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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sarus Crane
- Sarus Crane is the world‘s tallest flying bird.
- It is the official State bird of Madhya Pradesh
- It is India‘s only resident breeding crane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The sarus crane is a large nonmigratory crane found in parts of the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and Australia. Sarus Crane is the world‘s tallest flying bird.
As per the Wildlife Trust of India it is also India‘s only resident breeding crane. It is omnivorous, feeding on fish and insects, as well as roots and plants.
It is also the official State bird of Uttar Pradesh. It has marked been marked as vulnerable ‘by IUCN.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The sarus crane is a large nonmigratory crane found in parts of the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and Australia. Sarus Crane is the world‘s tallest flying bird.
As per the Wildlife Trust of India it is also India‘s only resident breeding crane. It is omnivorous, feeding on fish and insects, as well as roots and plants.
It is also the official State bird of Uttar Pradesh. It has marked been marked as vulnerable ‘by IUCN.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ecological Niche
- It is functional role of a species in an ecosystem
- Two species can occupy the same niche in the same environment for a long time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Niche is basically the ecological or functional role of a species in an ecosystem, especially with regards to food consumption. A niche can also be described as the interactions, a species has with its biotic and abiotic environment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
According to the competitive exclusion principle, no two species can occupy the same niche in the same environment for a long time. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Niche is basically the ecological or functional role of a species in an ecosystem, especially with regards to food consumption. A niche can also be described as the interactions, a species has with its biotic and abiotic environment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
According to the competitive exclusion principle, no two species can occupy the same niche in the same environment for a long time. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Narmada Control Authority
- It has been setup under the final orders and decision of the Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal (NWDT)
- The authority is a body corporate with representatives of the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra only.
- Secretary (Water Resources),Government of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Authority
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Narmada Control Authority has been setup under the final orders and decision of the Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal (NWDT).
The authority started functioning from 20th December, 1980.
The authority is a body corporate with representatives of the four States of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and representatives of GoI. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The authority is funded in equal proportions by all the four states.
Secretary (Water Resources), GoI is the ex-officio Chairman of the Authority, whereas the routine administration is the responsibility of Executive Member of the Authority.
NCA presently has six subgroups. NCA Headquarters is located at Indore.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Narmada Control Authority has been setup under the final orders and decision of the Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal (NWDT).
The authority started functioning from 20th December, 1980.
The authority is a body corporate with representatives of the four States of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and representatives of GoI. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The authority is funded in equal proportions by all the four states.
Secretary (Water Resources), GoI is the ex-officio Chairman of the Authority, whereas the routine administration is the responsibility of Executive Member of the Authority.
NCA presently has six subgroups. NCA Headquarters is located at Indore.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following sites is/are Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs)
- Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary
- Pangong Tso
- Ropar Lake
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the above are important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.
Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs)
- The IBA programme of Birdlife International aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of the world’s birds and associated biodiversity.
- The IBAs serve as conservation areas for protection of birdsat the global, regional or sub-regional level.
http://natureconservation.in/list-of-important-bird-areas-in-india-updated/
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the above are important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.
Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs)
- The IBA programme of Birdlife International aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of the world’s birds and associated biodiversity.
- The IBAs serve as conservation areas for protection of birdsat the global, regional or sub-regional level.
http://natureconservation.in/list-of-important-bird-areas-in-india-updated/
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsOrang Tiger Reserve, sometime seen in the news, is located in
Correct
Solution: C
Orang Tiger Reserve
It is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
It is also known as the mini Kaziranga National Park (IUCN site) since the two parks have a similar landscape made up of marshes, streams and grasslands.
The park has a rich flora and fauna, including great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, pigmy hog, elephants, wild buffalo and tigers.
It is the only stronghold of rhinoceros on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Orang Tiger Reserve
It is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
It is also known as the mini Kaziranga National Park (IUCN site) since the two parks have a similar landscape made up of marshes, streams and grasslands.
The park has a rich flora and fauna, including great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, pigmy hog, elephants, wild buffalo and tigers.
It is the only stronghold of rhinoceros on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following regarding Cinereous vulture.
- It migrates from mountainous regions of Europe and Asia to warmer places, except India.
- It is Near Threatened as per IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The cinereous vulture is a large raptorial bird that is distributed through much of Eurasia. It is also known as the black vulture, monk vulture, or Eurasian black vulture. It is a member of the family Accipitridae, which also includes many other diurnal raptors such as kites, buzzards and harriers. They migrate from the mountainous regions of Europe and Asia to warmer places, including India.
