INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Flag Satyagraha, consider the following statements:
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- It was the first Satyagraha movement led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in India.
- It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- What is Flag Satyagraha?
- The Flag Satyagraha movement by the freedom fighters shook the British government and it infused a new life into the freedom movement.
- Also called the Jhanda Satyagraha, it was held in Jabalpur and Nagpur in 1923.
- The news of flag hoisting in Jabalpur spread like fire in the country and after flags were hoisted at several places across the country.
- Significance:
- It is a campaign of peaceful civil disobedience that focused on exercising the right and freedom to hoist the nationalist flag and challenge the legitimacy of the British Rule in India through the defiance of laws prohibiting the hoisting of nationalist flags and restricting civil freedoms.
- Outcomes:
- The arrest of nationalist protestors demanding the right to hoist the flag caused an outcry across India especially as Gandhi had recently been arrested.
- Nationalist leaders such as Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Jamnalal Bajaj, Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari, Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Vinoba Bhave organised the revolt and thousands of people from different regions traveled to Nagpur and other parts of the Central Provinces to participate in civil disobedience.
- In the end, the British negotiated an agreement with Patel and other Congress leaders permitting the protestors to conduct their march unhindered and obtaining the release of all those arrested.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/flag-satyagraha/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- What is Flag Satyagraha?
- The Flag Satyagraha movement by the freedom fighters shook the British government and it infused a new life into the freedom movement.
- Also called the Jhanda Satyagraha, it was held in Jabalpur and Nagpur in 1923.
- The news of flag hoisting in Jabalpur spread like fire in the country and after flags were hoisted at several places across the country.
- Significance:
- It is a campaign of peaceful civil disobedience that focused on exercising the right and freedom to hoist the nationalist flag and challenge the legitimacy of the British Rule in India through the defiance of laws prohibiting the hoisting of nationalist flags and restricting civil freedoms.
- Outcomes:
- The arrest of nationalist protestors demanding the right to hoist the flag caused an outcry across India especially as Gandhi had recently been arrested.
- Nationalist leaders such as Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Jamnalal Bajaj, Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari, Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Vinoba Bhave organised the revolt and thousands of people from different regions traveled to Nagpur and other parts of the Central Provinces to participate in civil disobedience.
- In the end, the British negotiated an agreement with Patel and other Congress leaders permitting the protestors to conduct their march unhindered and obtaining the release of all those arrested.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/flag-satyagraha/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- In the Indian judicial system, there are no definite rules on recusals by Judges.
- Judicial disqualification is the act of abstaining from participation in an official action due to a conflict of interest of the administrative officer.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: Judicial disqualification, referred to as recusal, is the act of abstaining from participation in an official action such as a legal proceeding due to a conflict of interest of the presiding court official or administrative officer.
- S1: There are no definite rules on recusals by Judges. However, in taking oath of office, judges, both of the Supreme Court and of the high courts, promise to perform their duties, to deliver justice, “without fear or favour, affection or ill-will”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/recusal-of-judges-3/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: Judicial disqualification, referred to as recusal, is the act of abstaining from participation in an official action such as a legal proceeding due to a conflict of interest of the presiding court official or administrative officer.
- S1: There are no definite rules on recusals by Judges. However, in taking oath of office, judges, both of the Supreme Court and of the high courts, promise to perform their duties, to deliver justice, “without fear or favour, affection or ill-will”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/recusal-of-judges-3/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- An election petition can be filed either by a candidate or a voter in the concerned constituency of the State.
- An Election Petition has to be filed within 45 days from the declaration of the results of the State Assembly elections.
- Election petition can be filed in the High Court of the State to which the State Assembly elections pertain.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: An election petition can be filed either by a candidate or a voter in the concerned constituency of the State. Other than these persons, no one can approach a High Court with an election petition. Voter is a person who was entitled to vote at the election to which the election petition relates. Whether he has voted at such election or not is immaterial. (Sec 81(1) explanation of RPA)
- S2: An Election Petition has to be filed within 45 days from the declaration of the results of the State Assembly elections.
- S3: Election petition can be filed in the High Court of the State to which the State Assembly elections pertain. (80A RPA)
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: An election petition can be filed either by a candidate or a voter in the concerned constituency of the State. Other than these persons, no one can approach a High Court with an election petition. Voter is a person who was entitled to vote at the election to which the election petition relates. Whether he has voted at such election or not is immaterial. (Sec 81(1) explanation of RPA)
- S2: An Election Petition has to be filed within 45 days from the declaration of the results of the State Assembly elections.
- S3: Election petition can be filed in the High Court of the State to which the State Assembly elections pertain. (80A RPA)
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsThe Returning Officers for the State Assembly Elections are appointed by the:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- A Returning Officer is responsible for overseeing the election in a constituency, or sometimes in two constituencies, as directed by the Election Commission (EC).
- The EC appoints the Returning Officer and Assistant Returning Officer for a constituency in consultation with the governments of the State or Union Territory as the case may be.
- The Returning Officer’s duties include accepting and scrutinising nomination forms, publishing the affidavits of candidates, allotting symbols to the contesting candidates, preparing the list of contesting candidates, preparing the EVMs and VVPATs, training polling personnel, designating counting centres, and counting the votes and declaring the result.
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- A Returning Officer is responsible for overseeing the election in a constituency, or sometimes in two constituencies, as directed by the Election Commission (EC).
