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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following type of algae that inhabit the sea is/are likely to be found in the deepest waters?
Correct
Solution: A
Red algae are able to grow in depth of seas as compared to green algae because of the presence of more quantity of pigment phycoerythrin in red algae growing at depth. Phycoerythrin can absorb blue- green wavelength of visible spectrum of light that can reach the maximum depth of water and help in photosynthesizing those red algae.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Red algae are able to grow in depth of seas as compared to green algae because of the presence of more quantity of pigment phycoerythrin in red algae growing at depth. Phycoerythrin can absorb blue- green wavelength of visible spectrum of light that can reach the maximum depth of water and help in photosynthesizing those red algae.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Aestivation is the type of summer sleep, performed by cold-blooded animals.
- Hibernation is the type of winter sleep, performed by the warm as well as cold-blooded animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The state of inactivity and a low metabolic process performed by the animals during the winters is known as Hibernation. It is also known as winter sleep. It may be performed by both the warm and cold-blooded animals. Examples include bats, birds, mammals, insects, etc
On the contrary, when animals take rest in shady and moist place during summer, it is called Aestivation or Estivation. Aestivation is also known as summer sleep. It is performed by cold-blooded animals. Examples include bees, snails, earthworms, salamanders, frogs, earthworms, crocodiles, tortoise, etc
Incorrect
Solution: C
The state of inactivity and a low metabolic process performed by the animals during the winters is known as Hibernation. It is also known as winter sleep. It may be performed by both the warm and cold-blooded animals. Examples include bats, birds, mammals, insects, etc
On the contrary, when animals take rest in shady and moist place during summer, it is called Aestivation or Estivation. Aestivation is also known as summer sleep. It is performed by cold-blooded animals. Examples include bees, snails, earthworms, salamanders, frogs, earthworms, crocodiles, tortoise, etc
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following reasons can be attributed for rarely finding very small animals in Polar Regions?
- Very small animals have a smaller surface area relative to their volume.
- Very small animals tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside.
- Very small animals have to expend much energy to generate body heat through metabolism.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many organisms. This is particularly true for small animals like shrews and humming birds. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area. Since small animals have a larger surface area relative to their volume, they tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
They have to expend much energy to generate body heat through metabolism.
This is the main reason why very small animals are rarely found in polar regions.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many organisms. This is particularly true for small animals like shrews and humming birds. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area. Since small animals have a larger surface area relative to their volume, they tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
They have to expend much energy to generate body heat through metabolism.
This is the main reason why very small animals are rarely found in polar regions.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsHow do body acclimatized itself to the altitude sickness in higher altitude during mountain climbing?
- Decreasing red blood cell production.
- Increasing the binding capacity of hemoglobin.
- Increasing breathing rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Altitude sickness means the physical distress from difficulty adjusting to lower oxygen pressure at high altitude. Its symptoms include nausea, fatigue and
heart palpitations.But, gradually you get acclimatized and stop experiencing altitude sickness. The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production, decreasing the binding capacity of hemoglobin and by increasing breathing rate.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Altitude sickness means the physical distress from difficulty adjusting to lower oxygen pressure at high altitude. Its symptoms include nausea, fatigue and
heart palpitations.But, gradually you get acclimatized and stop experiencing altitude sickness. The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production, decreasing the binding capacity of hemoglobin and by increasing breathing rate.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Cartagena Biosafety Protocol (CBP), consider the following statements:
- It is an additional agreement to the convention on biological diversity (CBD).
- It governs on the access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable
sharing of benefits arising from their utilization to the Convention of Biological
Diversity (CBD). - India is a party to the protocol.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international agreement which aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology that may have adverse effects on biological diversity, taking also into account risks to human health. It was adopted on 29 January 2000 as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity and entered into force on 11 September 2003.
Totally, there are 171 parties to the protocol including India.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international agreement which aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology that may have adverse effects on biological diversity, taking also into account risks to human health. It was adopted on 29 January 2000 as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity and entered into force on 11 September 2003.
Totally, there are 171 parties to the protocol including India.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Interspecific interactions: Example:
- Parasitism Koel laying its eggs in the nest of crow.
- Amensalism Sea anemone and clown fish
- Mutualism Fig tree and the pollinator species of wasp.
Which of the pairs given is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
Brood parasitism in birds is a fascinating example of parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host incubate them. During the course of evolution, the eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the nest.