It is classified as Near Threatened under the IUCN Red List.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The cinereous vulture is a large raptorial bird that is distributed through much of Eurasia. It is also known as the black vulture, monk vulture, or Eurasian black vulture. It is a member of the family Accipitridae, which also includes many other diurnal raptors such as kites, buzzards and harriers. They migrate from the mountainous regions of Europe and Asia to warmer places, including India.
It is classified as Near Threatened under the IUCN Red List.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Manas National Park is located in the Himalayan foothills.
- Nameri National Park is situated in the foothills of the eastern Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Manas National Park:
- A national park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reservein Assam, India.
- Located in the Himalayan foothills, it is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
- The park is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur and pygmy hog.
- Manas is famous for its population of the wild water buffalo.
Nameri National Park:
- Situated in the foothills of the eastern Himalayas.
- The vegetation type is of semi-evergreen, moist deciduous forests with cane and bamboo brakes and narrow strips of open grassland along rivers.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Manas National Park:
- A national park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reservein Assam, India.
- Located in the Himalayan foothills, it is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
- The park is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur and pygmy hog.
- Manas is famous for its population of the wild water buffalo.
Nameri National Park:
- Situated in the foothills of the eastern Himalayas.
- The vegetation type is of semi-evergreen, moist deciduous forests with cane and bamboo brakes and narrow strips of open grassland along rivers.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following animal species is/are endemic to India?
- Nilgiri Tahr
- Royal Bengal Tiger
- Indian Rhinoceros
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
The Nilgiri tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius) is an ungulate that is endemic to the Nilgiri Hills and the southern portion of the Western Ghats in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala in Southern India.
Royal Bengal Tiger Range:
Indian Rhinoceros Range:
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Nilgiri tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius) is an ungulate that is endemic to the Nilgiri Hills and the southern portion of the Western Ghats in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala in Southern India.
Royal Bengal Tiger Range:
Indian Rhinoceros Range:
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with reference to Environmental Impact Assessment
- In India, it is governed under Environment (Protection) Act on 1986
- Espoo convention is a convention in which states have to assess the transboundary impact of Environmental projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Ministry of Environment & Forests has issued Notification on Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) of developmental projects, 1994 under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act,1986.
The Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in a Transboundary Context (informally called the Espoo Convention) is a United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE) convention signed in Espoo, Finland, in 1991 that entered into force in 1997. The Convention sets out the obligations of Parties—that is States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention—to carry out an environmental impact assessment of certain activities at an early stage of planning. It also lays down the general obligation of States to notify and consult each other on all major projects under consideration that are likely to have a significant adverse environmental impact across boundaries.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Ministry of Environment & Forests has issued Notification on Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) of developmental projects, 1994 under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act,1986.
The Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in a Transboundary Context (informally called the Espoo Convention) is a United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE) convention signed in Espoo, Finland, in 1991 that entered into force in 1997. The Convention sets out the obligations of Parties—that is States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention—to carry out an environmental impact assessment of certain activities at an early stage of planning. It also lays down the general obligation of States to notify and consult each other on all major projects under consideration that are likely to have a significant adverse environmental impact across boundaries.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsThe largest contributor of Greenhouse effect is
Correct
Solution: B
Water vapor is the largest contributor to the Earth’s greenhouse effect. On average, it probably accounts for about 60% of the warming effect.
Water vapor accounts for the largest percentage of the greenhouse effect, between 36% and 66% for clear sky conditions and between 66% and 85% when including clouds. Water vapor concentrations fluctuate regionally, but human activity does not directly affect water vapor concentrations except at local scales, such as near irrigated fields. Indirectly, human activity that increases global temperatures will increase water vapor concentrations, a process known as water vapor feedback.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Water vapor is the largest contributor to the Earth’s greenhouse effect. On average, it probably accounts for about 60% of the warming effect.
Water vapor accounts for the largest percentage of the greenhouse effect, between 36% and 66% for clear sky conditions and between 66% and 85% when including clouds. Water vapor concentrations fluctuate regionally, but human activity does not directly affect water vapor concentrations except at local scales, such as near irrigated fields. Indirectly, human activity that increases global temperatures will increase water vapor concentrations, a process known as water vapor feedback.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Syngas
- It is a mixture comprising of carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen.
- It is produced by gasification of a carbon containing fuel to a gaseous product that has some heating value.
