INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following circumstances or situation centre can give directions to the states
- The construction and maintenance of means of communication.
- The measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state.
- Day to day administration of State
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
Centre’s Directions to the States
In addition to the above two cases, the Centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to the exercise of their executive power in the following matters:
(i) the construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of national or military importance) by the state; Hence Statement 1 is correct.
(ii) the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state; Hence Statement 2 is correct.
(iii) the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups in the state; and
(iv) the drawing up and execution of the specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Centre’s Directions to the States
In addition to the above two cases, the Centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to the exercise of their executive power in the following matters:
(i) the construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of national or military importance) by the state; Hence Statement 1 is correct.
(ii) the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state; Hence Statement 2 is correct.
(iii) the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups in the state; and
(iv) the drawing up and execution of the specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Foundation for Communal Harmony
- It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Union Home Ministry.
- It provides financial assistance to the child victims of societal violence for their care, education and training.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) was set up in 1992. It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Union Home Ministry. It promotes communal harmony, fraternity and national integration. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The activities undertaken by the NFCH are mentioned below:
- To provide financial assistance to the child victims of societal violence for their care, education and training, aimed at their effective rehabilitation. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- To promote communal harmony and national integration by organising variety of activities either independently or in association with educational institutions, NGOs & other organisations
- To conduct studies and grant scholarships to institutions / scholars for conducting studies
Incorrect
Solution: C
The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) was set up in 1992. It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Union Home Ministry. It promotes communal harmony, fraternity and national integration. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The activities undertaken by the NFCH are mentioned below:
- To provide financial assistance to the child victims of societal violence for their care, education and training, aimed at their effective rehabilitation. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- To promote communal harmony and national integration by organising variety of activities either independently or in association with educational institutions, NGOs & other organisations
- To conduct studies and grant scholarships to institutions / scholars for conducting studies
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of these constitutional provision(s) aim at protecting the linguistic interests of minorities in the states?
- President can direct the government to provide compulsory financial grants and reservation in public jobs to such minorities.
- President can direct the official recognition of a minority language in the state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
There is no such provision for reservation in constitution. Endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
The President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
When the President (on a demand being made) is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognised by that state, then he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognised in that state. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
There is no such provision for reservation in constitution. Endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
The President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
When the President (on a demand being made) is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognised by that state, then he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognised in that state. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Communal award restricted separate electorates for the Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians and Europeans only
- WhitePaper on Consitutional Reforms was prepared by Jawaharlal Nehru.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are incorrect.
In August 1932, Ramsay MacDonald, the British Prime Minister, announced a scheme of representation of the minorities, which came to be known as the Communal Award.
Communal award not only continued separate electorates for the Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, AngloIndians and Europeans but also extended it to the depressed classes (scheduled castes).
On the basis of round table discussions, a ‘White Paper on Constitutional Reforms’ was prepared and submitted for the consideration of the Joint Select Committee of the British Parliament.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are incorrect.
In August 1932, Ramsay MacDonald, the British Prime Minister, announced a scheme of representation of the minorities, which came to be known as the Communal Award.
Communal award not only continued separate electorates for the Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, AngloIndians and Europeans but also extended it to the depressed classes (scheduled castes).
On the basis of round table discussions, a ‘White Paper on Constitutional Reforms’ was prepared and submitted for the consideration of the Joint Select Committee of the British Parliament.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1935.
- It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place.
- It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1919.
- It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces andprincely states as units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The idea of a constituent assembly for India was first put forward by Jawaharlal Nehru
- British principally accepted the idea of constituent assembly for the first time through Cripps Proposal.
- Muslim league accepted the idea of Cripps Proposals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are INCORRECT.
The idea of a constituent assembly for India was first put forward by M.N. Roy in 1934.
The demand for constituent assembly was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940.In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps, a member of the cabinet, came to India with a
draft proposal of the British Government on the framing of an independent Constitution to be adopted after the World War II.The Cripps Proposals were rejected by the Muslim League which wanted
India to be divided into two autonomous states with two separate Constituent Assemblies.Finally, a Cabinet Mission was sent to India. While it rejected the idea of two Constituent Assemblies, it put forth a scheme for the Constituent Assembly which more or less satisfied the Muslim League
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are INCORRECT.
The idea of a constituent assembly for India was first put forward by M.N. Roy in 1934.
The demand for constituent assembly was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940.In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps, a member of the cabinet, came to India with a
draft proposal of the British Government on the framing of an independent Constitution to be adopted after the World War II.The Cripps Proposals were rejected by the Muslim League which wanted
India to be divided into two autonomous states with two separate Constituent Assemblies.Finally, a Cabinet Mission was sent to India. While it rejected the idea of two Constituent Assemblies, it put forth a scheme for the Constituent Assembly which more or less satisfied the Muslim League
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsA Democratic constitution would lose its credibility if
Correct
Solution: B
The Indian constitution borrows heavily from the constitution of other nations.
Suppose if the constituent assembly of India consisted of British administrators and only members of princely states, we wouldn’t have acknowledged the framing of the constitution as just and democratic.
Democracies can decide to vest greater or lesser power in its federal units; its only a matter of political structure. A democracy need not be secular, for e.g. Pakistan.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Indian constitution borrows heavily from the constitution of other nations.
Suppose if the constituent assembly of India consisted of British administrators and only members of princely states, we wouldn’t have acknowledged the framing of the constitution as just and democratic.
Democracies can decide to vest greater or lesser power in its federal units; its only a matter of political structure. A democracy need not be secular, for e.g. Pakistan.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following events with respect to the Union of India.