Commensalism is a long-term biological interaction in which members of one species gain benefits while those of the other species neither benefit nor are harmed. Example: Sea anemone and clown fish.
Mutualism describes the ecological interaction between two or more species where each species has a net benefit. Mutualism is thought to be the most common type of ecological interaction, and it is often dominant in most communities worldwide. Example: Fig tree and the pollinator species of wasp.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Brood parasitism in birds is a fascinating example of parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host incubate them. During the course of evolution, the eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the nest.
Commensalism is a long-term biological interaction in which members of one species gain benefits while those of the other species neither benefit nor are harmed. Example: Sea anemone and clown fish.
Mutualism describes the ecological interaction between two or more species where each species has a net benefit. Mutualism is thought to be the most common type of ecological interaction, and it is often dominant in most communities worldwide. Example: Fig tree and the pollinator species of wasp.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- In an aquatic ecosystem, detritus food chain is the major conduit for energy flow.
- In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the grazing food chain than through the detritus food chain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow.
As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy
flows through the detritus food chain than through the grazing food chain.Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels: some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals, and in a natural ecosystem, some animals like cockroaches, crows, etc., are omnivores.
These natural interconnection of food chains make it a food web.Incorrect
Solution: D
In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow.
As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy
flows through the detritus food chain than through the grazing food chain.Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels: some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals, and in a natural ecosystem, some animals like cockroaches, crows, etc., are omnivores.
These natural interconnection of food chains make it a food web. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.
- Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate than measuring in terms of wet weight.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular
time called as the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the
mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.
Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate.Incorrect
Solution: C
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular
time called as the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the
mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.
Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following ecological pyramids is/are always represented as upright pyramid?
Correct
Solution: B
In the pyramid of energy flow, there is always loss of energy during the flow from one lower trophic level to higher trophic levels. Hence they will always be upright.
Incorrect
Solution: B
In the pyramid of energy flow, there is always loss of energy during the flow from one lower trophic level to higher trophic levels. Hence they will always be upright.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The species that invade a bare area are called keystone species.
- Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter areas.
- Xerarch succession takes place in dry areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Ecological Succession is the gradual process by which ecosystems change and
develop over timeBased on the nature of the habitat – whether it is water (or very wet areas)
or it is on very dry areas – succession of plants is called hydrach or xerarch,
respectively.Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions.
As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerach
successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry
(xeric) nor too wet (hydric).The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.
A keystone species is a species that has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance. Without keystone species, the ecosystem would be dramatically different or cease to exist altogether. Some keystone species, such as the wolf, tiger, lion etc, are also apex predators.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Ecological Succession is the gradual process by which ecosystems change and
develop over timeBased on the nature of the habitat – whether it is water (or very wet areas)
or it is on very dry areas – succession of plants is called hydrach or xerarch,
respectively.Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions.
As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerach
successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry
(xeric) nor too wet (hydric).The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.
A keystone species is a species that has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance. Without keystone species, the ecosystem would be dramatically different or cease to exist altogether. Some keystone species, such as the wolf, tiger, lion etc, are also apex predators.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following countries:
- India
- Brazil
- China
- Russia
Which of the countries given above is/are identified as Mega diverse country?
Correct
Solution: C
Megadiversity Countries is a term used to refer to the world’s top biodiversity-rich countries.
To qualify as a Megadiverse Country, a country must:
- Have at least 5000 of the world’s plants as endemics
- Have marine ecosystems within its borders.
The focus on endemism is in line with the IUCN’s “doctrine of ultimate responsibility”, which holds that a country with the only populations of an endangered species has ultimate responsibility for ensuring the survival of that particular species. Other secondary criteria have also been taken into consideration, such as animal and invertebrate endemism, species diversity, higher-level diversity, ecosystem diversity and presence of tropical rainforest ecosystems. Despite endemism being the main criterion, thresholds for the criteria are flexible and countries have been considered individually based on all criteria.
The identified Megadiverse Countries are: United States of America, Mexico, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Venezuela, Brazil, Democratic Republic of Congo, South Africa, Madagascar, India, Malaysia, Indonesia, Philippines, Papua New Guinea, China, and Australia.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Megadiversity Countries is a term used to refer to the world’s top biodiversity-rich countries.
To qualify as a Megadiverse Country, a country must:
- Have at least 5000 of the world’s plants as endemics
- Have marine ecosystems within its borders.