- Syngas has 50% of the energy density of natural gas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Syngas is an abbreviation for synthesis gas, which is a mixture comprising of carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen. The syngas is produced by gasification of a carbon containing fuel to a gaseous product that has some heating value. Some of the examples of syngas production include gasification of coal emissions, waste emissions to energy gasification, and steam reforming of coke.
The name syngas is derived from the use as an intermediate in generating synthetic natural gas and to create ammonia or methanol. It is a gas that can be used to synthesize other chemicals, hence the name synthesis gas, which was shortened to syngas. Syngas is also an intermediate in creating synthetic petroleum to use as a lubricant or fuel.
Syngas has 50% of the energy density of natural gas. It cannot be burnt directly, but is used as a fuel source.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Syngas is an abbreviation for synthesis gas, which is a mixture comprising of carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen. The syngas is produced by gasification of a carbon containing fuel to a gaseous product that has some heating value. Some of the examples of syngas production include gasification of coal emissions, waste emissions to energy gasification, and steam reforming of coke.
The name syngas is derived from the use as an intermediate in generating synthetic natural gas and to create ammonia or methanol. It is a gas that can be used to synthesize other chemicals, hence the name synthesis gas, which was shortened to syngas. Syngas is also an intermediate in creating synthetic petroleum to use as a lubricant or fuel.
Syngas has 50% of the energy density of natural gas. It cannot be burnt directly, but is used as a fuel source.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ozone
- Ozone in the troposphere is bad because it pollutes the air and helps to form smog.
- Ozone in the stratosphere is good because it protects life on Earth by absorbing some of the sun’s harmful Ultra Violet (UV) rays.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Ozone is found in two different layers of the atmosphere.
- Ozone in the troposphere is “bad” because it dirties the air and helps to form smog, which is not good to breathe.
- Ozone in the stratosphere is “good” because it protects life on Earth by absorbing some of the sun’s harmful Ultra Violet (UV) rays.
The ozone layer is very important because the configuration of the ozone molecule and its chemical properties are such that ozone efficiently absorbs ultraviolet light, thus acting like a sun-screen.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Ozone is found in two different layers of the atmosphere.
- Ozone in the troposphere is “bad” because it dirties the air and helps to form smog, which is not good to breathe.
- Ozone in the stratosphere is “good” because it protects life on Earth by absorbing some of the sun’s harmful Ultra Violet (UV) rays.
The ozone layer is very important because the configuration of the ozone molecule and its chemical properties are such that ozone efficiently absorbs ultraviolet light, thus acting like a sun-screen.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Geoengineering methods can be in global warming mitigation
- Cirrus cloud thinning
- Marine cloud brightening
- Stratospheric aerosol injection
- Space reflectors
Which of the statement above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Cirrus cloud thinning (CCT):
- CCT is almost the opposite of marine cloud brightening. High-altitude Cirrus clouds are thin and whispy, so they don’t reflect much solar radiation back into space, and instead trap long-wave radiation on earth.
- CCT proposes thinning them further through cloud seeding, letting more long-wave radiation escape.
Space reflectors:
- Technologies like giant mirrors in space or umbrellas in orbit can be built to reflect sunlight away and keep the planet cooler.
Marine cloud brightening:
- Another idea is to increase the Earth’s ‘albedo’, which is the measure of amount of solar radiation the planet reflects back than it absorbs.
Stratospheric aerosol injection:
- The idea is to simulate the cooling effects of volcanic eruptions, and enhancing the reflectivity of marine clouds.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Cirrus cloud thinning (CCT):
- CCT is almost the opposite of marine cloud brightening. High-altitude Cirrus clouds are thin and whispy, so they don’t reflect much solar radiation back into space, and instead trap long-wave radiation on earth.
- CCT proposes thinning them further through cloud seeding, letting more long-wave radiation escape.
Space reflectors:
- Technologies like giant mirrors in space or umbrellas in orbit can be built to reflect sunlight away and keep the planet cooler.
Marine cloud brightening:
- Another idea is to increase the Earth’s ‘albedo’, which is the measure of amount of solar radiation the planet reflects back than it absorbs.
Stratospheric aerosol injection:
- The idea is to simulate the cooling effects of volcanic eruptions, and enhancing the reflectivity of marine clouds.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC)
- To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 per cent by 2030 from 2005 level.
- To achieve about 60 per cent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030
- To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tons of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Salient features of India’s INDC
- To put forward and further propagate a healthy and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values of conservation and moderation.
