Answer: A

Justification: S1: The space segment consists of the IRNSS constellation of eight satellites, NavIC. Three satellites are located in suitable orbital slots in the geostationary orbit and the remaining four are located in geosynchronous orbits with the required inclination and equatorial crossings in two different planes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

S2: It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

S3: There are long term plans to extend it to SAARC region, but not by 2019. There are plans to add 4 more satellites to the present constellation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: https://www.isro.gov.in/irnss-programme

Answer: D

Justification: S1: Einstein’s theory of relativity has important astrophysical implications. For example, it implies the existence of black holes—regions of space in which space and time are distorted in such a way that nothing, not even light, can escape

—as an end-state for massive stars.

There is ample evidence that the intense radiation emitted by certain kinds of astronomical objects is due to black holes; for example, micro quasars and active galactic nuclei result from the presence of stellar black holes and super massive black holes, respectively.

The bending of light by gravity can lead to the phenomenon of gravitational lensing, in which multiple images of the same distant astronomical object are visible in the sky. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

S2: General relativity also predicts the existence of gravitational waves, which have since been observed directly by the physics collaboration LIGO. In addition, general relativity is the basis of current cosmological models of a consistently expanding universe. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

S3: General relativity is Einstein’s law of gravity, his Justification of that fundamental force which holds us to the surface of the Earth. Gravity, Einstein asserted, is caused by warping of space and time or space-time. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_relativity

http://www.einstein-online.info/spotlights/light_deflection.html

https://www.its.caltech.edu/~kip/index.html/PubScans/VI-47.pdf

Answer: B

Justification: S1: It is developed by using three genes viz., barnase, barstar and bar from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens for hybrid seed production.

The barnase gene confers male sterility to a plant in which it is inserted and barstar gene restore the fertility to produce fertile hybrid plants and seeds.

The third gene bar synthesize an enzyme call PAT, which is responsible for tolerance to glufosinate in the plant. Glufosinate is a broad spectrum herbicide, which indiscriminately eliminates weeds and any plant that does not have the bar gene.

Glufosinate herbicides contain the active ingredient phosphinothricin, which kills plants by blocking the enzyme responsible for nitrogen metabolism and for detoxifying ammonia, a by-product of plant metabolism.

S2: It has mainly two genes (‘barnase’ and ‘barstar’) that allow for cross-pollination and hybridisation in mustard, which is largely a self-pollinating plant because of its individual flowers containing both female and male reproductive organs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

S3: GM mustard was developed by scientists at Delhi University and the project was part- funded by the Department of Biotechnology, a division of the Science Ministry.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/nod-for-gm-mustard- unlikely-soon/article19724129.ece

http://www.moef.gov.in/sites/default/files/Safety%20assessment%20report%20on%20 GE%20Mustard_0.pdf

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/25/insights-daily-current-affairs-25-october- 2017/

Answer: B

Justification: S1: The Belle II experiment is designed to record data at Super KEKB, a 3 km circumference asymmetric electron-positron collider with a performance similar or better than Belle or BaBar, the B factory detectors, in a much more severe beam background environment.

Belle-2 experiment in Tsukuba, Japan, by The High Energy Accelerator Research Organisation (KEK) is designedto study violations of the Standard Model of particle physics.

S2: A block chain is a digitized, decentralized, public ledger of all crypto

currency transactions. Constantly growing as ‘completed’ blocks (the most recent transactions) are recorded and added to it in chronological order, it allows market participants to keep track of digital currency transactions without central recordkeeping. Each node (a computer connected to the network) gets a copy of the block chain, which is downloaded automatically.

S3: CRISPR technology is a simple yet powerful tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function. Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops. However, its promise also raises ethical concerns.

Source: https://www.belle2.org/

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/b/blockchain.asp

https://www.livescience.com/58790-crispr-explained.html

Answer: A

Justification: The carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants. The effect varies depending on the plant species, the temperature, and the availability of water and nutrients.

From a quarter to half of Earth’s vegetated lands has shown significant greening over the last 35 years largely due to rising levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

Source: http://environmentalresearchweb.org/cws/article/news/543.47

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CO2_fertilization_effect

Answer: B

Justification: The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to a network comprised of physical objects capable of gathering and sharing electronic information. The Internet of Things includes a wide variety of “smart” devices, from industrial machines that transmit data about the production process to sensors that track information about the human body.

Often, these devices use internet protocol (IP), the same protocol that identifies computers over the World Wide Web and allows them to communicate with one another.

The goal behind the internet of things is to have devices that self-report in real time, improving efficiency and bringing important information to the surface more quickly than a system depending on human intervention.

Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/i/internet-things.asp#ixzz5HdMkuick

Why this question was asked this year?

GOI has come out with its IOT policy .It has decided to harness IOT in transforming India through smart cities, etc.

Answer: D

Justification: S1:  Not a single silicon chip for solar energy is manufactured in India. Every solar panel which is made in India is assembled while all the material comes from China, Europe and some other countries. India is yet to develop semiconductor clusters.

S2: CERC determines solar power tariffs and regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government.

SECI has a power-trading license, but it does not set solar power tariffs.

Why this question was asked?

India plans to invest $480 million to set up its first unit for manufacturing solar silicon cells that will feed a project to build the world’s largest solar power plant.

https://www.wsj.com/articles/india-plans-first-solar-silicon-cell-unit-1391059953

Answer: D

Justification: The East India Company was originally formed in Britain for pursuing trade with the East Indies in Southeast Asia. In fact, it ended up trading mainly with the Indian subcontinent and China, where the main items of trade were cotton, silk, tea, opium, and saltpetre (potassium nitrate).

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/East_India_Company

Answer: C

Justification: Known as India’s first civil disobedience movement, it was launched by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar.

It is widely regarded as the place where Gandhi made his first experiments in satyagraha and then replicated them elsewhere.

Why?

To commemorate the anniversary of the Champaran Satyagraha movement, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited East Champaran in the Month of March, 2018 where he addressed over 20,000 swachhagrahis from across the country engaged in creating awareness among people to construct toilets and avoid defecation in open.

Source:

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/04/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-10-april- 2018/

Answer: D

Justification: The HMS was founded in Howrah in 1948 by socialists Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists which included Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam,

V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary.

HMS absorbed the Royist Indian Federation of Labour and the Hind Mazdoor Panchayat, which was formed in 1948 by socialists leaving the increasingly communist dominated AITUC.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hind_Mazdoor_Sabha

Answer: B

Justification: Sthānakavāsī is a sect of Śvētāmbara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha.

