SOLVE UPSC PREVIOUS YEARS’ PRELIMS PAPERS (2017)

Solution: D

Justification: Statement 1: It is introduced by any member who is not a Minister. A bill introduced by a Minister is called as a public bill.

Statement 2: Around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence.

http://www.prsindia.org/media/articles-citing-prs/only-14-private-members-bills- passed-since-independence-3759/

Solution: C

Justification: Statement 2: The Indus valley people knew the use of copper, bronze, silver, gold but not iron. So, 2 is wrong.

Statement 1: The Ramayana mentions chariots covered with leather. The Rig Vedic charioteers used varma (coats of mail) and sipra/sironastra (helmets).

Equipped with asi (swords), hanas (arrows) and ilhianus (bows), the Kshatriyas on the chariots went to combat.

Statement 3:  This is a disputed Statement.

The Rig Veda mentions horse-drawn chariots with spoked wheels.

But there is very little archaeological evidence of horses during the Harappan era and none at all earlier. The existence of the Harappan horse is a hotly disputed topic among archaeologists.

Arguments:

Some claim that horse was NOT known.

Among the numerous seals found in Harappa there is none which represent a horse, while other animals like the bull, buffalo, and goat are represented.

Moreover, the cavalry (of horses) as an organised force can be traced only to the post vedic period, but not earlier.

Arguments against:

On the other hand, some scholars claim that the horse was widely domesticated and used in India in the area covered by the Indus-Sarasvati (or Harappan) Civilisation, but this evidence remains unsubstantiated.

As per UPSC, Statement 3 is correct.

http://www.thehindu.com/thehindu/op/2002/03/05/stories/2002030500130100.htm

http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/1362/11/11_chapter%206.pdf

https://www.telegraphindia.com/1150813/jsp/opinion/story_36828.jsp

Solution: A

 Why: Aspirants cover core schemes and programmes but often miss covering ancillary and peripheral aspects. This was picked from ‘between the lines’ on the official website of PMKVY. Such ancillary questions can be expected even in the coming years.

Justification: Option A: The ‘Recognition of Prior Learning’ scheme — underway across construction sites in five states — to certify skills acquired by workers through traditional learning channels.

The project may be of particular relevance to a country where just 2 per cent of the workforce is certified as skilled.

Most deemed to be outside the skilled category in India are those who have typically picked up a skill while on the job, without any formal degree to back this up.

Option D is incorrect since it talks about trainees who are not fully skilled to get recognition of any prior learning.

Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) in Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY), but this isn’t applicable to trainees. So, D is incorrect.

http://www.skilldevelopment.gov.in/pmkvy.html

Solution: A

Why: UPSC has the habit of picking up options from questions of its past year papers and asking new questions after improvising them. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve can be found occasionally mentioned in CSP and CAPF papers; hence the question.

Justification: Sathyamangalam forest range is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats and a genetic link between the four other protected areas which it adjoins, including the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National Park.

Map below shows the protected area.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sathyamangalam_Wildlife_Sanctuary

Solution: A

Justification: Article 18 of the constitution justifies this. Under Right to equality, A18 abolishes titular privileges (except military or academic) granted to citizens of India.

Solution: B

Why: WWF and related agencies/schemes/initiatives are a hot favourite of UPSC, one example being Earth hour. Try to cover WWF website comprehensively to answer such questions.

Justification:  Statement 1: It is a NGO, not a bureau under UNEP. So, 1 is wrong.

TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, a steering group composed of members of TRAFFIC’s partner organizations, WWF and IUCN.

Statement 2: It is working globally on Wildlife trade monitoring network.

It specializes in investigating and analysing wildlife trade trends, patterns, impacts and drivers to provide the leading knowledge base on trade in wild animals and plants.

http://www.traffic.org/overview

Solution: B

Justification: The 42nd Amendment added new Directive Principles, viz Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 48A.

Article 43A deals with ‘Participation of workers in management of industries’.

http://indiacode.nic.in/coiweb/amend/amend42.htm

Solution: C

Justification: Option C: The philosophy of rights is grounded in preventing the exploitation of the citizen by the state. So, essentially it is the claim of an individual against the state.

Option B: This is wrong because rights are not privileges, they are the bare minimum for the formation of a democratic state. Also, the constitution abolishes the concept of special privileges.

Solution: A

Why: India was ranked at a lowly 87th position in the gender gap index that created headlines. It is an important report brought out by WEF.

Justification: http://reports.weforum.org/global-gender-gap-report-2016/rankings/

Solution: B

Why: It is a part of Digital India programme of the government. Expect related questions from official events and schemes.

Justification: Statement 1 and 3: There are no such provisions.

Statement 2: It was a digital product development competition during which teams of thousands of technology students built innovative digital solutions for the problems posted by different central govt. ministries/ departments.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=159825

Solution: A

Why: It was a major news break, and perhaps the most significant reform in India’s monetary policy framework in past few decades.