The focus on endemism is in line with the IUCN’s “doctrine of ultimate responsibility”, which holds that a country with the only populations of an endangered species has ultimate responsibility for ensuring the survival of that particular species. Other secondary criteria have also been taken into consideration, such as animal and invertebrate endemism, species diversity, higher-level diversity, ecosystem diversity and presence of tropical rainforest ecosystems. Despite endemism being the main criterion, thresholds for the criteria are flexible and countries have been considered individually based on all criteria.
The identified Megadiverse Countries are: United States of America, Mexico, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Venezuela, Brazil, Democratic Republic of Congo, South Africa, Madagascar, India, Malaysia, Indonesia, Philippines, Papua New Guinea, China, and Australia.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Biodiversity Hotspots, consider the following statements
- One of the criteria to qualify as Biodiversity Hotspots is, it must contain at least 15,000 species of endemic vascular plants.
- Western ghats falls under a biological hotspot.
- Norman Myers introduced concept of Biodiversity hotspots.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The concept of a biodiversity hotspot was put forward by Norman Myers in 1988.
The criteria which are necessary for a region to be categorized as a
biodiversity hotspot include:- Species endemism – it must contain at least 1500 species of vascular plants, which is more than 0.5 percent of the world’s total plant population, as endemic species.
- Degree of threat – it must have lost at least 70 percent of its original habitat
due to human interventions.
There are 3 such hotspots in India. They include:
- The Eastern Himalayas
- Indo-Burma
- The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
Incorrect
Solution: B
The concept of a biodiversity hotspot was put forward by Norman Myers in 1988.
The criteria which are necessary for a region to be categorized as a
biodiversity hotspot include:- Species endemism – it must contain at least 1500 species of vascular plants, which is more than 0.5 percent of the world’s total plant population, as endemic species.
- Degree of threat – it must have lost at least 70 percent of its original habitat
due to human interventions.
There are 3 such hotspots in India. They include:
- The Eastern Himalayas
- Indo-Burma
- The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following species:
- Asiatic Lion
- Lion tailed macaque
- Sangai Deer
Which of the species given above is/are endemic to India?
Correct
Solution: D
Asiatic Lion also known as the Indian lions are listed as endangered and only found in and around Gir Forest National Park of Gujarat. Gujarat Lion is one of five big cats inhabit India others being the Bengal Tiger and Indian Leopards.
Lion Tailed Macaque is India’s endangered primate species and also ranks among the rarest and most threatened monkey, endemic to the Western Ghats of South India.
Sangai also called as brow antlered deer is endemic and endangered species of deer, found only in Keibul Lamjao National Park of Manipur. The Keibul Lamjao park is a marshy wetland located at the south parts of the Loktak Lake.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Asiatic Lion also known as the Indian lions are listed as endangered and only found in and around Gir Forest National Park of Gujarat. Gujarat Lion is one of five big cats inhabit India others being the Bengal Tiger and Indian Leopards.
Lion Tailed Macaque is India’s endangered primate species and also ranks among the rarest and most threatened monkey, endemic to the Western Ghats of South India.
Sangai also called as brow antlered deer is endemic and endangered species of deer, found only in Keibul Lamjao National Park of Manipur. The Keibul Lamjao park is a marshy wetland located at the south parts of the Loktak Lake.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Compressed natural gas (CNG), consider the following statements:
- CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas.
- CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Compressed natural gas, or CNG, is natural gas under pressure which remains clear, odourless, and non-corrosive – and can be used as a cheaper, greener, and more efficient alternative to the traditional petrol and diesel fuels for vehicles.
CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas which, like gasoline, produces engine power when mixed with air and fed into your engine’s combustion chamber.
CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline and they produce less exhaust emissions. Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2 and nitrous oxide (N2O) can be reduced by as much as 95% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Compressed natural gas, or CNG, is natural gas under pressure which remains clear, odourless, and non-corrosive – and can be used as a cheaper, greener, and more efficient alternative to the traditional petrol and diesel fuels for vehicles.
CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas which, like gasoline, produces engine power when mixed with air and fed into your engine’s combustion chamber.
CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline and they produce less exhaust emissions. Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2 and nitrous oxide (N2O) can be reduced by as much as 95% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Electrostatic precipitator can remove most of the particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.
- A scrubber can remove gases like sulfur dioxide.
- Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use leaded petrol
because lead in the petrol activates the catalyst.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
There are several ways of removing particulate matter; the most widely
used of which is the electrostatic precipitator, which can remove over 99 per cent particulate matter present in the exhaust from a
thermal power plant. It has electrode wires that are maintained at several
thousand volts, which produce a corona that releases electrons. These
electrons attach to dust particles giving them a net negative charge. The
collecting plates are grounded and attract the charged dust particles.
The velocity of air between the plates must be low enough to allow the
dust to fall.A scrubber can remove gases like sulphur dioxide. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed through a spray of water or lime.
Catalytic converters, having expensive metals namely platinum-palladium and rhodium as the catalysts, are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
Incorrect
Solution: A
There are several ways of removing particulate matter; the most widely
used of which is the electrostatic precipitator, which can remove over 99 per cent particulate matter present in the exhaust from a
thermal power plant. It has electrode wires that are maintained at several
thousand volts, which produce a corona that releases electrons. These
electrons attach to dust particles giving them a net negative charge. The
collecting plates are grounded and attract the charged dust particles.
The velocity of air between the plates must be low enough to allow the
dust to fall.A scrubber can remove gases like sulphur dioxide. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed through a spray of water or lime.
Catalytic converters, having expensive metals namely platinum-palladium and rhodium as the catalysts, are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 points‘Shangri-La Dialogue’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: B
The IISS Shangri-La Dialogue is Asia’s premier defence summit, a unique
meeting of ministers and delegates. Each year’s agenda is intentionally wideranging, reflecting the many defence and security challenges facing a large and diverse region.Incorrect
Solution: B
The IISS Shangri-La Dialogue is Asia’s premier defence summit, a unique
meeting of ministers and delegates. Each year’s agenda is intentionally wideranging, reflecting the many defence and security challenges facing a large and diverse region. -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Defence Fund
- It is administered by an Executive Committee, with PM as Chairperson.
- The fund is entirely dependent on voluntary contributions from the public and does not get any budgetary support.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
It is used for the welfare of the members of the Armed Forces (including Para Military Forces) and their dependents
The Fund is administered by an Executive Committee, with PM as Chairperson, and Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members.
Finance Minister is the Treasurer of the Fund. Accounts of the Fund are kept with the Reserve Bank of India.
The fund is entirely dependent on voluntary contributions from the public and does not get any budgetary support.
Incorrect
Solution: C
It is used for the welfare of the members of the Armed Forces (including Para Military Forces) and their dependents
The Fund is administered by an Executive Committee, with PM as Chairperson, and Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members.
Finance Minister is the Treasurer of the Fund. Accounts of the Fund are kept with the Reserve Bank of India.
The fund is entirely dependent on voluntary contributions from the public and does not get any budgetary support.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsBureau of Energy Efficiency star libeling is applied to which of the following appliances
1. Tubular Florescent Lamp
2. LPG- Stoves
3. Distribution Transformer
4. Agricultural PumpsetSelect the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
BEE star labelling is currently invoked for equipments/appliances Room Air Conditioner (Fixed Speed), Ceiling Fan, Colour Television, Computer, Direct Cool Refrigerator, Distribution Transformer, Domestic Gas Stove, Frost Free Refrigerator, General Purpose Industrial Motor, Monoset Pump, Openwell Submersible Pump Set, Stationary Type Water Heater, Submersible Pump Set, Tfl, Washing Machine, Ballast, Solid State Inverter, Office Automation Products, Diesel Engine Driven Monosetpumps For Agricultural Purposes, Diesel Generator Set, Led Lamps, Room Air Conditioner (Variable Speed), Chillers, Agricultural Pumpset.Incorrect
Solution: D
BEE star labelling is currently invoked for equipments/appliances Room Air Conditioner (Fixed Speed), Ceiling Fan, Colour Television, Computer, Direct Cool Refrigerator, Distribution Transformer, Domestic Gas Stove, Frost Free Refrigerator, General Purpose Industrial Motor, Monoset Pump, Openwell Submersible Pump Set, Stationary Type Water Heater, Submersible Pump Set, Tfl, Washing Machine, Ballast, Solid State Inverter, Office Automation Products, Diesel Engine Driven Monosetpumps For Agricultural Purposes, Diesel Generator Set, Led Lamps, Room Air Conditioner (Variable Speed), Chillers, Agricultural Pumpset. -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsThe Saharanpur Rules of 1855 is related to which of the following subjects?
