INSTA 70 2.0 Days REVISION PLAN
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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP)
- MSP rate are decided by Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
- The Scheme is applicable only in eight States having Schedule areas as listed in the Fifth Schedule.
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Under the scheme “Mechanism for Marketing of Minor Forest Produce through Minimum Support Price and development of Value chain for MFP” Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP) has been fixed for select MFP. The scheme is designed as a social safety net for improvement of livelihood of MFP gatherers by providing them fair price for the MFPs they collect.
Coverage
The Scheme has been implemented in eight States having Schedule areas as listed in the Fifth Schedule of the constitution of India. From November 2016, the scheme is applicable in all States.
What is this scheme all about?
The Union Cabinet, in 2013, approved a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for marketing of non-nationalized / non monopolized Minor Forest Produce (MFP) and development of a value chain for MFP through Minimum Support Price (MSP).
- This was a measure towards social safety for MFP gatherers, who are primarily members of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) most of them in Left Wing Extremism (LWE) areas.
- The scheme had Rs. 967.28 crore as Central Government share and Rs. 249.50 crore as the States share for the current Plan period.
Implementation:
- The responsibility of purchasing MFP on MSP will be with State designated agencies.
- To ascertain market price, services of market correspondents would be availed by the designated agencies particularly for major markets trading in MFP.
- The scheme supports primary value addition as well as provides for supply chain infrastructure like cold storage, warehouses etc.
- The Ministry of Tribal Affairs will be the nodal Ministry for implementation and monitoring of the scheme. The Minimum Support Price would be determined by the Ministry with technical help of TRIFED.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-june-2020/
Incorrect
Solution: C
Under the scheme “Mechanism for Marketing of Minor Forest Produce through Minimum Support Price and development of Value chain for MFP” Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP) has been fixed for select MFP. The scheme is designed as a social safety net for improvement of livelihood of MFP gatherers by providing them fair price for the MFPs they collect.
Coverage
The Scheme has been implemented in eight States having Schedule areas as listed in the Fifth Schedule of the constitution of India. From November 2016, the scheme is applicable in all States.
What is this scheme all about?
The Union Cabinet, in 2013, approved a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for marketing of non-nationalized / non monopolized Minor Forest Produce (MFP) and development of a value chain for MFP through Minimum Support Price (MSP).
- This was a measure towards social safety for MFP gatherers, who are primarily members of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) most of them in Left Wing Extremism (LWE) areas.
- The scheme had Rs. 967.28 crore as Central Government share and Rs. 249.50 crore as the States share for the current Plan period.
Implementation:
- The responsibility of purchasing MFP on MSP will be with State designated agencies.
- To ascertain market price, services of market correspondents would be availed by the designated agencies particularly for major markets trading in MFP.
- The scheme supports primary value addition as well as provides for supply chain infrastructure like cold storage, warehouses etc.
- The Ministry of Tribal Affairs will be the nodal Ministry for implementation and monitoring of the scheme. The Minimum Support Price would be determined by the Ministry with technical help of TRIFED.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-june-2020/
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Locusts
- They are a group of short-horned grasshoppers that multiply in numbers as they migrate long distances in destructive swarms.
- Locusts do attack people or animals.
- Satellites can detect locust’s movement from the space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Locusts are a group of short-horned grasshoppers that multiply in numbers as they migrate long distances in destructive swarms (up to 150km in one day). During the past few weeks, major locust attacks have been observed in several countries in western and southern Asia and in eastern Africa
Locusts differ from grasshoppers in that they have the ability to change their behaviour and habits and can migrate over large distances.Locusts do not attack people or animals. There is no evidence that suggests that locusts carry diseases that could harm humans.
Weather satellites and other satellites used to monitor the environment cannot detect locust individuals or swarms. However, the highly sophisticated satellites used by the military can indeed detect locusts but these images are not available.http://www.fao.org/ag/locusts/en/info/info/faq/index.html
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-june-2020/
Incorrect
Solution: C
Locusts are a group of short-horned grasshoppers that multiply in numbers as they migrate long distances in destructive swarms (up to 150km in one day). During the past few weeks, major locust attacks have been observed in several countries in western and southern Asia and in eastern Africa
Locusts differ from grasshoppers in that they have the ability to change their behaviour and habits and can migrate over large distances.Locusts do not attack people or animals. There is no evidence that suggests that locusts carry diseases that could harm humans.