Justification: Statement 1: It decides the repo rates, CRR, SLR etc. It replaced the earlier system of policy rate veto by the RBI governor.

Statement 2:  It consists of six members (RBI Governor, Deputy Gov RBI, One RBI officer and three members nominated by the government), and they hold office for a period of four years.

Statement 3: The Governor of the RBI is the ex-officio Chairperson of MPC.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151264

Solution: B

Why: Sankirtana is one of the few important Indian heritages inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Justification: Statement 1  and 3:  Sankirtana performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur. So, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Statement 2:  Since drums are also used, statement 2 is incorrect.

https://ich.unesco.org/en/RL/sankirtana-ritual-singing-drumming-and-dancing-of- manipur-00843

Solution: C

Justification: Statement 1 and 3: The Ryotwari system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas Munro at the end of the 18th century. It was later introduced by Thomas Munro when he was governor (1820–27) of Madras.

Statement 2: He is associated with the Cornwallis Code 1793 and could not have been the answer since his tenure preceded the ryotwari settlement regime.

The principle behind Roytwari was the direct collection of the land revenue from each individual cultivator by government agents.

https://www.britannica.com/topic/ryotwari-system

Solution: C

Why: Expect around 6-8 standard conceptual questions on Eco-engineering every year. Bioremediation, biofuels, genetic engineering are some such standard concepts.

Justification: Statement 1: Bioremediation uses naturally occurring organisms to break down hazardous substances into less toxic or non toxic substances.

Statement 2:  Always be cautious of extreme statements and words as we have repeatedly pointed out in our 2017 Prelims Test Series. Completely and readily (quickly) are such words here.

Bio-remediation is a slow process, so. Heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are NOT readily absorbed or captured by microorganisms. UPSC had lifted this straight from Wikipedia.

Statement 3: This will be a standard practice in the industry in coming years. For e.g. Alcanivorax, a bacteria with oil-eating abilities, can be used to create species that are much more capable of cleaning oil spills.

https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2016/05/160509115556.htm

https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/how-microbes-clean-up-oil-spills/

Solution: D

Why: Labour reforms were hitherto largely ignored by UPSC, and only occasionally covered in NDA, CDS and CAPF papers in the form of Whitley Commission (employee- employer dispute resolution) and labour uprisings. Now, UPSC is moving to peripheral areas in history.

Justification: Prior to the year 1947 (India’s Independence), The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 used to settle industrial disputes.

Tribunals: The main object of the 1929 Act was to make provisions for establishment of Courts of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation with a view to investigate and settle trade disputes.

Strikes: The Act prohibited strikes or lock-outs without notice in public utility services; it also made any strike or lock-out illegal which had any object other than the furtherance of a trade dispute within the trade or industry.

http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/8113/12/12_chapter%203.pdf

Solution: B

Option B: Decentralization and grass roots empowerment are the core guiding principles of local self-government as under 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment. For e.g. Gram Panchayats can sanction sanitation and welfare projects on their own.

Option A: Local bodies are not federal entities as is the position of states in India.

Option C: This isn’t administrative delegation because local self-government bodies are political entities that are elected directly (or indirectly) by people and managed by their representatives.

Option D: Since it involves election and indirect decision making by people’s representatives, there can be no direct democracy (where all decisions are made directly by the people).

Solution: D

Justification: It is the fundamental rights that constitute limitations upon state action (whether legislative or executive).

The directive principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to achieve certain ends by their actions. It guides them, not restricts them.

Solution: C

Why: Brexit from Euro Zone brought focus on EU amid impending Global Digital revolution. UPSC lifted this from EU’s official website.

Justification: The Digital Single Market is part of the Digital Agenda for Europe 2020 program of the EU, an initiative of Europe 2020 proposed strategy.

The three said “pillars” of the European Commission strategy are:

Access to online products and services

Conditions for digital networks and services to grow and thrive Growth of the European digital economy

https://ec.europa.eu/commission/priorities/digital-single-market_en

Solution: C

Why: Chandipur-on-sea and Gopalpur-on-sea are frequently mentioned in past year papers of UPSC. This question is an improvisation of these places mentioned in the options of those papers.

Justification: Chandipur-on-sea (Odisha) beach is unique in that the water recedes up to 5 kilometers during the ebb tide.

You can ‘literally’ walk into the beach as the sea water recedes away from the shore line during the ebb tide (time period between the high tide and the low tide).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chandipur,_Odisha

Solution: B

Why: Current Events: Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 has been amended by the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016 (BTP Amendment Act).

Justification: Statement 1: “Ignorance of law cannot be an excuse for the violation of law” is a basic principle based on which statement 1 is wrong.

Statement 2:  Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government without payment of compensation.

Statement 3: An appellate mechanism has been provided under the PBPT Act in the form of Adjudicating Authority and Appellate Tribunal.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=153085

Solution: C

Statement 1: Bees and butterflies play a vital role in the pollination of plants and the production of crops by transporting pollen grains from one place to another.