Correct
Solution: C
The Mahalwari tenure was introduced in1822 in major portions of the UP, the Central Provinces the Punjab and covered nearly 30% of the area.
The Mahalwari system of land revenue worked under the scheme of 1833 was completed under the administration of James Thompson. The 66% rental demanded proved very harsh, too. In the Saharanpur Rules of 1855, it was revised to 50% by Lord Dalhousie.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Mahalwari tenure was introduced in1822 in major portions of the UP, the Central Provinces the Punjab and covered nearly 30% of the area.
The Mahalwari system of land revenue worked under the scheme of 1833 was completed under the administration of James Thompson. The 66% rental demanded proved very harsh, too. In the Saharanpur Rules of 1855, it was revised to 50% by Lord Dalhousie.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Factory Act, 1881 ruled that no children below the age of 14 years could be employed in a factory.
- Full time factory inspectors were appointed under the Factory Act, 1911.
- The Whitley Commission on Labourwas set up in 1929 to inquire into the existing conditions of labourin industrial undertakings and plantations in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Factories Act of I881 was the first legislation directly affecting industrial labourers in the country. It applied to all manufacturing establishments using power driven machinery, employing 100 or more labours and working for more than 120 days in a year. It ruled that no children below the age of 7 could be employed in a factory and nobody before attaining the age of 12 could be made to work for more than 9 hours a day.
Full time factory inspectors were appointed under the Factory Act, 1911 to see whether the provisions were being enforced.
The Royal Commission on Labour or the Whitley Commission on Labour was set up in 1929 to inquire into the existing conditions of labour in industrial undertakings and plantations in India. The Commission recommended the adoption of suitable legislation enabling the Competent Authority to collect and collate information regarding the living, working and socio-economic conditions of industrial labour.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Factories Act of I881 was the first legislation directly affecting industrial labourers in the country. It applied to all manufacturing establishments using power driven machinery, employing 100 or more labours and working for more than 120 days in a year. It ruled that no children below the age of 7 could be employed in a factory and nobody before attaining the age of 12 could be made to work for more than 9 hours a day.
Full time factory inspectors were appointed under the Factory Act, 1911 to see whether the provisions were being enforced.
The Royal Commission on Labour or the Whitley Commission on Labour was set up in 1929 to inquire into the existing conditions of labour in industrial undertakings and plantations in India. The Commission recommended the adoption of suitable legislation enabling the Competent Authority to collect and collate information regarding the living, working and socio-economic conditions of industrial labour.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsPoverty and Shared Prosperity Report is being published by
Correct
Solution: A
Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report:
- It is a biennial report of the World Bank.
- It provides a global audience with the latest and most accurate estimates on trends in global poverty and shared prosperity.
- Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by COVID-19.
- This will exacerbate the impact of conflict and climate change, which were already slowing down poverty reduction.
- The pandemic may push another 88 million to 115 million into extreme poverty or having to live on less than $1.50 per day, resulting in a total of 150 million such individuals.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report:
- It is a biennial report of the World Bank.
- It provides a global audience with the latest and most accurate estimates on trends in global poverty and shared prosperity.
- Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by COVID-19.
- This will exacerbate the impact of conflict and climate change, which were already slowing down poverty reduction.
- The pandemic may push another 88 million to 115 million into extreme poverty or having to live on less than $1.50 per day, resulting in a total of 150 million such individuals.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Aditya- L1 mission
- It is India’s first solar mission
- It will be launched using the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
- It will Study the sun’s outer most layers, the corona and the chromospheres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Aditya- L1 mission:
- It is India’s first solar mission.
- It will be launched using the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) in XL configuration. The space-based observatory will have seven payloads (instruments) on board to study the Sun’s corona, solar emissions, solar winds and flares, and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), and will carry out round-the-clock imaging of the Sun.
Objectives:
- Study the sun’s outer most layers, the corona and the chromospheres.
- Collect data about coronal mass ejection, which will also yield information for space weather prediction.
Significance of the mission: The data from Aditya mission will be immensely helpful in discriminating between different models for the origin of solar storms and also for constraining how the storms evolve and what path they take through the interplanetary space from the Sun to the Earth.
Position of the satellite: In order to get the best science from the sun, continuous viewing of the sun is preferred without any occultation/ eclipses and hence, Aditya- L1 satellite will be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of the sun-earth systems.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Aditya- L1 mission:
- It is India’s first solar mission.