Weather satellites and other satellites used to monitor the environment cannot detect locust individuals or swarms. However, the highly sophisticated satellites used by the military can indeed detect locusts but these images are not available.http://www.fao.org/ag/locusts/en/info/info/faq/index.html
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-june-2020/
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
- The Minister of Home Affairs is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA.
- It works under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Disaster Management Act, 2005.
The Act provided for the creation of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated approach to disaster management in the country. Initially, the NDMA was constituted in 2005 by an Executive Order of the Government of India. Subsequently, the NDMA was notified in 2006 under the provisions of the Act.
The NDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA. The other members are nominated by the chairperson of the NDMA. The chairperson of the NDMA designates one of the members as the vice-chairperson of the NDMA. The vice chairperson has the status of a Cabinet Minister while the other members have the status of a Minister of State.
The NDMA is the apex body for disaster management in the country. It works under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-june-2020/
Incorrect
Solution: B
Disaster Management Act, 2005.
The Act provided for the creation of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated approach to disaster management in the country. Initially, the NDMA was constituted in 2005 by an Executive Order of the Government of India. Subsequently, the NDMA was notified in 2006 under the provisions of the Act.
The NDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA. The other members are nominated by the chairperson of the NDMA. The chairperson of the NDMA designates one of the members as the vice-chairperson of the NDMA. The vice chairperson has the status of a Cabinet Minister while the other members have the status of a Minister of State.
The NDMA is the apex body for disaster management in the country. It works under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-june-2020/
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsRule 266 and 267 of the Lok Sabha, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: A
Rule 266 and 267 of the Lok Sabha:
Context: Rajya Sabha secretariat has denied permission for members of the standing committee on Home Affairs to join a meeting of the panel through videoconference.
Why?
The reason videoconference meetings were not being allowed was because it violated the principle of confidentiality, as there was no guarantee of a member sitting alone at such events.
What do rules say?
Rule 267 states that committee meetings have to be held in the Parliament building. However, the Speaker has the powers to change the venue.
Rule 266 mandates that all committee meetings have to be held in private.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-june-2020/
Incorrect
Solution: A
Rule 266 and 267 of the Lok Sabha:
Context: Rajya Sabha secretariat has denied permission for members of the standing committee on Home Affairs to join a meeting of the panel through videoconference.
Why?
The reason videoconference meetings were not being allowed was because it violated the principle of confidentiality, as there was no guarantee of a member sitting alone at such events.
What do rules say?
Rule 267 states that committee meetings have to be held in the Parliament building. However, the Speaker has the powers to change the venue.
Rule 266 mandates that all committee meetings have to be held in private.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-june-2020/
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding G7
- Russia was formally inducted as a member in the group in 1998, which led G7 to become G8.
- The G-7 nations meet at annual summits that are presided over by leaders of member countries on a rotational basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What is G7?
The G7, originally G8, was set up in 1975 as an informal forum bringing together the leaders of the world’s leading industrial nations.
The summit gathers leaders from the European Union (EU) and the following countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States.
How did G7 become G8?
- Russia was formally inducted as a member in the group in 1998, which led G7 to become G8.
- However, Russian President Vladimir Putin’s condemnable act of moving Russian troops into eastern Ukraine and conquering Crimea in 2014 drew heavy criticism from the other G8 nations.
- The other nations of the group decided to suspend Russia from the G8 as a consequence of its actions and the group became G7 again in 2014.
How the G-7 summit works?
The G-7 nations meet at annual summits that are presided over by leaders of member countries on a rotational basis.
The summit is an informal gathering that lasts two days, in which leaders of member countries discuss a wide range of global issues.
The groundwork for the summit, including matters to be discussed and follow-up meetings, is done by the “sherpas”, who are generally personal representatives or members of diplomatic staff such as ambassadors.
Significance:
G7 is capable of setting the global agenda because decisions taken by these major economic powers have a real impact. Thus, decisions taken at the G7 are not legally binding, but exert strong political influence.
What criticisms have been made of the G7?
- G7 gatherings tend to attract thousands of protesters. Many protesters claim the G7 – which has no representative from any African, Russian or Middle Eastern nation – is completely outdated.
- Protest groups also use the worldwide platform as a stage to lobby and campaign on issues that are important to them.