Statement 2: This is an absurd statement.

Statement 3: These are some of the common predators of butterflies: wasps, ants, parasitic flies, birds, snakes, toads, rats etc. The decline in butterfly population would therefore adversely affect the food chain. http://www.thebutterflysite.com/what-eats- butterflies.shtml#sthash.PPoslJj4.dpuf

Solution: B

Justification: Statement 1: Algaculture (farming algae) can be initiated on land unsuitable for agriculture or saline water or wastewater. So, 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: Producing algae for bio-fuels (excluding simple seaweed production) requires significant capital investments, which may be a significant barrier in developing countries that have a weak investment climate.

Producing biofuels from algae is still in a pre-commercial state of technology development. Most production plants are therefore prototypes, and the development and engineering of such plants requires a high level of expertise.

Statement 3: Using the land allotted to food crops to algal biofuel reduces the amount of food available for humans, resulting in an increased cost for both the food and the fuel produced. This is an ecological as well as economic concern.

http://www.climatetechwiki.org/technology/algae

Solution: A

Why: Picked from the recent schemes section of the Ministry of Women and Child Development Website.

Justification: Statement 3 and 4 are wrong because there is no mention of eggs or unpolished rice or millets in the official release document: http://wcd.nic.in/sites/default/files/Multisectoralprog.pdf

http://wcd.nic.in/documents/national-nutrition-mission-nnm

Solution: B

Statement 1: It is wrong.

The 1881 Act aimed to improve working condtions of labour.

It prohibited the employment of children under the age of seven, limited the number of working hours for children below the age of twelve and required that dangerous machinery should be fenced properly.

Statement 2:  Lokhande was a pioneer of the labour movement in India. He is remembered not only for ameliorating the working conditions of textile mill-hands in the 19th century but also for his courageous initiatives on caste and communal issues.

http://tinyurl.com/y7jy5ybj

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Narayan_Meghaji_Lokhande

Solution: D

Geo-sequestration is a method that involves injecting carbon dioxide, generally in supercritical form, directly into underground geological formations.

Statement 1: Unmineable coal seams can be used to store CO2 because the CO2 molecules attach to the surface of coal.

Statement 2: CO2 is sometimes injected into declining oil fields to increase oil recovery.

Other potential sites are gas fields, saline formations (statement 3), unmineable coal seams, and saline-filled basalt formations can act as storage sites.

After sequestration, various physical (e.g., highly impermeable caprock) and geochemical trapping mechanisms prevent the CO2 from escaping to the surface.

Solution: D

Justification: It was also known as the Indian states committee.

Relations between the Indian Princes and the crown were not well defined because the extent of sovereignty of the Paramount power was not settled properly.

The Indian states committee (under the Chairmanship of Harcourt Butler) in 1927 was appointed to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the Princes.

http://tinyurl.com/yatpetz2

Solution: A

Why: Frequently in news due to being related to WTO disputes and India’s solar power ambitions.

Justification: India’s Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (JNNSM) favours Indian manufacturers of solar panels and cells in government procurement. This is known as DCR.

The WTO’s Appellate Body has declared domestic content requirement (DCRs) in JNNSM as illegal.

The US alleged that India’s subsidies for the JNNSM discriminates against foreign suppliers of solar component.

The primary point of conflict is with regards to government entering into long term electricity purchase contract with eligible solar power developers (SPDs), assuring them guaranteed prices for 25 years.

http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wto-rules-against-india-s-domestic-content- requirements-in-solar-power-50977

Solution: D

Justification: Statement 1: It is wrong.

In his 2009 speech, Obama (Former US President) stated that nuclear terrorism “is the most immediate and extreme threat to global security.”

To mitigate this threat, he urged that “we act with purpose and without delay,” announcing “a new international effort to secure vulnerable nuclear material around the world” that would begin with “a Global Summit on Nuclear Security that the United States will host.”

http://www.nss2016.org/about-nss/history/ Statement 2: This is also wrong.

Established in 2006, it is a group of independent nuclear experts from 18 countries: Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Iran, Japan, the Netherlands, Mexico, Norway, Pakistan, South Korea, Russia, South Africa, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

It aims to advance international initiatives to “secure and to sharply reduce all stocks of highly enriched uranium and separated plutonium, the key materials in nuclear weapons, and to limit any further production”

http://www.fissilematerials.org/ipfm/about.html

Solution: C

Justification: Statement 1 and 2: A citizen of India, whether resident or non-resident can join NPS, subject to that he should be between 18 and 60 years old. So, 1 and 2 are wrong.

Statement 4: NPS is applicable to all new employees of Central Government service (except Armed Forces) and Central Autonomous Bodies joining Government service on or after 1st January 2004. So, 4 is incorrect.

https://india.gov.in/spotlight/national-pension-system-retirement-plan-all

Solution: B

Justification: Statement 1 and 3: Teesta River originates from the Pahunri glacier. Brahmaputra originates in Angsi glacier. Teesta is a tributary of Brahmaputra. So, 1 is wrong.