- It will be launched using the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) in XL configuration. The space-based observatory will have seven payloads (instruments) on board to study the Sun’s corona, solar emissions, solar winds and flares, and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), and will carry out round-the-clock imaging of the Sun.
Objectives:
- Study the sun’s outer most layers, the corona and the chromospheres.
- Collect data about coronal mass ejection, which will also yield information for space weather prediction.
Significance of the mission: The data from Aditya mission will be immensely helpful in discriminating between different models for the origin of solar storms and also for constraining how the storms evolve and what path they take through the interplanetary space from the Sun to the Earth.
Position of the satellite: In order to get the best science from the sun, continuous viewing of the sun is preferred without any occultation/ eclipses and hence, Aditya- L1 satellite will be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of the sun-earth systems.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries are part of Golden Triangle?
- Myanmar
- Laos
- Cambodia
- Thailand
- Vietnam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
The Golden Triangle is the area where the borders of Thailand, Laos, Vietnam and Myanmar meet at the confluence of the Ruak and Mekong rivers. The name “Golden Triangle”—coined by the CIA—is commonly used more broadly to refer to an area of approximately 950,000 square kilometres (367,000 sq mi) that overlaps the mountains of the three adjacent countries.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Golden Triangle is the area where the borders of Thailand, Laos, Vietnam and Myanmar meet at the confluence of the Ruak and Mekong rivers. The name “Golden Triangle”—coined by the CIA—is commonly used more broadly to refer to an area of approximately 950,000 square kilometres (367,000 sq mi) that overlaps the mountains of the three adjacent countries.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsBhuiya, Baiga, Dharua tribes are found in which of the following state?
Correct
Solution: D
Oraon, Munda, Chero, Parchaiya, Santhal, Asuras tribes are found in Odisha.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Oraon, Munda, Chero, Parchaiya, Santhal, Asuras tribes are found in Odisha.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following protected areas comes under Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?
- Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
- Mukurthi National Park
- Peppara Wildlife sanctuary
- Silent Valley
- Bandipur National Park
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Correct
Solution: A
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats and includes 2 of the 10 biogeographical provinces of India. Wide ranges of ecosystems and species diversity are found in this region. Thus, it was a natural choice for the premier biosphere reserve of the country.
- The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established mainly to fulfill the following objectives:
- To conserve insitu genetic diversity of species
- To restore degraded ecosystems to their natural conditions
- To provide baseline data for ecological and environmental research and education
- To function as an alternate model for sustainable development
Protected Areas under biosphere
- Silent Valley National Park
- Mukurthi National Park
- Bandipur-Nagarhole Tiger Reserve
- Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
- Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
- Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary
- Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve
Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary is nestled in the western slope of southern region of Western Ghats in Thiruvananthapuram district. It forms part of Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats and includes 2 of the 10 biogeographical provinces of India. Wide ranges of ecosystems and species diversity are found in this region. Thus, it was a natural choice for the premier biosphere reserve of the country.
- The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established mainly to fulfill the following objectives:
- To conserve insitu genetic diversity of species
- To restore degraded ecosystems to their natural conditions
- To provide baseline data for ecological and environmental research and education
- To function as an alternate model for sustainable development
Protected Areas under biosphere
- Silent Valley National Park
- Mukurthi National Park
- Bandipur-Nagarhole Tiger Reserve
- Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
- Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
- Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary
- Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve
Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary is nestled in the western slope of southern region of Western Ghats in Thiruvananthapuram district. It forms part of Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsPassage : 1
One of imperialism’s legacies was to write the “native” out of her own history. This was an act of wilful forgetting, and, from the imperial standpoint, a crucial one—usurping all agency prepared the ground for telling the natives that they could not govern their land as well as the imperialists could.
Which of the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?
Correct
Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Ans. C. A is wrong as the passage never states that the native people were ignorant about their history. Statement B is unrelated to the message being conveyed by the passage. Statement D is partially correct when it says that history was manipulated. However, the myth of benevolent despotism is extra from what it being talked about in the passage. Hence C
Incorrect
Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Ans. C. A is wrong as the passage never states that the native people were ignorant about their history. Statement B is unrelated to the message being conveyed by the passage. Statement D is partially correct when it says that history was manipulated. However, the myth of benevolent despotism is extra from what it being talked about in the passage. Hence C
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA study conducted by researchers in the UK and Canada has concluded that the internet and social media are not responsible for today’s fragmented society, and that echo chambers do not pose the threat of political polarisation.