The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth- century Jain reformer. Sthānakavāsins accept thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, the Śvētāmbara canon. Śvētāmbarins who are not Sthānakavāsins are mostly part the Murtipujaka sect

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sth%C4%81nakav%C4%81s%C4%AB

Answer: D

Justification: S1: The Buland Darwaza is made of red and buff sandstone, decorated by white and black marble and is higher than the courtyard of the mosque. The Buland Darwaza is symmetrical and is topped by large free standing kiosks, which are

the chhatris.

S2: The architectural style of the Rumi Darwaza is completely in sync with the Nawabi architecture of Lucknow, and its significantly different from the Mughals. The material used for the darwaza is bricks and its then coated with lime, while the Mughals often used red sand stone. This is why the detailing on the Darwaza is more intricate, which would be impossible to achieve in stone.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bara_Imambara

Answer: B

Justification: Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605 – 1689) was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveller Tavernier, a private individual and merchant traveling at his own expense, covered, by his own account, 60,000 leagues (120,000 miles in making six voyages to Persia and India between the years 1630 and 1668.

Tavernier is best known for his discovery or purchase of the 116-carat Tavernier Blue diamond, in 1666. The diamond was certainly Indian in origin and likely sourced by Tavernier in 1666[4] at the Kollur mine in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh.

Tavernier sold it to Louis XIV of France.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jean-Baptiste_Tavernier

Answer: C

Justification: Maitreya is regarded as a future Buddha of this world in Buddhist eschatology. In some Buddhist literature, such as the Amitabha Sutra and the Lotus Sutra, he is referred to as Ajita.

According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma.

According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor to the present Buddha, Gautama Buddha (also known as Śākyamuni Buddha).

The prophecy of the arrival of Maitreya refers to a time in the future when the dharma will have been forgotten by most on the terrestrial world Maitreya has also been adopted for his millenarian role by many non-Buddhist religions in the past, such as the White Lotus, as well as by modern new religious movements, such as Yiguandao

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maitreya

Answer: C

Justification: The French assistance to Tipu Sultan in 1798 was the last instance of active intervention of any other European power in India. To counter the intrigues of Napoleon and any further development in French Power in India, Wellesley, who was extremely influenced with the imperial thoughts, came up with the scheme of eliminating the French Power from India for ever.

He placed the British on the head of the great Indian confederacy. The Fourth Anglo Mysore war had placed England on the Military supremacy in India and now Wellesley used the Subsidiary Alliance System aggressively.

It was a Treaty, between the company and the Indian native rulers. In return for a payment or subsidy, the company would place garrison troops in that ruler’s territory to fight against their rivals.

An Indian ruler entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British would accept British forces within his territory and to pay for their maintenance.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subsidiary_alliance

https://www.gktoday.in/gk/subsidiary-alliance-system/

Answer: B

Statement 1: It is wrong because the Communist Party of India (CPI) was the single largest opposition party in the First general Election. CPI won in 16 seats.

Statement 3: It is wrong because in order to the receive the status of opposition party and Consequent Leader of Opposition Tag a party should secure 10% of the total strength of the House 1.e. 55 seats in the Lok Sabha. This is as per the Mavalakar Rule.

Why asked?

LOP is in news in relation to appointment of Lokpal and other bodies.

Answer: D

Justification: Structural adaptations are important to plant’s survival in the desert. Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss through evaporation, which in the hot desert can cause loss of water from both the surface and the inside of leaves. Leaves are also smaller on desert plants, further reducing the possibility for water loss.

They have hard, thick coatings and some are covered in prickly spines to prevent water loss and to protect them from animals who might try to chew through them to get to their moisture. Hence all the statements are correct.

Answer: C

Justification: The results of the survey are based on the Central Sample canvassed by NSSO, consisting of 4,529 villages spread over rural areas of all States and Union Territories. A total number of 35,200 households were surveyed in first visit and 34,907 of them could be re-surveyed in second visit. Some salient findings of the survey regarding situation of agricultural households in the country are as follows:

1. Number of Agricultural households

During the agricultural year July 2012- June 2013. Rural India had an estimated total of 90.2 million agricultural households, which constituted about 57.8 percent of the total estimated rural households of the country during the same period

Uttar Pradesh, with an estimate of 18.05 million agricultural households, accounted for about 20 percent of all agricultural households in the country.

S1: Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households and Kerala had the least percentage share of agricultural households (27.3. percent) in its rural households.

Statement 1 is correct.

S2:Out of the total estimated agricultural households in the country, about 45 percent belonged to Other Backward Classes. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

1. 1. Source of Income of Agricultural households

Principal source of income of agricultural households is largely determined by the extent of land possession.

Majority of the agricultural households which possessed more than 0.40 hectare land, reported cultivation as their principal source of income.

Among the agricultural households having less than 0.01 hectare land, about 56 percent reported wage/salary employment as their principal source of income and another 23. Percent reported livestock as their principal source of income.

S3: Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for majority of the agricultural households in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. So, statement 3 is correct.

Source: NSSO 70th Round Report ‘Key Indicators of Situation of Agricultural Households in India

Answer: B

Justification: The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.

The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. Source: http://envfor.nic.in/rules-regulations/national-green-tribunal-ngt

http://cpcb.nic.in/Introduction/

Answer: A

Statement 1: Once a law is enacted and included in the Ninth Schedule, it gets protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is not subject to judicial scrutiny.

The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review.

Statement 2: The mandate of ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but in a landmark ruling in IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court judgment laid that the laws placed under Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973. Shall be open to challenge in court if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14, 19, 20 and 21 of the Constitution

Why this has been asked?

The government is planning to bring an ordinance to overturn the Supreme Court verdict putting safeguards on arrests under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act and subsequently introduce a bill to insulate it from further judicial scrutiny.

Answer: C

Justification: MDR is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers through credit and debit cards in their establishments. MDR compensates the card issuing bank, the lender which puts the PoS terminal and payment gateways such as MasterCard or Visa for their services.

MDR charges are usually shared in pre-agreed proportion between the bank and a merchant and is expressed in percentage of transaction amount.

Answer: A

Justification: S1 and S2: The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of Guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear- related exports. But becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’ will NOT automatically make a country a member of “The Treaty on the Non- Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).

The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a multilateral export control regime and a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons.