But, Teesta flows through West Bengal and Sikkim, before going to Bay of Bengal through Bangladesh. Statement 3 is incorrect.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Teesta_River

http://www.india-wris.nrsc.gov.in/wrpinfo/index.php?title=Brahmaputra

Statement 2:  Rangeet is a tributary of the Teesta river, which is the largest river in Sikkim. It also originates in Sikkim.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rangeet_River

Solution: C

Justification: Statement 1:  Zika virus is transmitted to people primarily through the bite of an infected Aedes species mosquito (Ae. aegypti and Ae. albopictus). These are the same mosquitoes that spread dengue and chikungunya viruses.

Statement 2:  Zika can be passed through sex from a person who has Zika to his or her partners. Zika can be passed through sex, even if the infected person does not have symptoms at the time.

https://www.cdc.gov/zika/transmission/index.html

Solution: A

Justification: Statement 1:  You can find it here http://www.bis.org.in/cert/ProdUnManCert.asp

Statement 2:  AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of standards approved by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, an agency of the Government of India.

http://www.agritech.tnau.ac.in/amis/food_agmark.html

Solution: D

Justification: All of these are protected scheduled animals under the Wildlife Act.

http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife2s1.pdf

• Solution: C

Justification: Statement 1:  This is the reason why this policy was introduced.

Statement 2:  The action by different Ministries/ Departments shall be monitored by DIPP which shall be the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=145338

• Solution: D

Justification: All of these are protected scheduled animals under the Wildlife Act.

http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife2s1.pdf

• Solution: D

Justification:

Both the statements are incorrect.

• Solution: B

Justification: Statement 1:  The first committee of the association was composed of: Raja Radhakanta Deb – President, Raja Kalikrishna Deb – Vice-President, Debendranath Tagore – secretary, et al.

Statement 2:  In 1884, M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana Sabha.

Statement 3:   IA was the first avowed nationalist organization founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_National_Association

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_Indian_Association

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Madras_Mahajana_Sabha

Solution: B

Straightforward question

• Solution: C

Justification: Statement 1:  The Quality Council of India (QCI) is a pioneering experiment of the Government of India in setting up organizations in partnership with the Indian industry.

Statement 2:  QCI is governed by a Council comprising of 38 members including the Chairman and Secretary General where the Chairman is nominated by Prime Minister of India.

http://www.qcin.org/about-qci.php

http://www.qcin.org/member.php

Solution: A

Justification: As per RBI Guidelines, “The objectives of setting up of small finance banks will be to further financial inclusion by (a) provision of savings vehicles, and (ii) supply of credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and small industries; and other unorganised sector entities, through high technology-low cost operations.” It will thus support unserved and underserved sections.

However, apart from the provision of credit, there is no explicit provision that SFBs have been setup to encourage setting of businesses in rural areas. Statement 3 will be considered wrong.

https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=32614

http://www.livemint.com/Money/LICgY5E6zyOhLxkui5WUdJ/Savings-and-loans-with- the-new-small-banks.html

Solution: D

Justification: Statement 1:  The 2006 New Delhi APMCHUD conference theme was “A vision for sustainable urbanisation in the Asia-Pacific by 2020”. So, 1 is wrong.

Statement 2:  Second Conference was held in Tehran, Iran.

http://www.apmchud.com/PDF/1st%20conference%20proceedings.pdf

http://www.apmchud.com/2stConference/Proceedings.aspx

Solution: A

Justification: This is another ambiguously framed question.

Option A: Democracy allows you to vote (by exercising your intellect), it gives you liberty and freedom of expression (so that you intellectual potential is fulfilled), and ensures adherence of moral values (character) such as justice and equality. So, A seems appropriate.

Option B: There is no ground for this statement.

Option C: Since it specifies a “superior individual”, it attaches a sense of privilege to selected people, which is against democratic values. It also does not clarify what the dynamism and vision means.

Option D: No ground.

Solution: A

Justification: Option A and D: UPI allows a customer to pay directly from a bank account to different merchants, both online and offline, without the hassle of typing credit card details, IFSC code, or net banking/wallet passwords. So, A is correct and thus D is inappropriate in this context (as we are not talking about government to people transfer through UPI).

Option B and C: These are uncertain events, hence discarded.

http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/What-is-Unified-Payment- Interface/article14593189.ece

Solution: A

Justification: Singularity and event horizons are related to Black Holes. Standard model of physics tries to explain universal phenomena.

String theory is used in the context of quantum physics that is used to understand quantum phenomena.

Solution: D

Justification: Genome sequencing is figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome—the order of As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that make up an organism’s DNA.