- The EC appoints the Returning Officer and Assistant Returning Officer for a constituency in consultation with the governments of the State or Union Territory as the case may be.
- The Returning Officer’s duties include accepting and scrutinising nomination forms, publishing the affidavits of candidates, allotting symbols to the contesting candidates, preparing the list of contesting candidates, preparing the EVMs and VVPATs, training polling personnel, designating counting centres, and counting the votes and declaring the result.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Ordnance Factory Board (OFB):
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- It is currently a subordinate office of the Ministry of Defence (MoD).
- Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved a plan to corporatize the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB).
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Union Cabinet has approved a plan to corporatize the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB).
- Ordnance Factory Board (OFB):
- It is an umbrella body for the ordnance factories and related institutions, and is currently a subordinate office of the Ministry of Defence (MoD).
- The first Indian ordnance factory was set up in the year 1712 by the Dutch Company as a GunPowder Factory, West Bengal.
- OFBs will be responsible for different verticals of the products such as the Ammunition and Explosives group will be engaged in production of ammunition while a Vehicles group will engage in production of defence mobility and combat vehicles.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/corporatization-of-ordnance-factory-board/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Union Cabinet has approved a plan to corporatize the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB).
- Ordnance Factory Board (OFB):
- It is an umbrella body for the ordnance factories and related institutions, and is currently a subordinate office of the Ministry of Defence (MoD).
- The first Indian ordnance factory was set up in the year 1712 by the Dutch Company as a GunPowder Factory, West Bengal.
- OFBs will be responsible for different verticals of the products such as the Ammunition and Explosives group will be engaged in production of ammunition while a Vehicles group will engage in production of defence mobility and combat vehicles.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/corporatization-of-ordnance-factory-board/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 points“Children and Digital Dumpsites” is released by which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The new report, titled Children and Digital Dumpsites, was recently released by the WHO.
- Key findings:
- More than 18 million children and adolescents working at e-waste dumpsites in low- and middle-income countries are potentially at the risk of severe health hazards.
- They face risk due to discarded electronic devices or e-waste being dumped from high-income countries.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/children-and-digital-dumpsites-report/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The new report, titled Children and Digital Dumpsites, was recently released by the WHO.
- Key findings:
- More than 18 million children and adolescents working at e-waste dumpsites in low- and middle-income countries are potentially at the risk of severe health hazards.
- They face risk due to discarded electronic devices or e-waste being dumped from high-income countries.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/children-and-digital-dumpsites-report/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsIn India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 recognises producers’ liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country.
- Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility – financial and/or physical – for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products.
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been given the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) authorisation under the new e-waste rules
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/children-and-digital-dumpsites-report/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 recognises producers’ liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country.
- Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility – financial and/or physical – for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products.
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been given the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) authorisation under the new e-waste rules
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/children-and-digital-dumpsites-report/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019, which of the following states are showing mangrove cover increase as compared to the previous assessment of 2017?
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- Gujarat
- Maharashtra
- Odisha
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Mangrove ecosystems are unique & rich in biodiversity and they provide numerous ecological services.
- Mangrove cover has been separately reported in the ISFR 2019 and the total mangrove cover in the country is 4,975 sq km.
- An increase of 54 sq Km in mangrove cover has been observed as compared to the previous assessment of 2017.
- Top three states showing mangrove cover increase are Gujarat (37 sq km) followed by Maharashtra (16 sq km) and Odisha (8 sq km).4
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Mangrove ecosystems are unique & rich in biodiversity and they provide numerous ecological services.
- Mangrove cover has been separately reported in the ISFR 2019 and the total mangrove cover in the country is 4,975 sq km.
- An increase of 54 sq Km in mangrove cover has been observed as compared to the previous assessment of 2017.
- Top three states showing mangrove cover increase are Gujarat (37 sq km) followed by Maharashtra (16 sq km) and Odisha (8 sq km).4
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Quality Council of India:
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- It was set up as an autonomous body attached to the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It is headed by the Minister of Commerce and Industry of India.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up as an autonomous body attached to the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- S2: Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on recommendation of the industry to the government.
- Indian Certification of Medical Devices (ICMED) Plus Scheme:
- Launched by Quality Council of India (QCI).
- This is an upgraded ICMED Scheme that was launched for Certification of Medical Devices in 2016.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-june-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up as an autonomous body attached to the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- S2: Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on recommendation of the industry to the government.
- Indian Certification of Medical Devices (ICMED) Plus Scheme:
- Launched by Quality Council of India (QCI).
- This is an upgraded ICMED Scheme that was launched for Certification of Medical Devices in 2016.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-june-2021/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Bab-el-Mandeb strait connects the Gulf of Aden with the Red Sea.
- The Gulf of Aden offers the only entrance from the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean into the Persian Gulf.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Bab-el-Mandeb strait connects the Gulf of Aden with the Red Sea.
- S2: The Gulf of Aden is a gulf amidst Yemen to the north,the Arabian Sea and Guardafui Channel to the east, Somalia to the south, and Djibouti to the west.
- S3: The Gulf of Oman offers the only entrance from the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean into the Persian Gulf.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-june-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Bab-el-Mandeb strait connects the Gulf of Aden with the Red Sea.
- S2: The Gulf of Aden is a gulf amidst Yemen to the north,the Arabian Sea and Guardafui Channel to the east, Somalia to the south, and Djibouti to the west.
- S3: The Gulf of Oman offers the only entrance from the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean into the Persian Gulf.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/06/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-june-2021/
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