Membership of the NSG enables access to technology for a range of uses from medicine to building nuclear power plants for India from the NSG which is essentially a traders’ cartel.

Source: http://www.nuclearsuppliersgroup.org/en/

Answer: D

Justification: Statement 1: It is incorrect. Equalisation Levy is a tax on business transaction for online marketing in which any Indian pays a sum of more than Rs.1 lakh to non-residents entities such Google and Facebook etc. It is part of the Finance act.

Statement 2: It is incorrect. Since Equalisation Levy is outside the scope of tax treaties entered into by India with other countries, the foreign company cannot claim a tax credit in its home country.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/03/09/insights-daily-current-affairs-09-march- 2017/

Answer: C

Justification: S1: FRBM review panel had recommended the criterion of debt as a parameter for fiscal responsibility the central share being 40% and state 20%. Also, in terms of domestic liabilities the figures are actually reverse i:e central government 49% and state 21%.

S3: Art. 293. (3.) A State may not without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government https://www.livemint.com/Politics/rACgsBE9cMFYEbZksaDanK/Govt-may-delay- implementation-of-NK-Singhs-FRBM-report.html

Answer: A

Justification: Statement 1: India imports about 14-15 million tonnes of edible oil annually to meet domestic demand. At present, the import duty on crude soybean oil is

3.0 per cent, crude sunflower oil 25 per cent and crude rapeseed oil 25 per cent.

According to ICRA, India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry with contribution of around 10% in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils (extracted from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic production, leading to dependence on imports (60% of requirement).In FY2016 India’s total edible oil demand stood at 24 mn tonnes out of which 9 mn tonnes was met from domestic production and 15 mn tonnes met from imports.

Statement 2:  Import duty on crude edible vegetable oils like groundnut oil, olive oil, cotton seed oil, safflower seed oil, saffola oil, coconut oil, palm kernel/babassu oil, linseed oil, maize corn oil, castor oil, sesame oil, other fixed vegetable fats and oils has been raised from 12.5 per cent to 30 per cent.

Similarly, import duty on these refined edible vegetable oils has been raised from 20 per cent to 35 per cent, according to the Budget 2018 document.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/12/secure-synopsis-06-november-2017/

Answer: C

Justification: Lajpat Rai adopted Mazzini as his own guru after reading Surendranath’s Speeches. In 1896, he wrote a series of books in Urdu, which he named the ‘Great Men of the World’. The first great man he chose was his Italian guru Giuseppe Mazzini, and then Garibaldi, along with Sivaji, Dayananda and Sri Krishna.

His purpose in selecting Mazzini and Garibladi was to infuse patriotic sentiment in the youth of Punjab, who had no access to books in English.

Source: https://pibindia.wordpress.com/2016/08/11/lala-lajpat-rai/

http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/74210/14/14_chapter%205.pdf

Answer: D

Justification: Statement 1 is wrong because as per Calcutta HC decision Aadhar Card is not a proof of citizenship.

Statement 2 is wrong because UIDAI’s update policy version 2.3 (available on the official website uidai.gov.in) has provisions for deactivation of Aadhaar, which are given below:

If within 2 years of attaining age 5, the child’s biometrics are not updated in Aadhaar database, his/her Aadhaar number will be deactivated (no authentication permissible). It will be reactivated once biometrics are updated in database.

If within 2 years of attaining age 15, the child’s biometrics are not updated in Aadhaar database, his/her Aadhaar number will be deactivated (no authentication permissible). It will be reactivated once biometrics are updated in database.

If Resident has not biometrically authenticated in 5 years, his/her One Time Password (OTP) based authentication services will be deactivated. They will be re- activated once the resident biometrically authenticates.

Answer: A

Justification: S1: The Aral Sea is a saline lake located in Central Asia that was once the world’s fourth largest salt lake. In the 1960s the Aral Sea, which was the drainage basin for Kyrgyzstan, Turkmenistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Kazakhstan, began to shrink as the Soviet Union began to divert water for agricultural purposes. The Aral Sea, which was once 26,300 square miles in size had decreased in size by 2007 to only 10% of its original area.

Lake Baikal hasn’t shrunk immensely yet. Certainly its water is shrinking. But, it’s not ‘immense’ like Aral Sea. If one has to go for two options, the intensity of shrinkage should be either equal or comparable. Case of Aral Sea is extreme and Lake Baikal’s present condition, which is better, is no comparison to Aral Sea’s fate.

https://www.theguardian.com/world/2017/oct/19/lake-baikal-russia-crippled-algae- fish-poaching-pollution

Answer: D

Justification: The World Justice Project (WJP) is an American independent, multidisciplinary organization with the stated mission of “working to advance the rule of law around the world”. It brings rule of law index.

The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index is a quantitative assessment tool designed to offer a detailed and comprehensive picture of the extent to which countries adhere to the rule of law in practice.

The Index provides data on eight dimensions of the rule of law: limited government powers; absence of corruption; order and security; fundamental rights; open government; regulatory enforcement; civil justice; and criminal justice.

These factors are further disaggregated into forty-four indicators. Together, they provide a comprehensive picture of rule of law compliance. The index is typically published annually.

Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/03/06/4-world-justice-projects-rule- law-index-2017-18-report-measures-extent-113-countries-adhered-rule-law-period- survey-found-71/

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/01/30/insights-editorial-red-alert-green-index/

Answer: C

Justification: National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking.

National Financial Switch (NFS) ATM network having 3.7 members and connecting about 50,000 ATMs was taken over by NPCI from Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) on December 14, 2009.

Answer: B

Justification: Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. The national currency is legal tender in practically every country. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt.

Option C: Checques are not legal tenders since they can be refused as a mode of payment settlement by a party.

Answer: C

Justification: Opportunity cost represents the benefits an individual, investor or business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.

When you have the opportunity to access public services for free, this would always come at a cost of somebody paying for it. In this case, the tax payer bears the opportunity cost.

Answer: C

Economic growth does not necessarily connote economic development which is a holistic concept representing the well-being of the population rather than only increased income.

As the question clearly mentions effects on development, we must take into account impact of poverty and unemployment of economic growth despite having good parameters of progress in growth, per capita income etc.

• Answer: C

  Justification: Statement 1: This is Gross Capital Formation (GCF) representing physical capital.

  Statement 2: According to the OECD, human capital is defined as: “the knowledge, skills, competencies and other attributes embodied in individuals or groups of individuals acquired during their life and used to produce goods, services or ideas in market circumstances”.