- To adopt a climate-friendly and a cleaner path than the one followed hitherto by others at corresponding level of economic development.
- To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 per cent by 2030 from 2005 level.
- To achieve about 40 per cent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030, with the help of transfer of technology and low-cost international finance, including from Green Climate Fund. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- To create an additional carbon sink of 5 to 3 billion tons of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Salient features of India’s INDC
- To put forward and further propagate a healthy and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values of conservation and moderation.
- To adopt a climate-friendly and a cleaner path than the one followed hitherto by others at corresponding level of economic development.
- To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 per cent by 2030 from 2005 level.
- To achieve about 40 per cent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030, with the help of transfer of technology and low-cost international finance, including from Green Climate Fund. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- To create an additional carbon sink of 5 to 3 billion tons of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Global Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy Fund
- It is advised by the World Bank Group
- It is an innovative Fund-of-Funds catalyzing private sector capital into clean energy projects in developing countries and economies in transition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
GEEREF is an innovative Fund-of-Funds catalyzing private sector capital into clean energy projects in developing countries and economies in transition.
GEEREF IN A NUTSHELL
- GEEREF is a Fund-of-Funds advised by the European Investment Bank Group.
- GEEREF invests in private equity funds which focus on renewable energy and energy efficiency projects in emerging markets.
- GEEREF’s funds concentrate on infrastructure projects that generate clean power through proven technologies with low risk.
- GEEREF’s funds target attractive financial investments that also deliver a strong positive environmental and developmental impact.
- GEEREF has invested in 15 funds across Africa, Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean.
- GEEREF’s investment period closed in the end of May 2019 and it is now fully invested.
Incorrect
Solution: B
GEEREF is an innovative Fund-of-Funds catalyzing private sector capital into clean energy projects in developing countries and economies in transition.
GEEREF IN A NUTSHELL
- GEEREF is a Fund-of-Funds advised by the European Investment Bank Group.
- GEEREF invests in private equity funds which focus on renewable energy and energy efficiency projects in emerging markets.
- GEEREF’s funds concentrate on infrastructure projects that generate clean power through proven technologies with low risk.
- GEEREF’s funds target attractive financial investments that also deliver a strong positive environmental and developmental impact.
- GEEREF has invested in 15 funds across Africa, Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean.
- GEEREF’s investment period closed in the end of May 2019 and it is now fully invested.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Permaculture
- Bill Mollison and David Holmgren coined the word Permaculture in 1978.
- It is set of design principles centered on whole systems thinking, simulating, or directly utilizing the patterns and resilient features observed in natural ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Permaculture is a set of design principles centered on whole systems thinking, simulating, or directly utilizing the patterns and resilient features observed in natural ecosystems. It uses these principles in a growing number of fields from regenerative agriculture, rewilding, and community resilience.
The term permaculture was coined by David Holmgren, then a graduate student at the Tasmanian College of Advanced Education’s Department of Environmental Design, and Bill Mollison, senior lecturer in Environmental Psychology at University of Tasmania, in 1978. It originally meant “permanent agriculture”, but was expanded to stand also for “permanent culture”.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Permaculture is a set of design principles centered on whole systems thinking, simulating, or directly utilizing the patterns and resilient features observed in natural ecosystems. It uses these principles in a growing number of fields from regenerative agriculture, rewilding, and community resilience.
The term permaculture was coined by David Holmgren, then a graduate student at the Tasmanian College of Advanced Education’s Department of Environmental Design, and Bill Mollison, senior lecturer in Environmental Psychology at University of Tasmania, in 1978. It originally meant “permanent agriculture”, but was expanded to stand also for “permanent culture”.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following ecosystem can be considered as example for Ecotone?
1. Grassland
2. Mangroves
3. Estuaries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Solution: C
An Ecotone describes an area that acts as a transition or boundary between two ecosystems. This could be, for example, an area of marshland between a river and the riverbank, a clearing within a forest or a much larger area such as the transition between Arctic Tundra and Forest biomes in Northern Siberia.
As this area is inevitably influenced by the two bordering ecosystems, it is
therefore a consequence of this that a higher density of organisms and variety of species can be found within an Ecotone. This increase in biodiversity is referred to as the “edge effect”.
An Ecotone can be formed naturally – through abiotic factors such as changes
in soil composition – but can also be created through the result of human
interaction. Clearing of forest areas or irrigation are examples of this.