Which of the following statement(s) go/ goes against the conclusion of the passage?
-
- Political rants on social media have led to enhanced distance between left and right ideologies
- Social media has become a tool for influencing election outcomes
Correct
Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is against the conclusion of the passage. Statement 2 does not go against the conclusion as elections can be influenced through fake news etc.
Incorrect
Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is against the conclusion of the passage. Statement 2 does not go against the conclusion as elections can be influenced through fake news etc.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsThe FRA was enacted in 2006 with the aim of protecting the claims of tribal communities over tracts of land or forests they have inhabited and cultivated for generations. It has the potential to democratise forest governance by recognising community forest resource rights over an estimated
85.6 million acres, thereby empowering over 200 million forest dwellers in over 1,70,000 villages. However, the FRA’s future is precariously balanced between the democratic control and protection of forests on the one hand and rapacious corporations backed by an unscrupulous political class on the other. It has become the site of a deep conflict.
Which of the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
Correct
Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Ans. B. A and C are wrong as they move away from the central focus of the passage which is on FRA. D is wrong as the statement is making a definite prediction, the basis of which has not been given in the passage. B is the most accurate answer.
Incorrect
Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Ans. B. A and C are wrong as they move away from the central focus of the passage which is on FRA. D is wrong as the statement is making a definite prediction, the basis of which has not been given in the passage. B is the most accurate answer.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsMany Americans are now learning to meditate at the office. From Aetna to General Mills to Google, corporate America has bought into mindfulness in a big way, rolling out employee training programs across its campuses and promoting mindful leaders to top positions. These efforts, which gained momentum after the crash of 2008, have coincided with the most precipitous decline in fortunes Americans have seen since the Great Depression—a period of layoffs, outsourcing, and the casualization of labor. Workers who held on to their jobs experienced what journalists Clara Jeffery and Monika Bauerlein have called “the great speedup.” Under pressure to do more with less, Americans struggle to complete an ever-expanding to-do list during ever-expanding working hours without an increase in pay. For many, staying in work has required a fundamental change in lifestyle: In 2002 just 8 percent of employees checked email before arriving at the office. Today 50 percent deal with email before even getting out of bed.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are in accordance with the underlying message of the passage?
-
- Great Depression and 2008 financial crash had a massive impact on the work psychology of Americans
- Economic meltdown is accompanied by casualization of workforce
Correct
Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Nowhere in the passage reason for casualization of workforce has been specifically allocated to economic meltdowns. It might be a by-product but a causal relationship between the two has not been established in the passage.
Incorrect
Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Nowhere in the passage reason for casualization of workforce has been specifically allocated to economic meltdowns. It might be a by-product but a causal relationship between the two has not been established in the passage.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsMany Americans are now learning to meditate at the office. From Aetna to General Mills to Google, corporate America has bought into mindfulness in a big way, rolling out employee training programs across its campuses and promoting mindful leaders to top positions. These efforts, which gained momentum after the crash of 2008, have coincided with the most precipitous decline in fortunes Americans have seen since the Great Depression—a period of layoffs, outsourcing, and the casualization of labor. Workers who held on to their jobs experienced what journalists Clara Jeffery and Monika Bauerlein have called “the great speedup.” Under pressure to do more with less, Americans struggle to complete an ever-expanding to-do list during ever-expanding working hours without an increase in pay. For many, staying in work has required a fundamental change in lifestyle: In 2002 just 8 percent of employees checked email before arriving at the office. Today 50 percent deal with email before even getting out of bed.
What, according to the passage, is the meaning of the term “the great speedup”?
Correct
Answer : B
Answer Justification:
Statement a is incomplete. It doesn’t talk about the reason that has caused a change in the lifestyle of people. Statement D is wrong as the latter part of the statement is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Statement c is completely unrelated to the context in which the passage mention great speedup. Statement b is correct as great speedup refers to the change in lifestyle that people have to make in order to be professionally relevant.
Incorrect
Answer : B
Answer Justification:
Statement a is incomplete. It doesn’t talk about the reason that has caused a change in the lifestyle of people. Statement D is wrong as the latter part of the statement is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Statement c is completely unrelated to the context in which the passage mention great speedup. Statement b is correct as great speedup refers to the change in lifestyle that people have to make in order to be professionally relevant.










