DAY – 7 ( INSTA REVISION TEST – 7)INSTA REVISION PLAN 3.0, 2021

Solution: D

The energy received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation
which in short is termed as insolation.

The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during a day, in a season and in a year. The factors that cause these variations in insolation are :

(i) The rotation of earth on its axis

(ii) The angle of inclination of the sun’s rays

(iii) The length of the day

(iv) The transparency of the atmosphere

(v) The configuration of land in terms of its aspect

Thus, all the given factors cause variation in the amount of insolation.

Solution: C

The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and further transmits the heat of the atmosphere. This process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as convection. The convective transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere.

The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called advection. It plays important role diurnal variation in daily weather in mid latitude and the local wind ‘loo’ in northern India.

Solution: D

When the temperature increases with altitude, it is known as temperature inversion. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.

Solution: D

Pressure Gradient Force is caused due difference in the pressure between two regions.

The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient. The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and is weak where the isobars are apart.

The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force. It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.

The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force.

Solution: B

The major tectonic plates are Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate, North American Plate, South American Plate, Pacific Plate, African Plate, Indo-Australian Plate, and Eurasian Plate. Hence, Antarctic Plate is not a minor plate.

Some important minor plates are:
(i) Cocos plate : Between Central America and Pacific plate
(ii) Nazca plate : Between South America and Pacific plate
(iii) Arabian plate : Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
(iv) Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate.

Solution: D

When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects, it is known as dew. The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights.
For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Frost forms on cold surfaces when condensation takes place below freezing point (00C), i.e. the dew point is at or below the freezing point. The excess moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals instead of water droplets.

Solution: A

Chinook, warm, dry wind descending the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains, primarily in winter. Winds of the same kind occur in other parts of the world and are known generally as foehns.

Solution: A

Savanna climate has alternate wet and dry seasons. There are only two seasons – winter and summer. Rains occur in summer.

Due to distinct wet and dry periods, many Savanna areas have poor lateritic soils which are incapable of supporting good crops. Temperate grasslands are known for commercial grain farming.

The Masai tribes of savanna are pastoralists are of the East African plateau. They are known for cattle rearing.

Solution: A

The Igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth, thus they are known as primary rocks. Granite, gabbro, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous rocks.

Solution: B

Solution: D

Attorney General of India:

• The Attorney General (AG) of India is a part of the Union Executive. AG is the highest law officer in the country.
• Article 76 of the Constitution provides for the office of AG of India.

Appointment and Eligibility:

• AG is appointed by the President on the advice of the government.
• S/he must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court, i.e. s/he must be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.
• Term of the Office: Not fixed by the Constitution.
• Removal: Procedures and grounds for the removal of AG are not stated in the Constitution. S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President (may be removed by the President at any time).

Duties and Functions:

• To give advice to the Government of India (GoI) upon such legal matters, which are referred to her/him by the President.
• To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to her/him by the President.
• To appear on behalf of the GoI in all cases in the Supreme Court or in any case in any High Court in which the GoI is concerned.
• To represent the GoI in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 (Power of the President to consult the Supreme Court) of the Constitution.

Solution: B

Autonomous Council:

• The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India allows for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions which have been given autonomy within their respective states.
• Most of these autonomous district councils are located in North East India but two are in Ladakh, a region administered by India as a union territory.
• Presently, 10 Autonomous Councils in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura are formed by virtue of the Sixth Schedule with the rest being formed as a result of other legislation.

Powers and competencies

Under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule, autonomous district councils can make laws, rules and regulations in the following areas:

• Land management
• Forest management
• Water resources
• Agriculture and cultivation
• Formation of village councils
• Public health
• Sanitation
• Village and town level policing
• Appointment of traditional chiefs and headmen
• Inheritance of property
• Marriage and divorce
• Social customs
• Money lending and trading
• Mining and minerals

Judicial powers

• Autonomous district councils have powers to form courts to hear cases where both parties are members of Scheduled Tribes and the maximum sentence is less than 5 years in prison.