  Statement 3: Tangible capital is also GCF is it involves largely infrastructural components.

  Statement 4: Intangible wealth of a nation is comprised of the skilled population, human resource base, culture, arts etc.

Answer: D

Justification: Option D: Capital-output ratio (COR) basically indicates the amount of capital required to produce one unit of output.

For e.g. if 5 units of capital (machinery) is used to produce only 1 unit of cloth instead of the ideal requirement of only 2 units of capital (machinery) then we can say that the production is inefficient.

If COR is high, despite saving high and generating enough capital, our output may not grow significantly because the COR is high. This may be a result of poor technology or poor management.

It is also represented by the famous economic model called as Harod-Domar Model where G x c = S

Here G = Growth, C= ICOR or incremental capital output ration and S= Savings

So, clearly with high savings growth or output may remain low because of high capital- output ratio

Answer: C

Justification: S1: Due to the immense force of the uprising, the British government became more cautious about the needs of the tribals the Santhal inhabited areas were constituted into a separate administrative unit, called the Santhal Parganas, which recognised the distinctiveness of their tribal culture and identity.

S2: Also, it led the British government to enact laws so that the land of tribals could not be taken by outsiders (dikus).

Source: 8^th NCERT History

Answer: C

Justification: Option C: A major impact of British rule was the dictated growth of commercial crops like tea and indigo to fulfil the needs of European markets.

Option D: Colonial rule negatively affected Indian industries and handicrafts, hence Indian owned factories and handicrafts were on decline. Consequently there were new cities coming up called the presidency towns along with de-urbanization phenomenon (machalipatnam lost its importance). There was no rapid increase in urban population.

Answer: B

Justification: Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State

• If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
  • Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;

Answer: A

Justification: Puthukkuli shawls – Tamil Nadu; Sujni embroider – Bihar; Uppada jamdani sarees – Andhra Pradesh.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/features/magazine/exquisite- expensive/article4605547.ece

https://www.utsavpedia.com/motifs-embroideries/sujani-embroidery/

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uppada_Jamdani_Sari

Answer: D

Justification: There is an enormous, invisible clock that keeps ultra-precise time, can be checked from anywhere on earth, and is free for everyone to use. This technological gift to mankind was built by the US government. It is called the Global Positioning System (GPS). Cell towers use it to route your phone calls, ATMs and cash registers use it for your transactions, electrical grids use it to send power to your house, and stock exchanges use it to regulate the trades that go into your stock portfolio or investment fund. And it is far more vulnerable to attack and disruption than most people know or are willing to admit.

Source: https://qz.com/1106064/the-entire-global-financial-system-depends-on-gps- and-its-shockingly-vulnerableto-attack/

Answer: C

Justification: A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation. Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).

S1: G-Secs are issued through auctions conducted by RBI.

Floatation of State Government Loans (State Development Loans): As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the RBI may, by agreement with any State Government undertake the management of the public debt of that State. I

Accordingly, the RBI has entered into agreements with 29 State Governments and one Union Territory (UT of Puducherry) for management of their public debt.

S2: In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs). Treasury Bills (T-bills) Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 3.64 day.

S3: Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.

For example, a 91 day Treasury bill of 100/- (face value) may be issued at say 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, 1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of  100/-.

Answer: C

Justification: S1: A change in the Earth’s magnetic field resulting in the magnetic north being aligned with the geographic south, and the magnetic south being aligned with the geographic north is called as geomagnetic reversal. Complete magnetic reversals have happened every 200,000 to 300,000 years over the past 20 million years. But that regularity hasn’t continued, as the last known reversal occurred roughly 780,000 years ago.

S2: Between 4.5 and 2.5 billion years (the Archaean and Proterozoic time), the earliest atmosphere contained carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), water vapour (H2O), carbon monoxide (CO), a little nitrogen (N), and hydrogen (H).

S3 is correct as per UPSC official answer key: Early atmosphere of earth was modified by solar winds. This happened not only in case of the earth, but also in all the terrestrial planets, which were supposed to have lost their primordial atmosphere through the impact of solar winds

The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years back…. (then) About 2000 million years ago the first cellular forms of life appeared on earth. Early atmosphere of earth had no free oxygen, the (life) forms until then could at best be only “anaerobic”.

For several eons prior to the evolution of cyanobacteria, during the Archean eon, more primitive microbes lived anaerobically, without utilizing oxygen. These ancient organisms—and their “extremophile” descendants today—thrived in the absence of oxygen, relying on sulfate for their energy needs.

Life started to have a major impact on the environment ONLY once cyanobacteria or photosynthetic organisms evolved. These organisms, blue-green algae, fed off atmospheric carbon dioxide and converted much of it into marine sediments consisting of the shells of sea creatures.

Oxygen was first produced somewhere around 2.7 billion to 2.8 billon years ago. The early atmosphere is much older than that (between 4.5 billion years ago to 2.5 billion years ago). Hence, S3 is INCORRECT.

Source: https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/origin-of-oxygen-in-atmosphere/

http://www.bbc.co.uk/schools/gcsebitesize/science/aqa/earth/earthsatmosphererev5.sht ml

NCERT Class 11th Physical Geography, Chapter 2, Page 17

Answer: C

Source: https://www.theguardian.com/technology/2017/dec/3.0/wannacry-petya- notpetya-ransomware

Answer: C

Justification: Conservation agriculture (CA) can be defined by a statement given by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations as “a concept for resource-

saving agricultural crop production that strives to achieve acceptable profits together with high and sustained production levels while concurrently conserving the environment”

The 3 principles of CA are:

Minimum tillage and soil disturbance

Permanent soil cover with crop residues and live mulches Crop rotation and intercropping

Source: http://www.fao.org/emergencies/fao-in-action/stories/stories- detail/en/c/216752/

Answer: D

Justification: The Holocene extinction, otherwise referred to as the Sixth

extinction or Anthropocene extinction, is the ongoing extinction event of species during the present Holocene epoch, mainly as a result of human activity.

The large number of extinctions spans numerous families of plants and animals, including mammals, birds, amphibians, reptiles and arthropods.

With widespread degradation of highly bio-diverse habitats such as coral

reefs and rainforests, as well as other areas, the vast majority of these extinctions is thought to be undocumented, as we are either not even aware of the existence of the species before they go extinct, or we haven’t yet discovered their extinction.