- G7 leaders are creating a wide gap between the ‘haves’ and the ‘have-nots’ both in their countries as well as across the globe, according to a new report published by non-profit Oxfam International. As a result, they are making the fight against alleviating poverty more difficult, claimed the report.
How can it be made more effective?
- Work towards implementing tax models for the rich individuals and corporations to pay their fair share of tax.
- Consider how new and existing wealth taxes could be used as a tool to fight poverty and inequality.
- Invest in healthcare and education and provide aid to developing countries.
- Work towards limiting greenhouse gas emissions down to zero well before mid-century.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What is G7?
The G7, originally G8, was set up in 1975 as an informal forum bringing together the leaders of the world’s leading industrial nations.
The summit gathers leaders from the European Union (EU) and the following countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States.
How did G7 become G8?
- Russia was formally inducted as a member in the group in 1998, which led G7 to become G8.
- However, Russian President Vladimir Putin’s condemnable act of moving Russian troops into eastern Ukraine and conquering Crimea in 2014 drew heavy criticism from the other G8 nations.
- The other nations of the group decided to suspend Russia from the G8 as a consequence of its actions and the group became G7 again in 2014.
How the G-7 summit works?
The G-7 nations meet at annual summits that are presided over by leaders of member countries on a rotational basis.
The summit is an informal gathering that lasts two days, in which leaders of member countries discuss a wide range of global issues.
The groundwork for the summit, including matters to be discussed and follow-up meetings, is done by the “sherpas”, who are generally personal representatives or members of diplomatic staff such as ambassadors.
Significance:
G7 is capable of setting the global agenda because decisions taken by these major economic powers have a real impact. Thus, decisions taken at the G7 are not legally binding, but exert strong political influence.
What criticisms have been made of the G7?
- G7 gatherings tend to attract thousands of protesters. Many protesters claim the G7 – which has no representative from any African, Russian or Middle Eastern nation – is completely outdated.
- Protest groups also use the worldwide platform as a stage to lobby and campaign on issues that are important to them.
- G7 leaders are creating a wide gap between the ‘haves’ and the ‘have-nots’ both in their countries as well as across the globe, according to a new report published by non-profit Oxfam International. As a result, they are making the fight against alleviating poverty more difficult, claimed the report.
How can it be made more effective?
- Work towards implementing tax models for the rich individuals and corporations to pay their fair share of tax.
- Consider how new and existing wealth taxes could be used as a tool to fight poverty and inequality.
- Invest in healthcare and education and provide aid to developing countries.
- Work towards limiting greenhouse gas emissions down to zero well before mid-century.
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the services is/are offered by The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
- Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)
- Cheque Truncation System (CTS)
- Exclusive Direct Benefit Transfer.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
What is BHIM?
Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a UPI based payment interface.
Developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
Allows real time fund transfer.
Launched in December, 2016.
The BHIM apps has three levels of authentication:
- For one, the app binds with a device’s ID and mobile number.
- Second a user needs to sync whichever bank account (UPI or non-UPI enabled) in order to the conduct transaction.
- Third, when a user sets up the app they are asked to create a pin which is needed to log into the app. The UPI pin, which a user creates with their bank account is needed to go through with the transaction.
About NPCI:
NPCI is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment and Settlement Infrastructure in India.
It has been incorporated as a not for profit company.
The Company is focused on bringing innovations in the retail payment systems through the use of technology for achieving greater efficiency in operations and widening the reach of payment systems.
Initial promoters:
The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A. and HSBC. In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
What does the NPCI offer?
NFS: National Financial Switch (NFS) ATM network with 37 member banks and connecting 50,000 ATMs was taken to NPCI’s authority from the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) on 14 December 2009. After taking over, NFS ATM network has grown many folds.
IMPS: Immediate Payment Service (IMPS).
AePS: Aadhaar-enabled Payment Service (AePS).
CTS: Cheque Truncation System (CTS) facilitates extended cut-off time to accept customer cheques by banks and reduces timelines for clearing.
RuPay: RuPay is a new card payment system launched to satisfy RBI’s vision to offer a domestic, open-loop, and the multilateral system.
NACH: National Automated Clearing House (NACH) is a web-based solution that facilitates interbank, high volume electronic transactions that are repetitive in nature.