Justification: Statement 1:  Currently available newborn screening (genome) for childhood diseases allows detection of rare disorders that can be prevented or better treated by early detection and intervention.

https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/whole-genome-sequencing-predict-disease/

Statement 2:  Naturally if the gene potential can be identified by screening and sequencing, it will help in better genetic engineering.

Statement 3: This can be reasoned logically based on the above.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Whole_genome_sequencing

Solution: C

Straightforward question based on the core Parliamentary democracy principles.

Solution: A

Justification: Rights and duties have an organic relationship. One cannot enjoy a right if others do not obey their duties.

For e.g. you can’t enjoy your Right to a clean environment if others do not perform their duty of protecting and conserving the environment.

Solution: A

Straightforward question

Solution: B

Justification: You need to cross Nagaland (origin), Assam, WB, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and then through either Tamilnadu to Kerala (Kottayam), or through AP to Karnataka to Kerala: 7 states either way.

Solution: D

Justification: Statement 1:  Matters of urgent importance can be raised in Adjournment motion.

Statement 2 and 3:  MPs hold the executive accountable by asking questions, and supplementary questions.

Answer: B

Justification: Motupalli was a famous sea port during Kakatiya Period. Marcopolo, a Portuguese navigator, visited this place and wrote about the prosperity and power of Andhra Desa during the reign of Kakatiya kings in his travelogue. The village is also referred to as ‘Mohanagiripuram’. The prominence of Motupalli declined gradually with the advent of the Britishers on the East coast who focused their trading activities mostly from Machilipatnam (located in the present Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh)

Solution: A

Justification: Only statement 1 and 2 are correct

Statement 1: The GCCA was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, in particular least developed countries (LDCs) and Small Island developing States (SIDS).

Statement 2: By fostering effective dialogue and cooperation on climate change, the Alliance helps to ensure that poor developing countries most vulnerable to climate change increase their capacities to adapt to the effects of climate change, in support of the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs).

Statement 3: There is no mention of WRI and WBCSD at the official partners’ page of GCCA, even though a lot of other institutions are mentioned like FAO, UNDP etc. Hence, this statement is wrong.

Reference: http://www.gcca.eu/about-the-gcca/partners

Solution: B

Justification:

Statement 1: These are sects of Buddhism.

Statement 2:  While, like all Buddhists, the Sarvastivadins consider everything empirical to be impermanent, they maintain that the dharma factors are eternally existing realities.

Reference: https://www.britannica.com/topic/Sarvastivada

Solution: C

Justification:

Solution: D

Justification: NIIF has been structured as a fund of funds and set up as Category II Alternate Investment Fund (AIF) under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Regulations. Total corpus of the fund is Rs. 40000 Crore.

Reference: http://arthapedia.in/index.php%3Ftitle%3DNational_Investment_and_Infrastructure_Fund_(NIIF)

Solution: B

Justification: It was launched by the World Bank to cater to infrastructure needs of countries.

Reference: http://www.globalinfrafacility.org/what-is-the-gif

Solution: C

Justification:

A person must satisfy all following conditions to be qualified to become a member of parliament of the Lok Sabha;

• Must be a citizen of India.
• Must not be less than 25 years of age.
• Must be a voter for any parliamentary constituency in India.
• Candidate of a recognised political party needs one proposer from his constituency for his nomination.
• An independent candidate needs ten proposers.
• Candidates are required to make a security deposit of ₹25,000 (US$350)

A person would be ineligible for being a Member of the Lok Sabha if the person;

• Holds any office of profit under the Government of India (other than an office permitted by Parliament of India by law).
• Is of unsound mind.
• Is an insolvent.
• Has ceased to be a citizen of India.
• Is so disqualified by any law made by the Indian parliament.
• Is so disqualified on the ground of defection.
• Has been convicted, among other things, for promoting enmity between different groups.
• Has been convicted for offence of bribery.
• Has been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry, or sati.
• Has been convicted for an offence and sentenced to imprisonment of more than two years.
• Has been dismissed for corruption or for disloyalty to the state (in case of a government servant).

Solution: B

Justification:

Statement 1: Himalayas are spread over almost all the Northern and north-eastern Indian states. Statement 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: Western Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat (6 states). Hence, this statement is also wrong

Statement 3: Pulicat Lake (second largest brackish water lake in India) straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states (2 states).

Solution: C

Justification: It is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed (i.e., demanded) by aerobic biological organisms to break down organic material present in a given water sample at certain temperature over a specific time period.

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biochemical_oxygen_demand

Solution: B

Justification: Statement 1 and 3: They are correct.