The current rate of extinction of species is estimated at 100 to 1,000 times higher than natural background rates.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holocene_extinction#Overexploitation

https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/03/Insights-PT-2018- Exclusive-Environment-1.pdf

Answer: D

Justification: S1: The Charter Act of 1813 is regarded as the foundation stone of English Education System in India.

When the East India Company came to India they did not allow the missionaries for the propagation of the religious education to the common people in India. Because they felt that the education from the missionaries would encourage the religious sentiments among the people in India that could affected the business policy and the diplomatic role of the East India Company. Therefore, from 1793 to 1813 the company did not permit the missionaries to work for the Indian people.

But, the Charter Act of 1813 permitted Christian missionaries to propagate English and preach their religion.

It was also a landmark in that it was 1^st official move on education in India by British where a dedicated grant for education was provided.

The Act also created a controversy between the anglicist and classicist on the medium of instruction.

S2 and S3: In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education. That committee consisted of 10 European members of which Lord Macaulay was the president. The committee decided to spend major portions from the grant for the improvement of oriental literature.

Even, the General Committee of Public Instruction also was not able to decide the medium of instruction by vote; because out of ten members, five were supporters of English language or Anglicist as the medium of instruction and the rest were supporters of oriental or classic language or Classicists as a medium of instruction. This is the famous Anglicist and Classicists controversy.

As a president of General Committee of Public Instruction, Lord Macaulay wrote a minute on 2nd February 1835, where he made the conclusion regarding the controversy. Lord Macaulay stressed the implementation of the English language as a medium of instruction through his minute. According to him, English was the best medium of instruction.

Source: http://m.kkhsou.in/EBIDYA/EDUCATION/MODIFY_charter_act.html

http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/507/8/08_chapter2.pdf

http://home.iitk.ac.in/~amman/soc748/basu_origins_of_indian_education_system.pdf

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charter_Act_of_1813

Answer: A

Justification: Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Kodaikanal Lake is in the Palni Hills.

It is starfish-shaped but with four points, centrally located in the town of Kodaikanal and is surrounded by lush green hills of the Northwestern Palani Hills.

Answer: C

Justification: Statement 1 is incorrect: Pradhan MantriKaushalVikasYojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).

Key Components of the Scheme:

The Short Term Training imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TCs) is expected to benefit candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed. Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy. Duration of the training varies per job role, ranging between 150 and 3.00 hours.

Recognition of Prior Learning Individuals with prior learning experience or skills shall be assessed and certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component of the Scheme. RPL aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the NSQF.

Answer: A

Justification: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Home_Rule_movement

Answer: B

Justification:

Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj-1875 Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan=1858-1859 Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath-1882 Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination -1863

Answer: B

Justification:

• The removal of sand from the river bed increases the velocity of the flowing water, with the distorted flow-regime eventually eroding the river banks.
• Sand acts like a sponge, which helps in recharging the water table; its progressive depletion in the river is accompanied by declining water tables in the nearby areas.
• Depletion of sand in the stream bed causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It leads to saline-water intrusion.
• Sand miningtransforms the riverbeds into large and deep pits; as a result, the groundwater table drops leaving the drinking water wells on the embankments of these rivers dry.

Answer: B

Justification:

S1: Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water that a given soil can hold for crop use. Soil texture and organic matter are the key components that determine soil water holding capacity. Organic matter influences the physical conditions of a soil in several ways. Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect the soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, thereby enhancing rainwater infiltration and reducing runoff. Each 1 percent increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre.

S2: Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The Sulphur cycle describes the movement of Sulphur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things. Although Sulphur is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, it is particularly important to living things because it is a component of many proteins

S3: Salinization is a major problem associated with irrigation, because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach levels that are harmful to crops. Hence statement 3 is correct

Answer: B

Justification:

• In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil. The conference’s outcome document entitled ‘The Future We Want’ was a call to action for governments, business and the UN alike to support countries interested in transition to a green economy. PAGE was created as the UN’s direct response to this call of action.
• Four UN organizations, including ILO, UN Environment, UNIDO and UNITAR initially joined forces to be able to provide countries with broad and tailored support.

Answer: D

Justification:

• S1: 3D printing is being used across a range of industries, from construction to medical technology. Its use in the food industry continues to grow. 3D printing of confectionery has focused primarily on chocolate and hard sugar candy; but recent innovations have led to printing of gummy candy. (Reference: http://www.mintel.com/blog/food-market-news/whats-next-in-3d-sugar-confectionery- printing)
• S2: Bionic ears have been developed by some agencies, recently in news.
• S3: It is quite logical as constructing solid parts was one of the first uses of 3D printing.
• S4: People can now receive custom 3D-printed facial implants to help after illness or (Reference: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/28639959and here https://www.odtmag.com/contents/view_videos/2017-07-28/3d-printing-is-revolutionizing-facial-reconstructive-surgery/48616)
• S5: Multi-material voxel-printing method that enables the physical visualization of data sets commonly associated with scientific imaging.
• It enables additive manufacturing of discontinuous data types such as point cloud data, curve and graph data, image-based data, and volumetric data.
• By converting data sets into dithered material deposition descriptions, through modifications to rasterization processes, we demonstrate that data sets frequently visualized on screen can be converted into physical, materially heterogeneous objects.
• It alleviates the need to post-process data sets to boundary representations, preventing alteration of data and loss of information in the produced physicalizations.
• Therefore, it bridges the gap between digital information representation and physical material composition.

(Reference: http://advances.sciencemag.org/content/4/5/eaas8652.full)

Answer: A

Justification:

Barren Island, a possession of India in the Andaman Sea about 140 km NE of Port Blair in the Andaman Islands, is the only historically active volcano along the N-S-trending volcanic arc extending between Sumatra and Burma (Myanmar). The 354- m-high island is the emergent summit of a volcano that rises from a depth of about 2250 m.

The Barren Island volcano, on a remote uninhabited island off the country’s eastern coast, had been lying dormant for more than 150 years until it saw a major eruption in 1991.

Since then it has shown intermittent activity, including eruptions in 1995 and 2005.

Reference: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-barren-islandvolcano-erupts-again/article17369862.ece

Answer: B

Justification:

The kikar or Prosopis juliflora was brought to Delhi from Mexico by the British more than a century ago. The exotic plant became invasive and wiped out most of the native plants and along with it the animals, which once used to roam in the ridges.

With its deep roots, it had also wreaked havoc on city’s groundwater.