APBS: Aadhaar Payment Bridge (APB) System is used by the government and government agencies to make direct benefit transfers with respect to various Central and state-sponsored schemes.
*99#: is a USSD-based mobile banking service of NPCI launched in November 2012.
UPI: Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that makes multiple bank accounts to be accessed from a single mobile application.
Bharat BillPay: is a system conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and driven by NPCI.
NETC: National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) is a nation-wide programme designed to meet the electronic tolling requirements in India.
BHIM: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) was launched to make payments simpler and easier. Instant bank-to-bank payments can be made using a mobile number or virtual payment address (UPI ID).
BharatQR: Basically, a QR code is a series of black squares arranged in a square grid that can be read by a camera.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is BHIM?
Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a UPI based payment interface.
Developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
Allows real time fund transfer.
Launched in December, 2016.
The BHIM apps has three levels of authentication:
- For one, the app binds with a device’s ID and mobile number.
- Second a user needs to sync whichever bank account (UPI or non-UPI enabled) in order to the conduct transaction.
- Third, when a user sets up the app they are asked to create a pin which is needed to log into the app. The UPI pin, which a user creates with their bank account is needed to go through with the transaction.
About NPCI:
NPCI is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment and Settlement Infrastructure in India.
It has been incorporated as a not for profit company.
The Company is focused on bringing innovations in the retail payment systems through the use of technology for achieving greater efficiency in operations and widening the reach of payment systems.
Initial promoters:
The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A. and HSBC. In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
What does the NPCI offer?
NFS: National Financial Switch (NFS) ATM network with 37 member banks and connecting 50,000 ATMs was taken to NPCI’s authority from the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) on 14 December 2009. After taking over, NFS ATM network has grown many folds.
IMPS: Immediate Payment Service (IMPS).
AePS: Aadhaar-enabled Payment Service (AePS).
CTS: Cheque Truncation System (CTS) facilitates extended cut-off time to accept customer cheques by banks and reduces timelines for clearing.
RuPay: RuPay is a new card payment system launched to satisfy RBI’s vision to offer a domestic, open-loop, and the multilateral system.
NACH: National Automated Clearing House (NACH) is a web-based solution that facilitates interbank, high volume electronic transactions that are repetitive in nature.
APBS: Aadhaar Payment Bridge (APB) System is used by the government and government agencies to make direct benefit transfers with respect to various Central and state-sponsored schemes.
*99#: is a USSD-based mobile banking service of NPCI launched in November 2012.
UPI: Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that makes multiple bank accounts to be accessed from a single mobile application.
Bharat BillPay: is a system conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and driven by NPCI.
NETC: National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) is a nation-wide programme designed to meet the electronic tolling requirements in India.
BHIM: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) was launched to make payments simpler and easier. Instant bank-to-bank payments can be made using a mobile number or virtual payment address (UPI ID).
BharatQR: Basically, a QR code is a series of black squares arranged in a square grid that can be read by a camera.
-
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding One Nation-One Ration Card scheme.
- It provides universal access to PDS food grains for migrant workers.
- For availing the benefits under the scheme, it is not mandatory to link ration cards to Aadhaar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
One Nation One Ration Card:
- One Nation One Ration Card (RC) will ensure all beneficiaries especially migrants can access PDS across the nation from any PDS shop of their own choice.
- Benefits: no poor person is deprived of getting subsidisedfoodgrains under the food security scheme when they shift from one place to another. It also aims to remove the chance of anyone holding more than one ration card to avail benefits from different states.
- Significance: This will provide freedom to the beneficiaries as they will not be tied to any one PDS shop and reduce their dependence on shop owners and curtail instances of corruption.
- The poor migrant workers will be able to buy subsidised rice and wheat from any ration shop in the country but for that their ration cards must be linked to Aadhaar.
- Migrants would only be eligible for the subsidies supported by the Centre, which include rice sold at Rs. 3/kg and wheat at Rs. 2/kg, It would not include subsidies given by their respective state government in some other state.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/03/one-nation-one-ration-card-scheme-3/
Incorrect
Solution: A
One Nation One Ration Card:
- One Nation One Ration Card (RC) will ensure all beneficiaries especially migrants can access PDS across the nation from any PDS shop of their own choice.
- Benefits: no poor person is deprived of getting subsidisedfoodgrains under the food security scheme when they shift from one place to another. It also aims to remove the chance of anyone holding more than one ration card to avail benefits from different states.