Statement 1: The United Nations Human Settlements Programme is the United Nations programme for human settlements and sustainable urban development. It was established in 1978 as an outcome of the first United Nations Conference on Human Settlements and Sustainable Urban Development held in Vancouver, Canada, in 1976. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

https://unhabitat.org/about-us/history-mandate-role-in-the-un-system/

Statement 2:   Through drawing together cooperation with committed partners, relevant stakeholders, and urban actors, including at all levels of government as well as the private sector, UN-Habitat is applying its technical expertise to the New Urban Agenda and Sustainable Development Goa. India was unanimously elected as the President of Un- Habitat in March 2017. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Statement 3: The mandate of UN-Habitat derives from the Habitat Agenda, adopted by the United Nations Conference on Human Settlements (Habitat II) in Istanbul, Turkey, in 1996. The twin goals of the Habitat Agenda are adequate shelter for all and the development of sustainable human settlements in an urbanizing world.

UN–HABITAT considers this approach as having a great potential for promoting regional socio-economic development and, in particular, for generating employment opportunities, and thus contributing to poverty alleviation in both rural and urban areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Reference: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=161631

Solution: B

Justification:

Statement 1:  NSQF levels, graded from one to ten, are defined in terms of learning outcomes which the learner must possess regardless of whether they are obtained through formal, non-formal or informal learning. Hence, given statement 1 is wrong.

Statement 2:  Specific outcomes expected from implementation of NSQF are:

• Mobility between vocational and general education by alignment of degrees with NSQF
• Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL), allowing transition from non-formal to organised job market
• Standardized, consistent, nationally acceptable outcomes of training across the country through a national quality assurance framework

Hence, given statement 2 is correct

Reference: http://www.skilldevelopment.gov.in/nsqf.html

Solution: D

Justification

Dyarchy is a system of double government introduced by the Government of India Act (1919) for the provinces of British India. It marked the first introduction of the democratic principle into the executive branch of the British administration of India.

The principle of dyarchy was a division of the executive branch of each provincial government into authoritarian and popularly responsible sections. The first was composed of executive councilors, appointed, as before, by the crown. The second was composed of ministers who were chosen by the governor from the elected members of the provincial legislature. These latter ministers were Indians.

Solution: D

Justification:

Statement 1: It is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Labor and Employment. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Statement 2: National Career Service is a Five Year Mission Mode Project being implemented by the Directorate General of Employment, Ministry of Labour & Employment. National Career Service (NCS) is a one-stop solution that provides a wide array of employment and career related services to the citizens of India. It works towards bridging the gap between jobseekers and employers, candidates seeking training and career guidance, agencies providing training and career counseling. The service is not restricted to just unemployed youth as indicated in the given statement. Hence, statement 2 is also not correct.

Reference: http://www.labour.nic.in/national-career-servicencs

Solution: B

Justification:

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued guidelines called Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) as an optional framework to manage bad loans.
• Under this scheme, large ticket loans are restructured by separating a sustainable loan from an unsustainable loan.
• The lenders are required to make this classification. Sustainable level of debt is one which the banks think the stressed borrower can service with its current cash flows.

Reference: https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=10446&Mode=0

Solution: B

Justification

• Statement 1: The Climate and Clean Air Coalition to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (CCAC) was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and six countries—Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States—in   Hence, statement 1 is wrong
• Statement 2: The Coalition’s initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Reference: http://www.ccacoalition.org/en/content/about-us

Solution: B

Justification

Statement 1:  The IOD, also known as the Indian Niño, is an irregular oscillation of sea-surface temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the Indian ocean (not tropical eastern pacific ocean). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Statement 2:   IOD has a much more significant effect on the rainfall patterns in south- east Australia than the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) in the Pacific Ocean as shown in several recent studies.

Reference:

1. http://www.bom.gov.au/climate/iod/
2. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Ocean_Dipole

Solution: B

Justification:

• Option A: Gharials inhabit deep freshwater habitats, not both freshwater and saltwater habitats as inhabited by crocodile species. So, A is ruled out. Option A is the home of saltwater crocodile.
• Option B: Gharials can be naturally found in National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary.
• The gharial is one of three crocodilians native to India, the other two being the mugger crocodile and the saltwater crocodile.

Solution: B

Justification

Statement 1: The inaugural IONS-2008 was held in New Delhi, India. CNS, Indian Navy was designated the Chairman IONS for the period 2008-10. Hence, statement 1 is not correct

Statement 2:  The ‘Indian Ocean Naval Symposium‘ (IONS) is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Reference: http://ions.gov.in/about_ions

Solution: A

Justification

Cave 1 of Ajanta paintings contains twenty painted and carved pillars. Above the pillars are reliefs depicting tales from the life of Buddha (Jataka tales). Located at the rear of the hall is a large shrine of the Buddha. The walls were originally covered in paintings, but today there are only nine surviving images, the most famous being the Bodhisattva Padmapani (Padmapani in Sanskrit literally translates into “one who holds the lotus”).

Solution: A

Justification: Only statement 1 is correctly matched

Statement 1: Chalio / Chaliho also called Chaliho Sahib is a forty-day-long festival celebrated by Sindhi Hindu community

Statement 2:  Nanda Devi Raj JaatYatra is a festival of Gharwali and kumauoni people in Uttarakhand.