Source:https://www.hindustantimes.com/delhi-news/delhi-indigenous-vines-to-be- used-to-kill-invasive-tree-species/ story-6owi4Ep4JysSKOvui521jL.html

Answer: D

Justification:

S1 and S2: The vast majority of large reefs created by corals in shallow waters (< 50 m water depth) are located within a tropical zone located between 30º N and 30º S latitude with a preferred temperature range of approximately 22º to 29º C. Coral reefs are often called the “tropical rainforests of the sea” for their astounding richness of life.

Fig: Worldwide distribution of coral reefs.

S3: Coral reefs are the most diverse communities on the planet. These tropical marine communities occupy less than 1% of the ocean floor, but are inhabited by at least 25%of all marine species. Scientists estimate that more than 25,000 described species from thirty-two of the world’s thirty-three animal phyla live in reef habitats – four times the number of animal phyla found in tropical rain forests.

Answer: C

Justification:

• The Climate Neutral Now Initiative is one of several initiatives launched by the UNFCCC secretariat to increase climate action by engaging non-Party stakeholders (sub-national governments, companies, organizations, individuals). It was launched in 2015 based on a mandate to promote the voluntary use of carbon market mechanisms recognized under the Convention.
• All levels of society to take climate action to achieve a climate neutral world by mid- century, as enshrined in the Paris Agreement adopted the same year.
• The initiative therefore invites companies, organizations, governments and citizens to work towards climate neutrality by reducing their climate footprint thanks to a simple 3.- steps method, whereby they shall:
• Measure their greenhouse gas emissions; Reduce them as much as possible; and
• Compensate those which cannot be avoided by using UN certified emission reductions (CERs).

Answer: B

Justification:

• Warren Hastings, himself an intellectual, set up the Calcutta Madrasa in1781 for the study and learning of Persian and Arabic.
• In 1791 the efforts of Jonathan Duncan, the British Resident at Benares, bore fruit and a Sanskrit College was opened at Benares.
• Lord Richard Colley Wellesley (NOT ARTHUR WELLESLEY) took the first step for training of Civil Servants when he founded the fort William College, in Calcutta in November 1800 where the Civil Servants of the Company were to receive training in the literature, science and languages of India.

Source: (BL GROVER MODERN India, PAGE NO. 176 and 257)

Answer: C

Justification:

• The autonomous community of Catalonia occupies a triangular area in the north-eastern corner of Spain. It is bordered by France and Andorra to the north, the Mediterranean Sea to the east, the autonomous community of Valencia to the south, and the autonomous community of Aragon to the west.
• The Republic of Crimea, officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula stretching out from the south of Ukraine between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov. It is separated from Russia to the east by the narrow Kerch Strait.
• Mindanao, island, the second largest (after Luzon) in the Philippines, in the southern part of the archipelago, surrounded by the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas.
• Oromia is one of the nine ethnically based regional states of Ethiopia, covering 284,538 square kilometres.

Answer: A

Justification:

Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/capital-adequacy-ratio

Answer: C

Justification: Aadhaar provides open Application Programming Interfaces or APIs, which can be integrated easily into any electronic device.

These APIs enable online authentication using a fingerprint or iris.

Source: https://blogs.timesofindia.indiatimes.com/toi-edit-page/how-digital-will-save-india-unlike-china-indiaseconomic-revolution-will-come-from-services-not-manufacturing/

Answer: D

Justification: The world faces one of the largest food crises in 70 years with 20million people I four countries namely: Yemen, Nigeria, South Sudan and Somalia according to FAO.

Answer: A

Justification: Wood’s Despatch is called Magna-Carta of English Education in India. As per this Despatch:

• An education department was to be set in every province.
• Universities on the model of the London University be established in big cities such as Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.
• At least one government school should be opened in every district. Affiliated private schools should be given grant in aid.
• The Indian natives should be given training in their mother tongue

In accordance with Wood’s Despatch, Education Departments were established in every province and universities were opened at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1857 on the model of the London University.

• Later more universities were opened in Punjab in 1882 and at Allahabad

Answer: B

Justification: Committee of Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rule, sub-rules and by laws delegated by the parliament or conferred by the constitution to the executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the houses the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.

Reference: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/04/06/5-section-2g-of-the-aadhaar-act-gives-unbridled-powers-of-delegated-legislation-to-the-executive-comment/

Answer: B

Justification

• Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct because under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE), Act 2009, National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE),  has laid down the minimum educational & professional qualifications for a person to be eligible for an appointment as a teacher for classes I-VIII, which are applicable to all schools imparting elementary education, including the schools under the State Governments and to qualify under a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).
• Majority of the teacher education institutions in India are under NCTE. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Why asked this year?

Parliament amended RTE act to give teachers time till 2019 to acquire qualifications. Source:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/01/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-13- january-2017/

Answer: B

Justification:

Festival                                               State

Chapchar kut festival –                     Mizoram

Khongiom parba ballad-                    Manipur

Thang-Ta dance             –                    Manipur

Answer: A

Justification:

Statement 1 is correct because The FSSAI Act took 8 older acts into one umbrella including Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI/

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is appointed by Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India. It is not under the charge of Director General of Health services.

Answer: B

Justification: It is in the news very recently because of the announcement by the American President Donald Trump about opening of the American Embassy in Jerusalem and subsequent protests by Palestinians in which many have died. The two-state solution also keeps figuring out in the news.

Answer: B

Justification: Salient Features of NFSA

Statement 1: Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. Not restricted to only BPL families.

Statement 3: Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes.

The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition as prescribed by GOI are 500 calories and 12-15 grams of protein of children between the ages of 6 months to 6 years, 600 (not 1600) calories and 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25 gm. of protein to malnourished children.

Statement 2: Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.

Reference:

1. http://dfpd.nic.in/Salient-features-National-Food-Security-Act.htm
2. http://delhi.gov.in/wps/wcm/connect/58f8de004d9ed9c6a076ea998ec321bd/Ch-10+Nutrition.pdf?
3. MOD=AJPERES&lmod=553847052&CACHEID=58f8de004d9ed9c6a076ea998ec321bd

Answer: D

Justification:

Article 22 of the TRIPS Agreements (WTO Agreement) defines Geographical Indication as “indications which identify a good as originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographical origin”.

Consequently, upon India joining as a member state of the TRIPS Agreement sui-geneis legislation for the protection of geographical indication was enacted in 1999.Geographical Indications are covered as an element of Intellectual Property Rights under the TRIPS Agreement (WTO Agreement).