Examples of Ecotone ecosystem are Mangroves, Estuaries and Marshes etcIncorrect
Solution: C
An Ecotone describes an area that acts as a transition or boundary between two ecosystems. This could be, for example, an area of marshland between a river and the riverbank, a clearing within a forest or a much larger area such as the transition between Arctic Tundra and Forest biomes in Northern Siberia.
As this area is inevitably influenced by the two bordering ecosystems, it is
therefore a consequence of this that a higher density of organisms and variety of species can be found within an Ecotone. This increase in biodiversity is referred to as the “edge effect”.
An Ecotone can be formed naturally – through abiotic factors such as changes
in soil composition – but can also be created through the result of human
interaction. Clearing of forest areas or irrigation are examples of this.
Examples of Ecotone ecosystem are Mangroves, Estuaries and Marshes etc -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Crystal award
- The Award recognizes as well as celebrates the achievements of leading artists and cultural figures whose leadership inspires inclusive and sustainable change.
- The award launched by UNESCO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Award recognises as well as celebrates the achievements of leading artists and cultural figures whose leadership inspires inclusive and sustainable change.
Crystal award is awarded by the World Economic Forum (WEF) annually and It Hosted by World Economic Forum’s World Arts Forum.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Award recognises as well as celebrates the achievements of leading artists and cultural figures whose leadership inspires inclusive and sustainable change.
Crystal award is awarded by the World Economic Forum (WEF) annually and It Hosted by World Economic Forum’s World Arts Forum.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding international competition network
- It is an international body comprising 132 members exclusively devoted to international competition enforcement.
- It provides competition authorities with a specialized and informal platform for addressing practical concerns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The International Competition Network is an informal, virtual network that seeks to facilitate cooperation between competition law authorities globally. It was established in 2001 after the publication of a Final Report of the International Competition Policy Advisory Committee to the US Attorney General and Assistant Attorney General for Antitrust. Competition law experts in the US recommended that increased collaboration with overseas authorities could contribute to the coordination of enforcement and sharing of information on competition policy globally. It comprised 132 member states from 120 competition jurisdiction exclusively devoted to international competition enforcement.
It provides competition authorities with a specialized and informal platform for addressing practical concerns. It enables sharing experiences and adopting international best practices.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The International Competition Network is an informal, virtual network that seeks to facilitate cooperation between competition law authorities globally. It was established in 2001 after the publication of a Final Report of the International Competition Policy Advisory Committee to the US Attorney General and Assistant Attorney General for Antitrust. Competition law experts in the US recommended that increased collaboration with overseas authorities could contribute to the coordination of enforcement and sharing of information on competition policy globally. It comprised 132 member states from 120 competition jurisdiction exclusively devoted to international competition enforcement.
It provides competition authorities with a specialized and informal platform for addressing practical concerns. It enables sharing experiences and adopting international best practices.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich one following country doesn’t come under Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)?
Correct
Solution: D
The Eurasian Economic Union is an economic union of states located primarily in northern Eurasia. The Treaty aiming for the establishment of the EAEU was signed on 29 May 2014 by the leaders of Belarus, Kazakhstan and Russia, and came into force on 1 January 2015. Treaties aiming for Armenia’s and Kyrgyzstan’s accession to the Eurasian Economic Union were signed on 9 October and 23 December 2014, respectively.
Armenia’s accession treaty came into force on 2 January 2015. Kyrgyzstan’s accession treaty came into effect on 6 August 2015 The Eurasian Economic Union comprises Russia, Belarus, Armenia, Kazakhstan and Kyrgyzstan. The Eurasian economic union has an integrated single market of 183 million people and a gross domestic product of 4 trillion U.S dollars.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Eurasian Economic Union is an economic union of states located primarily in northern Eurasia. The Treaty aiming for the establishment of the EAEU was signed on 29 May 2014 by the leaders of Belarus, Kazakhstan and Russia, and came into force on 1 January 2015. Treaties aiming for Armenia’s and Kyrgyzstan’s accession to the Eurasian Economic Union were signed on 9 October and 23 December 2014, respectively.
Armenia’s accession treaty came into force on 2 January 2015. Kyrgyzstan’s accession treaty came into effect on 6 August 2015 The Eurasian Economic Union comprises Russia, Belarus, Armenia, Kazakhstan and Kyrgyzstan. The Eurasian economic union has an integrated single market of 183 million people and a gross domestic product of 4 trillion U.S dollars.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Project Zero
- It is introduced by Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It aims to block selling of counterfeit goods on its platform.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Amazon will empower brands in India to directly remove a seller’s listings from its platform through a new programme called Project Zero.