- Significance: This will provide freedom to the beneficiaries as they will not be tied to any one PDS shop and reduce their dependence on shop owners and curtail instances of corruption.
- The poor migrant workers will be able to buy subsidised rice and wheat from any ration shop in the country but for that their ration cards must be linked to Aadhaar.
- Migrants would only be eligible for the subsidies supported by the Centre, which include rice sold at Rs. 3/kg and wheat at Rs. 2/kg, It would not include subsidies given by their respective state government in some other state.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/03/one-nation-one-ration-card-scheme-3/
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Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Anti Defection Law in India:
- A nominated member of a House shall not be disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House.
- Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another.
For this purpose, it made changes in four Articles of the Constitution and added a new Schedule (the Tenth Schedule) to the Constitution. This act is often referred to as the ‘antidefection law’. Later, the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 made one change in the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. It omitted an exception provision i.e., disqualification on ground of defection not to apply in case of split.
A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification
Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House. Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, in Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme Court declared this provision as unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to take away the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts.
It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence, his decision like that of any other tribunal, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides, perversity, etc. But, the court rejected the contention that the vesting of adjudicatory powers in the presiding officer is by itself invalid on the ground of political bias.
Source: Editorials, June 2020.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another.
For this purpose, it made changes in four Articles of the Constitution and added a new Schedule (the Tenth Schedule) to the Constitution. This act is often referred to as the ‘antidefection law’. Later, the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 made one change in the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. It omitted an exception provision i.e., disqualification on ground of defection not to apply in case of split.
A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification
Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House. Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, in Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme Court declared this provision as unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to take away the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts.
It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence, his decision like that of any other tribunal, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides, perversity, etc. But, the court rejected the contention that the vesting of adjudicatory powers in the presiding officer is by itself invalid on the ground of political bias.
Source: Editorials, June 2020.
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the State Election Commission:
- The conduct of elections to the legislative councils shall be vested in the state election commission.
- State election commissioner shall be appointed by the governor of the concerned state.
- State election commissioner shall not be removed from the office except in the manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the state high court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
State Election Commission:
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission.
It consists of a state election commissioner to be appointed by the governor. His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by the governor. He shall not be removed from the office except in the manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the state high court. His conditions of service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
Source: Editorials
Incorrect
Solution: B
State Election Commission:
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission.
It consists of a state election commissioner to be appointed by the governor. His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by the governor. He shall not be removed from the office except in the manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the state high court. His conditions of service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
Source: Editorials
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the election to the Rajya Sabha:
- None Of The Above (NOTA) voting option has recently introduced in Rajya Sabha Polls.
- Only elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies can vote in a Rajya Sabha election.
- MLAs who do not vote for the party candidate can be disqualified under the anti-defection law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of the states and union territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by the president.
At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members. Of these, 229 members represent the states, 4 members represent the union territories and 12 members are nominated by the president.
The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
Only elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies can vote in a Rajya Sabha election. The legislators send a batch of new members to the Upper House every two years for a six-year term. A third of Members of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha (which is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution), from each State retire once in two years and polls are held to fill up the vacancies.
The Election Commission of India (ECI) issued two circulars, on January 24, 2014 and November 12, 2015, giving Rajya Sabha members the option to press the NOTA button in the Upper House polls. However, in 2018, the Supreme Court of India struck down the provision, holding that the ‘none of the above’ option is only for general elections held on the basis of universal adult suffrage, and cannot be applied to indirect elections based on proportional representation.
The Supreme Court, while declining to interfere with the open ballot system, ruled that not voting for the party candidate will not attract disqualification under the anti-defection law. As voters, MLAs retain their freedom to vote for a candidate of their choice. However, the Court observed that since the party would know who voted against its own candidate, it is free to take disciplinary action against the legislator concerned.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of the states and union territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by the president.
At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members. Of these, 229 members represent the states, 4 members represent the union territories and 12 members are nominated by the president.
The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
Only elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies can vote in a Rajya Sabha election. The legislators send a batch of new members to the Upper House every two years for a six-year term. A third of Members of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha (which is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution), from each State retire once in two years and polls are held to fill up the vacancies.