Answer: D

Justification:

• As per the new mining law — Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015 — which came into effect from January 2015, the non- coal mines have to be auctioned by the respective state governments.
• Jharkhand has both alluvial and native gold. Alluvial gold is obtained from the sands of the Subarnarekha river, Sona Nadi in Singhbhum district and the streams draining the Sonapat valley. Native gold is found near Lowa in Singhbhum district.
• In Andhra Pradesh gold deposits are found in Ramagiri in Anantapur district.
• In Rajasthan the Iron-Ore deposits are located in the districts of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and Banswara.

Answer: A

Justification:

• Statement 1 is correct because BHIM app is powered by UPI and integrates the Payments platform as the official app of the government of India.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Debit card does not have four factor authorization and BHIM app has three factor authorization.

Reference: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/08/25/insights-editorial-upi-indias-biggest-boldest-payments-interface-bet-yet/

Answer: A

Justification:

Answer: A

Justification:

The Union Cabinet recently gave its approval for ratification of the two fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organization namely, Minimum Age Convention (No 138) concerning minimum age for admission to employment and the Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention (No 182) concerning the prohibition and immediate action for elimination of the worst forms of Child Labour.

Answer: B

Justification:

Statement 1: First democratically elected communist party government formed in a state in India in 1957. The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India won the election with 60 seats.

Statement 2: Imperial bank was renamed as state bank of India in 1955. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ Imperial_Bank_of_India).

Statement 3: Air India was nationalized in 1953. Government of India passed the Air Corporations Act and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons.

Statement4: Goa became an independent India on 18 December 1961. Indian troops crossed the border into Goa and “liberated” it.

Answer: C

Justification:

Privacy is a constitutionally protected right which emerges primarily from the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution. Elements of privacy also arise in varying contexts from the other facets of freedom and dignity recognized and guaranteed by the fundamental rights contained in Part III.

Why asked this year?

Supreme Court judgment on Right to Privacy in 2017

Source:

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/08/26/insights-editorial-citizen-vs-state-right- privacy-verdict/

Answer: B

Source:https://cacp.dacnet.nic.in/ViewContents.aspx?Input=1&PageId=36&KeyId=0

Answer: A

Justification: Spread over an area of 862 sq. km. at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh, Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is also known as Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary and more popularly as Pakke Tiger Reserve. Earlier a game sanctuary, it became a wildlife sanctuary in 2001 and a part of Project Tiger in 2002. The sanctuary is well-known for being home to tigers and many amazing species of hornbill.

Answer: A

Justification:

• PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote- sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication-satellites to the highly elliptical (typically 250 x 3.6000 Km) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
• The satellite in GTO is further raised to its final destination, viz., Geo-synchronous Earth orbit (GEO) of about 3.6000 Km altitude (and zero degree inclination on equatorial plane) by firing its in-built on-board engines. Due to their geo-synchronous nature, the satellites in these orbits appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth, thus avoiding the need of a tracking ground antenna and hence are useful for the communication applications.
• GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4 ton class of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) or about 10 tons to Low Earth Orbit (LEO), which is about twice the capability of the GSLV Mk II. It is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.

Source:

1. http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-the-difference-between- gslv-and-pslv/article67422ece
2. https://www.isro.gov.in/launchers/gslv-mk-3

Answer: B

Justification

• S1: Capital infusion has not been steady, therefore statement 1 is wrong. (Source: https://www.livemint.com/Industry/3qTu3MjDuTCrPIpqKnGcrO/The-whys-and-hows-of-public-sector-bank-recapitalisation.html)
• S2: One of the desired objectives of consolidation of banks is the streamlining of banking operations and reduces their NPA burden. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.

Answer: C

Justification:

Previously GST council imposed 5% rate of GST on hulled grains. However, later on 11th June 2017, the rate of GST applicable on hulled grains is 0%. (Nil rate) falls under GST HSN code number 1104. Source:( http://howtoexportimport.com/Rate-of-GST-on-Hulled-cereal-grains-7241.aspx)

Chicken eggs cooked: 0% GST rate Source ( https://www.exportgenius.in/gst-tax-rates/chicken-egg)

Fish processed and canned: 5% GST rate Source ( https://www.indiafilings.com/learn/gst-rate-for-fish-fish-products-and-seafood/)

Newspapers containing advertising material: 0% GST rate Source ( https://cleartax.in/s/printed-books-brochures-newspapers-gst-rate-hsn-code)

However, ads attract 5% GST, not the newspapers publishing them (for selling space for aadvertisements in the print media would be 5%). Newspapers per se – with or without advertisements – are exempt from GST.

Answer: A

Justification:

• The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
• Living in the dense sal forests of Maikal Hills, where streams intersect their homesteads, the Baigasin Dindori district of Madhya Pradesh have gained the right to their habitat. This is for the first time habitat rights have been given under the Forest Rights Act of 2006.
• Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Source:

1. http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=69806

http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/baiga-tribals-become-india-s-first-community-to-get-habitat-rights52452

Answer: D

Justification:

• Nematodes, snails, birds, and wild and domestic animals often help dissemination of plant diseases.
• The spores of many parasitic fungi are disseminated by air currents from diseased to disease-free host Pathogens like, bacteria are often disseminated by splashing of raindrops, as in case of Citrus canker disease.
• Soil and field operation also disseminate the diseases as they result in dust blowing.

Source:http://www.biologydiscussion.com/plants/plant-diseases/dissemination-of- plant-diseases-16-mechanismsbotany/58671

Answer: B

Justification:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since The objectives of NPOP are as under:

1. To provide the means of evaluation of certification programme for organic agriculture and products (including wild harvest, aquaculture, livestock products) as per the approved criteria.
2. To accredit certification programmes of Certification Bodies seeking accreditation.
3. To facilitate certification of organic products in conformity with the prescribed standards.
4. To facilitate certification of organic products in conformity with the importing countries organic standards as per equivalence agreement between the two countries or as per importing country requirements.
5. To encourage the development of organic farming and organic processing.

• NPOP is being managed and operated by the APEDA under Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
• Sikkimbecame the first state in India to officially announce adoption of organic farming in the year 2003 to ensure long term sustenance of soil fertility, protection of environment and ecology, healthy living and decreasing the risk of health ailments.