The aim is to ensure that customers receive authentic goods when shopping on Amazon. It introduces additional proactive mechanisms and powerful tools to identify, block and remove counterfeits.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Amazon will empower brands in India to directly remove a seller’s listings from its platform through a new programme called Project Zero.
The aim is to ensure that customers receive authentic goods when shopping on Amazon. It introduces additional proactive mechanisms and powerful tools to identify, block and remove counterfeits.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Prithvi-II Missile
- It is a surface-to-air tactical missile
- It is India’s first missile indigenously developed by DRDO under prestigious Integrated Guided Missile Development Program.
- It is capable of carrying 500 to 1,000 kg of warheads, both conventional as well as nuclear.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Prithvi-2 is capable of carrying 500 to 1,000 kg of warheads, both conventional as well as nuclear. It has a strike range of 350 kilometres. It uses an advanced inertial guidance system with manoeuvering trajectory to hit its target.
It is India’s first missile indigenously developed by DRDO under prestigious Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).
It is a surface-to-surface tactical missile with a strike range of 350 km.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Prithvi-2 is capable of carrying 500 to 1,000 kg of warheads, both conventional as well as nuclear. It has a strike range of 350 kilometres. It uses an advanced inertial guidance system with manoeuvering trajectory to hit its target.
It is India’s first missile indigenously developed by DRDO under prestigious Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).
It is a surface-to-surface tactical missile with a strike range of 350 km.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Taal Volcano
- It has erupted more than 30 times in the last few centuries.
- It is a volcano on the island of Luzon in Philippines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
A Volcano called Taal on the island of Luzon, 50 km from Manila, Philippines erupted on 12th January, 2020. Taal is classified as a “complex” volcano by the Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology (PHIVOLCS).
Taal has erupted more than 30 times in the last few centuries. Its last eruption was on October 3, 1977. An eruption in 1965 was considered particularly catastrophic, marked by the falling of rock fragments and ashfall.
Incorrect
Solution: C
A Volcano called Taal on the island of Luzon, 50 km from Manila, Philippines erupted on 12th January, 2020. Taal is classified as a “complex” volcano by the Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology (PHIVOLCS).
Taal has erupted more than 30 times in the last few centuries. Its last eruption was on October 3, 1977. An eruption in 1965 was considered particularly catastrophic, marked by the falling of rock fragments and ashfall.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
- It serves as a deposit insurance and credit guarantee for banks in India
- It is fully owned subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India
- Currently, in case of a bank collapse, a depositor can claim an amount up to a maximum of ₹ 10 lakh per account as the insurance cover
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) came into existence in 1978 after passing of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It serves as a deposit insurance and credit guarantee for banks in India fully owned subsidiary of and is governed by the Reserve Bank of India. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Currently, in case of a bank collapse, a depositor can claim an amount up to a maximum of ₹ 1 lakh per account as the insurance cover (even if the deposit in their account is greater than ₹ 1 lakh). Hence Statement 3 is incorrect. This amount is termed ‘deposit insurance’ the insurance cover against the deposits of an individual in banks.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) came into existence in 1978 after passing of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It serves as a deposit insurance and credit guarantee for banks in India fully owned subsidiary of and is governed by the Reserve Bank of India. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Currently, in case of a bank collapse, a depositor can claim an amount up to a maximum of ₹ 1 lakh per account as the insurance cover (even if the deposit in their account is greater than ₹ 1 lakh). Hence Statement 3 is incorrect. This amount is termed ‘deposit insurance’ the insurance cover against the deposits of an individual in banks.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bar-headed goose
- It is a least concern species
- They are found in central China and Mongolia
- It is reportedly sighted first time in Karingali Puncha Wetlands, Kerala
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
All the statements given above are correct.
Bar-headed goose (Anser Indicus) is reportedly sighted first time in Karingali Puncha Wetlands, Kerala.
Bar-headed geese are found in central China and Mongolia and they breed there. They start migration to the Indian sub-continent during the winter and stay here till the end of the season.
They are one of the birds which can fly even at very high altitude. They come to India and return to their homes by crossing the Himalayan ranges capacity of bar-headed geese to transport and consume oxygen at high rates in hypoxia distinguishes this species from similar lowland waterfowl.