Statement 3: WariWarkari or Varkari (PandharpurWari) is a Maharashtrian festival celebrated by Marathas.

Solution: C

Justification: Only statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.

Statement 1: Tillage is the agricultural preparation of soil by mechanical agitation of various types, such as digging, stirring, and overturning. No-till farming (also called zero tillage or direct drilling) is a way of growing crops or pasture from year to year without disturbing the soil through tillage. Zero tillage helps in soil moisture conservation.

Statement 2: It is not correct since Gypsum is neutral in pH, and since it has no carbonate ion as part of its makeup, it will not neutralize acidity. Applying gypsum to the soil will raise the calcium and sulfur levels of the soil, but it will not raise the pH.

Statement 3: It is correct since crop residue is an effective material that can minimize the erosion of soil by wind and water. Residues reduce the forces of wind and water that would otherwise act upon loose particles at the soil surface. Residues also provide thermal protection to plants from winter temperature extremes.

Solution: B

Justification

Statement 3: Soil Health card (SHC) is a printed report card issued to farmers in once in three years indicating the status of his soil in terms of 12 parameters. It is also accompanied by an advice on the various fertilizers and other soil amendments he is suppose to make. So, only 3 is correct.

Statement 2: This can be an outcome of the scheme and complement it, but it is not an aim or a central feature of the scheme. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Statement 1: It is not correct since the aim of the scheme is to improve soil fertility that can increase crop productivity.

Reference: http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Soil_Health_Card_(SHC)

Solution: D

Justification Statement 1: It is one of the ingredients (Refernce: http://www.safecosmetics.org/get-the-facts/regulations/us-laws/lead-in-lipstick/)

Statement 2:   Brominated vegetable oil is used primarily to help emulsify citrus-flavored soft drinks, preventing them from separating during distribution.

Statement 3: This was found in Maggi.

Solution: C

Justification: Statement 1 and 2:  A major advantage of OLED over LCD is that it is lightweight and has flexible plastic substrates.

• OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates, leading to the possible fabrication of flexible organic light-emitting diodes for other new applications, such as roll-up displays embedded in fabrics or clothing.
• If a substrate like polyethylene terephthalate (PET) can be used, the displays may be produced inexpensively.
• Furthermore, plastic substrates are shatter-resistant, unlike the glass displays used in LCD devices.

Statement 3: At the Consumer Electronics Show (CES) in 2010, Samsung demonstrated a laptop computer with a large, transparent OLED display featuring up to 40% transparency.

• Solution: A

Justification:

• Statement 1: Arasavalli Sun Temple is a 7th-century AD Sun Temple at Arasavalli in Andhra Pradesh.
• Statement 2: The famous Amarkantak temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva
• Statement 3: Omkareshwar is a temple dedicated to God Shiva.

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omkareshwar

Solution: D

Justification

Statement 1: We follow the First past the post system, where majority of votes is sufficient to get elected, even if it is less than 50% of the total votes polled. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Statement 2:  Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the house. This is a convention (not constitutional provision) that usually Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution: B

Justification

• Statement 1: It has reduced post-1991.
• Statement 2, 3 and 4: These happened on account of liberalization of the current as well capital account. From the time when India could have defaulted BoP in 1991, we have reached a situation today where forex reserves are over $350 billion!

Solution: C

Justification: Somatic cell cloning is a technique in which the nucleus (DNA) of a somatic cell is transferred for the generation of a new individual, genetically identical to the somatic cell donor.

Reference: https://www.sciencedaily.com/terms/somatic_cell_nuclear_transfer.htm

Solution: C

Justification: Both the statements are correct

Statement 1:  NPCI is an umbrella organization for all retail payments system in India. Thus, an important objective of NPCI is to facilitate an affordable payment mechanism to benefit the common man across the country and help financial inclusion.

Statement 2: Rupay is a domestic card payment network that provides an alternative to international card schemes. It was introduced by NPCI.

Reference: http://www.npci.org.in/aboutus.aspx

Solution: B

Justification: The android-based monitoring software M-STrIPES will be used across all the Tiger Reserves of the country.

Reference: http://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2017/feb/08/m-stripes-to-monitor-str-from-april-1568257.html

Solution: A

Justification

• Statement 1: It is a standard aim of GST. Hence, it is correct
• Statement 2: It may reduce the fiscal deficit in the long-run and may place CAD favorably due to better foreign investment climate owing to an improved tax But, the word ‘drastically’ is extreme and so the statement is incorrect.
• Statement 3: This is also an extreme statement and wrong.

Solution: A

Justification

On 28th June 2007, India and the EU began negotiations on a broad–based Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) in Brussels, Belgium. The aim of the proposed agreement is to promote bilateral trade by removing barriers to trade in goods and services and investment across all sectors of the economy.