The Election Commission of India (ECI) issued two circulars, on January 24, 2014 and November 12, 2015, giving Rajya Sabha members the option to press the NOTA button in the Upper House polls. However, in 2018, the Supreme Court of India struck down the provision, holding that the ‘none of the above’ option is only for general elections held on the basis of universal adult suffrage, and cannot be applied to indirect elections based on proportional representation.
The Supreme Court, while declining to interfere with the open ballot system, ruled that not voting for the party candidate will not attract disqualification under the anti-defection law. As voters, MLAs retain their freedom to vote for a candidate of their choice. However, the Court observed that since the party would know who voted against its own candidate, it is free to take disciplinary action against the legislator concerned.
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the International Court of Justice (ICJ):
- It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN).
- Its official languages are English, French, Spanish and Mandarin.
- Judges are elected for terms of office of five years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946.
The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).
The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. It is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ. Its official languages are English and French.
Source: RSTV: In Depth
Incorrect
Solution: A
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946.
The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).
The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. It is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ. Its official languages are English and French.
Source: RSTV: In Depth
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries is/are members of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)?
Correct
Solution: C
The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue is an informal strategic dialogue between the United States, Japan, Australia and India that is maintained by talks between member countries.
Source: RSTV: The Big Picture – Quad-Plus Diplomacy
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue is an informal strategic dialogue between the United States, Japan, Australia and India that is maintained by talks between member countries.
Source: RSTV: The Big Picture – Quad-Plus Diplomacy
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsRule of Law Index (RLI), has been launched by:
Correct
Solution: C
Why in News?
A petition was filed in the Supreme Court asking the Court to direct the government to setup expert panels to boost India’s prospects in the Rule of Law Index.
The World Justice Project is an international civil society organization with the stated mission of “working to advance the rule of law around the world”. The WJP works through three programs — Research and Scholarship, the WJP Rule of Law Index, and Engagement
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/20/rule-of-law-index/
Incorrect
Solution: C
Why in News?
A petition was filed in the Supreme Court asking the Court to direct the government to setup expert panels to boost India’s prospects in the Rule of Law Index.
The World Justice Project is an international civil society organization with the stated mission of “working to advance the rule of law around the world”. The WJP works through three programs — Research and Scholarship, the WJP Rule of Law Index, and Engagement
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/20/rule-of-law-index/
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
- It was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- It aims to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the Current Weekly Status (CWS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Considering the importance of availability of labour force data at more frequent time intervals, National Statistical Office (NSO) launched Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) on April 2017.
The objective of PLFS is primarily twofold:
- to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the Current Weekly Status (CWS)
- to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both usual status (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Considering the importance of availability of labour force data at more frequent time intervals, National Statistical Office (NSO) launched Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) on April 2017.
The objective of PLFS is primarily twofold:
- to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the Current Weekly Status (CWS)
- to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both usual status (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsWith which of the following countries does India has been constructing Kholongchhu project as joint venture hydroelectric project?
Correct
Solution: C
India and Bhutan signed a pact for the construction of the 600 MW Kholongchhu joint venture hydroelectric project in Bhutan.
With this, four hydroelectric projects of bilateral cooperation (336 MW Chukha Hydro electric project, the 60 MW Kurichhu Hydro Electric project, the 1,020 MW Tala Hydro Electric Project and the 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydro Electric Project) totalling over 2,100 MW, are operational in Bhutan.
Incorrect
Solution: C
India and Bhutan signed a pact for the construction of the 600 MW Kholongchhu joint venture hydroelectric project in Bhutan.
With this, four hydroelectric projects of bilateral cooperation (336 MW Chukha Hydro electric project, the 60 MW Kurichhu Hydro Electric project, the 1,020 MW Tala Hydro Electric Project and the 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydro Electric Project) totalling over 2,100 MW, are operational in Bhutan.
Post your INSTA Revision Test score as well as your answers for the below Mains Questions in the Comments section for review.
Static question:
1. The Industrial Revolution “Changed England in character and culture”. Comment. (250 words)
2. Discuss the process of decolonization accelerated by the Second World War. (250 words)
Ethics question :
1. What are the factors which hinder the observance of ethics in public domain? What steps do you think are necessary to ensure ethical behavior in public domain? (250 words)
2. Collective welfare has always been one of the foremost foundations of ethics in private relationship in India; however, this foundation is being threatened by rising greed in last few decades in the country. Critically analyze. (150 words)
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