It is a Least Concern Species.
Incorrect
Solution: C
All the statements given above are correct.
Bar-headed goose (Anser Indicus) is reportedly sighted first time in Karingali Puncha Wetlands, Kerala.
Bar-headed geese are found in central China and Mongolia and they breed there. They start migration to the Indian sub-continent during the winter and stay here till the end of the season.
They are one of the birds which can fly even at very high altitude. They come to India and return to their homes by crossing the Himalayan ranges capacity of bar-headed geese to transport and consume oxygen at high rates in hypoxia distinguishes this species from similar lowland waterfowl.
It is a Least Concern Species.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km
at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total
journey, what is the original speed of the train in km/hr?Correct
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Given that distance = 63 km.
Let original speed of train = x km/hr.
Time = distance / time = 63/x hrs.
And it travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than the original speed.
Distance = 72 km; speed = (x + 6) km/hr.
Time = 72/(x+6) hrs.
If it takes 3 hours to complete the whole journey
63/x + 72/(x + 6) = 3 hrs
⇒ 63(x + 6) + 72x = 3x(x + 6)
⇒ 21(x + 6) + 24x = x(x+6)
⇒ 45x + 21×6 = x2 + 6x
⇒x2 – 39x – 126 = 0
⇒ (x – 42)(x + 3) = 0
∴ x = 42 km/hr
∴Theoriginal average speed = 42 km/hrIncorrect
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Given that distance = 63 km.
Let original speed of train = x km/hr.
Time = distance / time = 63/x hrs.
And it travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than the original speed.
Distance = 72 km; speed = (x + 6) km/hr.
Time = 72/(x+6) hrs.
If it takes 3 hours to complete the whole journey
63/x + 72/(x + 6) = 3 hrs
⇒ 63(x + 6) + 72x = 3x(x + 6)
⇒ 21(x + 6) + 24x = x(x+6)
⇒ 45x + 21×6 = x2 + 6x
⇒x2 – 39x – 126 = 0
⇒ (x – 42)(x + 3) = 0
∴ x = 42 km/hr
∴Theoriginal average speed = 42 km/hr -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsIf Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a
loss of 10% on the other.Correct
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Use the net change method concept.
100 ==10% profit ==> 110 == 10% loss ==> 99.
100 become 99, so 1% of loss occursIncorrect
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Use the net change method concept.
100 ==10% profit ==> 110 == 10% loss ==> 99.
100 become 99, so 1% of loss occurs -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIn a test, a candidate attempted only 8 questions and secured 50% marks in each of the questions. If
he obtained a total of 40% in the test and all questions in the test carried equal marks, how many
questions were there in the test?Correct
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Let x questions be there with 10 marks for each question.
Maximum marks = 10x
8*5 = 40% of 10x
x = 10Incorrect
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Let x questions be there with 10 marks for each question.
Maximum marks = 10x
8*5 = 40% of 10x
x = 10 -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsEach of the six different faces of a cube has been coated with a different colour i.e., V, I, B, G, Y and
O. Following information is given:
1. Colours Y, O and B are on adjacent faces.
2. Colours I, G and Y are on adjacent faces.
3. Colours B, G and Y are on adjacent faces.
4. Colours O, V and B are on adjacent faces.Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face coloured with O?
Correct
Correct Answer: C
The opposite faces of the cube will be:
B – I
Y – V
G – OIncorrect
Correct Answer: C
The opposite faces of the cube will be:
B – I
Y – V
G – O -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsA class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this
interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each
period is:Correct
Solution: A
Class start at 11:00 am
Class ends at 02:27 pm
So, duration of class = 3h 27min = 207 min
There will be 4 periods.
After every period, there will be a 5 min break.
Here, only 3 breaks will be taken as there are only 4 periods and end of 4th period means end of the
class.4th break is not needed to be considered.
So, duration of the periods = 207 – 3×5 = 192 min.
Time assigned to each period = 192/4 =48min.Incorrect
Solution: A
Class start at 11:00 am
Class ends at 02:27 pm
So, duration of class = 3h 27min = 207 min
There will be 4 periods.
After every period, there will be a 5 min break.
Here, only 3 breaks will be taken as there are only 4 periods and end of 4th period means end of the
class.4th break is not needed to be considered.
So, duration of the periods = 207 – 3×5 = 192 min.
Time assigned to each period = 192/4 =48min.