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/India%E2%80%93European_Union_relations#History

Solution: A

Justification:

WTO members concluded negotiations at the 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference on the landmark Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), which entered into force on 22 February 2017 following its ratification by two-thirds of the WTO membership (which included India). Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Reference: wto.org/english/tratop_e/tradfa_e/tradfa_e.htm

Solution: C

Justification: The port will make way for India to bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan using a sea-land route. At present, Pakistan does not allow India to transport through its territory to Afghanistan.

Reference: http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/five-things-about-chabahar-port-and-how-india-gains-from-it/articleshow/52400399.cms

Solution: D

Justification: The CERT Rules also impose an obligation on service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates to report cyber incidents within a reasonable time so that CERT-In may have scope for timely action.

Reference: https://cis-india.org/internet-governance/blog/incident-response-requirements-in-indian-law

Solution C

Justification:

Article 326 of constitution grants adult suffrage which implies the right to vote. Hence, right to vote is a constitutional right. It is true that Representation of People’s Act also provides for a Right to Vote, but they may be considered qualifications (conditions) on the Right to Vote already granted by the constitution in A326.

Solution: B

Justification: eLISA’s primary objective is the detection and examination of gravitational waves emitted by the super-massive black holes that reside in the centres of many galaxies. In addition, eLISA will measure the signals of thousands of compact binary star systems in the Milky Way.

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laser_Interferometer_Space_Antenna

Solution: A

Justification: Only statement 2 is correct

• This programme has been envisaged to bring together people willing to volunteer their services at schools which really need them.
• The aim of the programme is to strengthen implementation of co-scholastic activities in government schools through services of volunteers.

Reference: http://vidyanjali.mygov.in/index.php/frontend/guideline

Solution: B

Justification: MHRD has launched a programme called Unnat Bharat Abhiyan with an aim to connect institutions of higher education, including Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), National Institutes of Technology (NITs) and Indian Institutes of Science Education & Research (IISERs) etc. with local communities to address the development challenges through appropriate technologies.

Reference: http://unnat.iitd.ac.in/index.php/en/

Solution: D

Justification: Only statement 3 is correct

• Statement 1: Presently it is a three member body, one CEC and two other
• Statement 2: ECI decides this schedule.
• Statement 3: Splits, mergers and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political parties.
• This has led to a number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and state parties.
• The Election Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.

Reference: http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/the_function.aspx#splitsandmergers

Solution: A

Justification: Schedule I animals under the Wildlife Act enjoy the highest protection in India. Since tiger is also covered in Schedule I, option A is correct.

Reference: http://www.envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife2s1.pdf

Solution: A

Justification: Judicial Review refers to the power of the judiciary to interpret the constitution and to declare any such law or order of the legislature and executive void, if it finds them in conflict the Constitution of India.

Solution: C

Justification: Second Round Conference happened in 1931, Quit India Movement in1942 and Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy in 1946.

Solution: D

Justification: neither of the statements are correct

Statement 1: It asks about India’s Tax buoyancy, which the responsiveness of tax revenue mobilization to GDP growth.

It is calculated as a ratio of percentage growth in tax revenues to growth in nominal GDP for a given year.

Tax is said to be buoyant (more than 1) if the gross tax revenues increase more than proportionately in response to a rise in GDP figures. If it is less than 1, it means tax revenues have not increased proportionately with GDP growth.

So, statement 1 is wrong.

https://thewire.in/32648/new-data-indicates-that-direct-tax-share-in-economy-is-at-decade-low/

Statement 2: Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP had increased rapidly in recession years (post 2008) due the fiscal stimulus given by the government and then declined due to the fiscal consolidation measures adopted. So, 2 is also wrong.

Reference: http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/tax-buoyancy-improves-thanks-to-indirect-levy/article9466851.ece

Solution: B

Justification: In news and mired by controversies due to Gujarat government’s reluctance to send tigers to MP. The Supreme Court in 2013 ruled in favour of translocation of the Asiatic lion to Kuno in the interest of the genetic stability of the species.

Reference: http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/gujarat-swallows-its-pride-may-agree-to-translocate-gir-lions-to-kuno-sanctuary/articleshow/52803382.cms

Solution: B

Justification: Only statement 1 and 3 are correct

• Statement 2: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.

Statement 1 and 3: The President can either suspend or dissolve the Legislative assembly, so 1is not necessarily the consequence of proclamation. Also, no dissolution of the local bodies happens after the proclamation of President’s rule

Solution: C

Justification: Only 1 and 4 are correct

• Abolition of untouchability comes under Right to Equality.
• Protection of the interests of minorities comes under Cultural and Educational Rights.

Solution: A

Justification: Distance from Great Nicobar to Sri Lanka is 1,437 km. Distance from Great Nicobar to Sumatra is 1,192 km.

Solution: C

Justification: A Parliamentary government is also known as the cabinet form of government because the cabinet is the real executive in it. It is also called responsible government, since the cabinet always remains responsible to the legislature for its activities

Solution: D

Justification: The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation.

The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.