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=155000

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Sikkim-becomes-India%E2%80%99s-first-organic-state/ article13.999445.ece

Answer: C

Justification:

A110. Definition of Money Bill

(1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely

• the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
• the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;
• the custody of the consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;
• The appropriation of moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India (not Contingency Fund of India). So, C is incorrect.

Answer: A

Justification:

S1: Value of vote of MLA is based on population criterion and population of each state has a different value hence, statement 1 is correct

S2: The value of vote of each MP is same whether it is Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Thus, S2 will be wrong.

Solutions: A

Justification:

• Statement 1 is correct because an Additional Protocol (AP) to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered into force on 25July
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is incorrect as IAEA protocol ratification will not give the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
• Statement 4 is incorrect because NSG membership is not based on IAEA Additional Protocol ratification.

Source: https://www.iaea.org/newscenter/news/indias-additional-protocol-enters-force

Answer: C

Justification:

Apart from the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) between ASEAN member states, the regional trade bloc has signed several FTAs with some of the major economies in the Asia-Pacific region. These include the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand FTA (AANZFTA), the ASEAN-China FTA (ACFTA), the ASEAN-India FTA (AIFTA), the ASEAN Korea FTA (AKFTA), and the ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP).

Why it was asked?

To mark 25 years of collaboration, besides 10 years of summit-level association and five years of strategic partnership, India has invited the leaders of all 10 ASEAN countries to New Delhi for a commemorative summit on 25 January. The theme of the summit is “Shared Values, Common Destiny”

Mentioned in the list of important topics for prelims 2018 by InsightsIAS Team:

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/05/19/update-important-topics-for- prelims-2018/

Answer: B

Justification:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010, through the paper “Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation”. In 2014 an alliance was set up with this issue as its focal point: the GASCA (Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture).

GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). Its vision is to improve food security, nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change. GACSA aims to catalyze and help create transformational partnerships to encourage actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.

Statement 2 is correct because membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation.

Statement 3 is incorrect because India is just a signatory.

Answer: B

Justification: Only statement 3 is correct

The Digital India programme is centered on key vision areas:

1. Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen Governance and Services on Demand
2. Digital Empowerment of Citizens

Source:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2015/07/02/lok-sabha-tv-insights-transformation-by-digital-india-a-detailed-article-on-digital-india-program/

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2015/12/12/insights-into-editorial-illiberal-law-roll-it-back-mindmaps-on-current-issues/digital-india/

Answer: B

Justification:

• Aleppo – Syria
• Kirkuk – Iraq
• Mosul – Iraq
• Mazar-i-sharif – Afghanistan

Answer: B

Justification: Residuary legislative powers were vested in the Governor-General under the Government of India Act of 1935.

Answer: A

Justification: Usually, the speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following cases:

• If he ceases to be a member of the assembly
• If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and;
• If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.

Why asked this year?

Karnataka assembly election result created controversy related to speaker.

Further last year role of speaker of assembly was in news in relation to political developments in TN and government formation in various states.

Answer: B

Justification:

Option B: It was a statement made by John Locke. He, in Second Treatise of Civil Government, wrote: “where there is no law, there is no freedom” In 1689, he also wrote that “the end of law is not to abolish or restrain, but to preserve and enlarge freedom.” No law would give LICENSCE (Unregulated liberty). Therefore, B is correct.

But, then such statements are not to be considered objective realities. If there are no laws, there can be either complete liberty, because nothing restricts the actions of citizens, or NO liberty because then lawlessness can heavily curtail liberty. It really depends. It is an extreme statement to say that when there are no laws, there is no liberty (Can we say there is no liberty in a Jungle?) There can be liberty despite the absence of laws.

Answer: C

Justification: Article 361. Protection of President and Governors

No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office,

Article 158: Conditions of Governor Office

The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office

Why it was asked?

Budget 2017-18 increased the salary and emolument of governors.

A complaint about alleged misconduct on the part of a governor of a southern state has been received by the home ministry and is being investigated for its veracity.

Source:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/02/insights-daily-current-events-02-february-2016/

Answer: D

Justification:

BaniThani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihâl Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful. The painting’s subject, BaniThani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of kingSawant Singh (1748–1764).

She has been compared to the Mona Lisa. Inspired by Radha, BaniThani is characterized by idealized distinct features such as arched eyebrows, lotus-like elongated eyes and pointed chin. This painting was featured in an Indian stamp issued in 1973.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bani_Thani

Answer: C

Justification: Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or re-entry) by intercepting with a hit-to-kill approach.

THAAD was developed after the experience of Iraq’s Scud missile attacks during the Gulf War in 1991. The THAAD interceptor carries no warhead, but relies on its kinetic energy of impact to destroy the incoming missile.

A kinetic energy hit minimizes the risk of exploding conventional-warhead ballistic missiles, and the warhead of nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles will not detonate on a kinetic-energy hit.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/03/27/2-recently-us-deployed-anti-ballistic-missile-terminal-high-altitude-area-defence-thaad-south-korea-comment-objectives-deploying-thaad-possible-consequences-move/

Answer: B

Justification:

Statement 1: TalḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) was a 15th-centuryHindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. Hence S1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: Tyagaraja took music training from SontiVenkataramayya. But that didn’t stop him from taking musical inspirations from various earlier poets. He was an ardent devotee of lord Rama. In his praise and honor he wrote numerous musical operas, and about twenty four thousand songs, a claim that has been speculated among music historians. Hence, S2 is correct.

Statement 3: Tyagaraja was born on 14th May 1767 in the village of Thiruvayaru in the Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu whereas TalḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503) was a 15th-century Hindu saint. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Statement4:TalḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503) was a15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. Hence, S4 is correct.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Annamacharya

https://www.thenewsminute.com/article/remembering-tyagaraja-guardian-saint-carnatic-music-his-250th-birth-anniversary-55754

Why this was asked?

250^th birth anniversary.

Mentioned in the list of important topics for prelims 2018 by Insightsias Team:

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/05/19/update-important-topics-for-prelims-2018/

Answer: C

Justification: Rule of Law includes:

• Asence of arbitrary power
• Equality before law
• Primacy of individual rights

Statement 3 is wrong because it should be that government is responsible to the people and not the vice versa.

Reference:

1. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/03/06/4-world-justice-projects-rule-law-index-2017-18-report-measures-extent-113-countries-adhered-rule-law-period-survey-found- 71/
2. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/01/30/insights-editorial-red-alert-green-index/