Taxation and revenue

Autonomous district councils have powers to levy taxes, fees and tolls on; building and land, animals, vehicles, boats, entry of goods into the area, roads, ferries, bridges, employment and income and general taxes for the maintenance of schools and roads.

Solution: C

State of the Global Climate Report:

The World Meteorological Organisation is publishing the report since 1993. The report mainly documents indicators of climate system such as increasing land and ocean temperatures, greenhouse gas concentrations, melting ice, sea-level increase, glacier retreat and extreme weather.

The report also highlights the impacts of climate change on socio-economic development, food security, migration and marine ecosystems.

Solution: D

Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED)

• It was established in 1987 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 1984 by the Government of India as a National level Cooperative body.
• It falls under the Ministry of Tribal Welfare.
• TRIFED is mandated to ringing about socio-economic development of tribals of the country by institutionalizing the trade of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) & Surplus Agricultural Produce (SAP) collected/ cultivated by them.
• It plays the dual role of both a market developer and a service provider.
• TRIBES India is the brand under which the sourced handcrafted products from the tribal people are sold.

Solution: D

Inner Line Permit (ILP):

• It is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
• At present, four Northeastern states are covered, namely, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland. (The inclusion of Manipur in Inner Line Permit was announced on 10 December 2019)
• Both the duration of stay and the areas allowed to be accessed for any nonnative are determined by the ILP.
• The ILP is issued by the concerned state government and can be availed both by applying online and in person.

Solution: A

Strait of Malacca connects Bay of Bengal and South China Sea and Strait of Gibraltar connects Mediterranean and Atlantic Ocean.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: C

Global Wage Report is released by International Labour Organisation (ILO). This new ILO Global Wage Report, 2018-19 examines the evolution of real wages around the world, giving a unique picture of wage trends globally and by region.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

https://www.ilo.org/global/research/global-reports/global-wage-report/lang–en/index.htm

Solution: A

What is Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)?

The OALP, a critical part of the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy, provides uniform licences for exploration and production of all forms of hydrocarbons, enabling contractors to explore conventional as well as unconventional oil and gas resources.

Fields are offered under a revenue-sharing model and throw up marketing and pricing freedom for crude oil and natural gas produced.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: C

The Indian star tortoise (Geochelone elegans) is a threatened species of tortoise found in dry areas and scrub forest in India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

It is listed as Vulnerable species in Red Data Book of IUCN. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The Indian star tortoise was upgraded to CITES Appendix I in 2019 (threatened with extinction) by full consensus among all member states (of CoP18 with 183 countries), giving it the highest level of international protection from commercial trade. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: D

The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED.  It was launched on 14th April, 2018 and seeks to improve tribal incomes through value addition of tribal products.

The scheme will be implemented through Ministry of Tribal Affairs as Nodal Department at the Central Level and TRIFED as Nodal Agency at the National Level. At State level, the State Nodal Agency for MFPs and the District collectors are envisaged to play a pivot role in scheme implementation at grassroot level. Locally the Kendras are proposed to be managed by a Managing Committee (an SHG) consisting of representatives of Van Dhan SHGs in the cluster. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

At unit level, aggregation of produce would be done by SHGs having about 30 members each forming Van Dhan Vikas ‘Samuh’. The SHGs would also undertake primary value addition of the MFPs using equipment such as small cutting and sieving tools, decorticator, dryer, packaging tool etc based on MFPs available in the area. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

It aims at build upon the traditional knowledge and skill sets of tribals by adding technology and IT for value addition. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

A typical Van Dhan Vikas Samuh would have the following facilities:

• Provision for required building/ infrastructure support to be established in one of the beneficiary’s house/ part of house or Government/ gram panchayat building
• Equipment/ Tool Kit comprising of equipment such as small cutting and sieving tools, decorticator, dryer, packaging tool etc. based on MFPs available in the area
• Fully equipped training facilities for a batch of 30 trainees with provision for raw material for training purpose and supply of trainee kits (comprising of bag, scribbing pad, pen, brochures, training manual, booklet etc)
• Provisioning of working capital for the SHGs through tie up with financial institutions, banks, NSTFDC etc
• A cluster of ten such SHGs within the same village shall form a Van Dhan Vikas Kendra. Subject to successful operations of the samuhs in a Kendra, common infrastructure facilities (pucca Kendra) may be provided to the Kendra in the next phase in terms of building, warehouse, etc. for use of the samuh members
• An illustrative list of major MFPs which may be covered under the initiative are tamarind, mahua flower, mahua seed, hill broom, chironjee, honey, sal seed, sal leaves, bamboo split, myrobalan, mango (amchur), aonla (churan/candy), seed lac, tez patta, cardamom, black pepper, turmeric, dry ginger, cinnamon, coffee, tea, sea buckthorn tea, etc. Apart from these, any other MFP with potential for value addition may be included.

http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/scheduled-tribes-welfare/van-dhan-scheme?content=small

Solution: A

The health ministry had in April 2018 notified a ban on private drug manufacturers from producing Oxytocin. The government had restricted its imports and decided to confine manufacturing to Karnataka Antibiotics and Pharmaceuticals Ltd, a government company. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Manufacturers were of the view that availability will be severely hit if the government allows only one manufacturer to make it. Oxytocin is included as a lifesaving drug in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Oxytocin, is a uterine stimulant hormone, prescribed for the initiation of uterine contractions and induction of labour in women, as well as stimulation of contractions during labour. It is also used to help abort the foetus in cases of incomplete abortion or miscarriage, and to control bleeding after childbirth. It may be used for breast engorgement. However, it is also used widely in the dairy industry, agriculture and horticulture to boost production. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/sc-larger-bench-to-decide-over-restricting-manufacture-of-oxytocin-to-single-psu-1566494130856.html

Solution: D

FEDOR or Feodor is a Russian humanoid robot that replicates movements of a remote operator as well as performs a limited set of actions autonomously. Originally it was called Avatar and was funded by Ministry of Emergency Situations for rescue operations but later its intended use was expanded to space operations. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

https://www.cnet.com/news/iss-astronauts-reparked-a-spacecraft-so-fedor-the-creepy-robot-can-arrive/

Robonaut 2 (R2) was designed and developed by NASA and General Motors with assistance from Oceaneering Space Systems engineers to accelerate development of the next generation of robots and related technologies for use in the automotive and aerospace industries. R2 is a state of the art highly dexterous anthropomorphic robot. Like its predecessor Robonaut 1 (R1), R2 is capable of handling a wide range of EVA tools and interfaces, but R2 is a significant advancement over its predecessor. R2 is capable of speeds more than four times faster than R1, is more compact, is more dexterous, and includes a deeper and wider range of sensing. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

https://robonaut.jsc.nasa.gov/R2/

Kirobo is Japan’s first robot astronaut, developed by University of Tokyo and Tomotaka Takahashi, to accompany Koichi Wakata, the first Japanese commander of the International Space Station. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Solution: C

Plastic is the most prevalent type of marine debris found in our ocean and Great Lakes. Plastic debris can come in all shapes and sizes, but those that are less than five millimeters in length (or about the size of a sesame seed) are called “microplastics.” Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Microplastics can come from a variety of sources including larger plastic pieces that have broken apart, resin pellets used for plastic manufacturing, or in the form of microbeads, which are small, manufactured plastic beads used in health and beauty products. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/microplastics.html

The World Health Organization (WHO) recently said the level of microplastics in drinking-water is not yet dangerous for humans but called for more research into potential future risk.

In its first report into the effects of microplastics on human health, WHO looked into the specific impact of microplastics in tap and bottled water.

