adequate representation through the electoral route: Muslims; women; linguistic, religious and ethnic diversity; regions such as the Northeast and Jammu & Kashmir; urban informal labour; the rural poor, just to name a few constituencies. The Constituent Assembly debates, and the need for the Upper House to be embedded, are a sufficient justification in this regard. One can understand the deep discomfiture that some of the nominated members feel in the House given the adversarial context in which they have to function. There are probably ways to shape representation that reaches out and connects to nodal concerns without being overwhelming.
Why is diversity not captured effectively by giving representation to federal units?
- Federal units hardly capture the multiple and overlapping diversity that India has to
- There are some groups who can never win electorally because these groups are miniscule minorities.
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 2 are both directly mentioned in the passage.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 2 are both directly mentioned in the passage.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsArtificial intelligence is software built to learn or problem solve — processes typically performed in the human brain. Digital assistants like Amazon’s Alexa and Apple’s Siri , along with Tesla’s Autopilot, are all powered by AI. Some forms of AI can even create visual art or write songs.
Based on your reading of the passage, what is being talked about in the passage?
Correct
Correct Answer : B
Answer Explanation:
Statement a is out rightly wrong as the passage has no stand on the threat that AI poses. Statement b is correct because the passage mentions that AI performs processes typically associated with human brain and thus has wide ranging applications. Statement c is wrong as the passage mentions about digital assistants to explain how AI’s application is quite diverse.
Incorrect
Correct Answer : B
Answer Explanation:
Statement a is out rightly wrong as the passage has no stand on the threat that AI poses. Statement b is correct because the passage mentions that AI performs processes typically associated with human brain and thus has wide ranging applications. Statement c is wrong as the passage mentions about digital assistants to explain how AI’s application is quite diverse.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsRussia’s aggressive fishing in the prime fishing grounds of Northern Pacific has led to a sharp decline in the population of many fish and the general increase in the retail price of fish. This same pattern has occurred with far too many of our scare vital natural resources resulting in high prices for many products. IT is likely then, that fish prices will continue to rise in the near future.
In making the argument above, the author relies on all of the following assumptions except
Correct
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
If other costs decrease , scarcity of fish will keep the price high.
Incorrect
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
If other costs decrease , scarcity of fish will keep the price high.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsThe increase in the number of newspaper articles exposed as fabrications serves to bolster the contention that publishers are more interested in boosting circulation than in printing the truth. Even minor publications have staff to check such obvious fraud.
The argument above assumes that
Correct
Correct Answer :B
Explanation : the argument assumes that everything a newspaper must be factually verifiable
Incorrect
Correct Answer :B
Explanation : the argument assumes that everything a newspaper must be factually verifiable