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/microplastics-in-drinking-water-not-a-health-risk-for-now-who/article29218722.ece

Solution: C

Plastic has multiple uses and the physical and chemical properties lead to commercial success. However, the indiscriminate disposal of plastic has become a major threat to the environment. In particular, the plastic carry bags are the biggest contributors of littered waste and every year, millions of plastic bags end up in to the environment vis-a-vis soil, water bodies, water courses, etc and it takes an average of one thousand years to decompose completely. Therefore, to address the issue of scientific plastic waste management, the Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 were notified in 2011, which included plastic waste management. The Government has notified the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016, in suppression of the earlier Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 aim to expand the jurisdiction of applicability from the municipal area to rural areas, because plastic has reached rural areas also. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

http://vikaspedia.in/energy/environment/waste-management/plastic-waste-management-rules-2016

Solution: B

The Dugong is an herbivorous medium sized marine mammal that resembles the Manatees in bodily characteristics. It belongs to the order Sirenia and can be found in areas that largely support the growth of sea grass. It is the only living representative of the once-diverse family Dugongidae; its closest modern relative, Steller’s sea cow (Hydrodamalis gigas). Hence, statement 2 is correct

The IUCN lists this species of marine creature as a vulnerable species-high risk and endangered in the wild. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Solution: C

The cube in question is a 2×2×2 cube. Hence, there are 8 smaller cubes and all of them are corner cubes.

We know that out of the total of 6 faces every corner cube has 3 faces exposed. Thus, in case of every corner cube only half of the total surface area is exposed while being a part of the original bigger cube.

Thus, required ratio = Total Surface area of 8 individual smaller cubes/Surface area of original cube

= Total Surface area of one smaller cube/Exposed Surface area of one smaller cube while being a part of the original bigger cube

= 2/1 or 2:1

Solution: D

It is given that speed of Raju = 6 kmph.

For our ease and convenience, we will convert the given speed into meters per minute.

So, speed of Raju = 6 kmph = 6 × 1000 m / 60 min = 100 meter per min

As we know that, Distance = Speed × Time

Putting the values in the above formula, we get:

Distance travelled while moving towards the north, AB = 100 × 3 = 300 meters

Distance travelled while moving towards the east, BC = 100 × 4 = 400 meters

Clearly, points A, B and C make a right-angled triangle. Thus, shortest distance will be AC.

Now, according to Pythagoras theorem:

AC² = AB² + BC²

Putting the values in the above formula we get,

AC² = 3002 + 4002 = 90000 + 160000 = 250000

AC = √250000 = 500 meters

Therefore, the distance between A and C is 500 m.

Solution: B

The distance run by the first train due to the half hour head start it got = (½ )×120 = 60 km.

Time taken by the second train to catch up = Relative distance/Relative speed

= 60/(150-120) = 60/30 = 2 hours.

Hence, the distance covered by the second train before it meets the first train = 150×2 = 300 km.

Solution: C

Option A – In the passage the debate is around whether only socialism has monopoly on welfare. Statement 1 is not explicitly implied in the passage because it does not provide a relationship between the capitalist principles and welfares state.

Option B – Objective of both socialism and capitalism are not the same so they do not work for the same end.

Option C – Holds very true because wealth creation leads to welfare so both are not in conflict with each other rather dependent on each other.

Option D – There is no clear argument establishing that India is no more a mixed economy in the passage.

Solution: D

Option A – There is no discussion on the need for ombudsman for investors in the passage so the statement that ombudsman is need of the hour is not significant message of the passage.

Option B – to ensure effective contract enforcement for enhanced ease of doing business is very necessary but passage is about the grievance redressal mechanism of the investors different from contract enforcement thus is not significant message of the passage.

Option –C – In common business environment reducing regulation always ameliorate the situation but passage most significant message cannot be on regulation which is talking about making seamless experience of grievance redressal of investor so this is not most significant message by the passage.

Option –D – Thus option D is the most significant message out of the passage which advocates for the single window system for grievance redressal mechanism and most crucial aspect of the passage.