- Formation of the State of Nagaland
2. States Reorganization Act
3. Formation of the State of Haryana
4. Formation of the State of Gujarat
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above
events?Correct
Solution: D
By the States Reorganisation Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional
Amendment Act (1956), the distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was done away with and Part-C states were abolished
In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate
states—Maharashtra for Marathi-speaking people and Gujarat for Gujaratispeaking people. Gujarat was established as the 15th state of the Indian Union.
In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy
the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of governor of Assam in 1961.
In 1966, the State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana, the 17th
state of the Indian Union, and the union territory of Chandigarh. On the
recommendation of the Shah Commission (1966), the punjabi-speaking areas were constituted into the unilingual state of Punjab, the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into the State of Haryana and the hill areas were merged with the adjoining union territory of Himachal Pradesh.Incorrect
Solution: D
By the States Reorganisation Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional
Amendment Act (1956), the distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was done away with and Part-C states were abolished
In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate
states—Maharashtra for Marathi-speaking people and Gujarat for Gujaratispeaking people. Gujarat was established as the 15th state of the Indian Union.
In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy
the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of governor of Assam in 1961.
In 1966, the State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana, the 17th
state of the Indian Union, and the union territory of Chandigarh. On the
recommendation of the Shah Commission (1966), the punjabi-speaking areas were constituted into the unilingual state of Punjab, the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into the State of Haryana and the hill areas were merged with the adjoining union territory of Himachal Pradesh. - Formation of the State of Nagaland
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following can be considered as the devices of Direct Democracy?
1. The Plebiscite
2. The Recall
3. The InitiativeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Democracy is of two types—direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the
people exercise their supreme power directly as is the case in Switzerland.
There are four devices of direct democracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative,
Recall and Plebiscite.Referendum is a procedure whereby a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes.
Initiative is a method by means of which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment.
Recall is a method by means of which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of his term, when he fails to discharge his duties properly.
Plebiscite is a method of obtaining the opinion India’s of people on any issue of public importance. It is generally used to solve the territorial disputes.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Democracy is of two types—direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the
people exercise their supreme power directly as is the case in Switzerland.
There are four devices of direct democracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative,
Recall and Plebiscite.Referendum is a procedure whereby a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes.
Initiative is a method by means of which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment.
Recall is a method by means of which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of his term, when he fails to discharge his duties properly.
Plebiscite is a method of obtaining the opinion India’s of people on any issue of public importance. It is generally used to solve the territorial disputes.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Central Electricity Authority of India(CEA) is a statutory organization.
- Council of Scientific and Industrial Research operates as an autonomous body through the Societies Registration Act, 1860
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is an organization originally constituted under Section 3(1) of the repealed Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948, since substituted by Section 70 of the Electricity Act, 2003. It was established as a part-time body in 1951 and made a full-time body in 1975. The functions and duties of CEA are delineated under Section 73 of the Electricity Act, 2003. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established by the Government of India in September of 1942 as an autonomous body that has emerged as the largest research and development organisation in India. Although it is mainly funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology, it operates as an autonomous body through the Societies Registration Act, 1860. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is an organization originally constituted under Section 3(1) of the repealed Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948, since substituted by Section 70 of the Electricity Act, 2003. It was established as a part-time body in 1951 and made a full-time body in 1975. The functions and duties of CEA are delineated under Section 73 of the Electricity Act, 2003. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established by the Government of India in September of 1942 as an autonomous body that has emerged as the largest research and development organisation in India. Although it is mainly funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology, it operates as an autonomous body through the Societies Registration Act, 1860. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsKupgallu, Piklihal and Tekkalkota are famous as
Correct
Solution: A
The granite rocks of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh provided suitable canvases to the Neolithic man for his paintings. There are several such
sites but more famous among them are Kupgallu, Piklihal and Tekkalkota. Three types of paintings have been reported from here—paintings in white, paintings in red ochre over a white background and paintings in red ochre.Incorrect
Solution: A
The granite rocks of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh provided suitable canvases to the Neolithic man for his paintings. There are several such
sites but more famous among them are Kupgallu, Piklihal and Tekkalkota. Three types of paintings have been reported from here—paintings in white, paintings in red ochre over a white background and paintings in red ochre. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following sites given belonged to Mauryan period?
- Sarnath
- Dhauli
- Lauriya Nandangarh
- Rampurva
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
The Mauryan period provides the earliest examples of ancient Indian art and
architecture. Megasthenes has described the grandeur of the Mauryan palace at Pataliputra.Some remains of this palace have been found at Kumrhar near
Patna. Ashokan pillars at Rampurva, Lauriya Nandangarh and Sarnath present excellent examples of stone sculptures which developed in this period.Dhauli is located on the banks of the river Daya, 8 km south of Bhubaneswar in Odisha, India. It is a hill with vast open space adjoining it, and has major Edicts of Ashoka engraved on a mass of rock, by the side of the road leading to the summit of the hill.
The Lomas Rishi Cave, also called the Grotto of Lomas Rishi, is one of the man-made Barabar Caves in the Barabar and Nagarjuni hills of Jehanabad district in the Indian state of Bihar. This rock-cut cave was carved out as a sanctuary. It was built during the Ashokan period of the Maurya Empire in the 3rd century BC, as part of the sacred architecture of the Ajivikas, an ancient religious and philosophical group of India that competed with Jainism and became extinct over time.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Mauryan period provides the earliest examples of ancient Indian art and
architecture. Megasthenes has described the grandeur of the Mauryan palace at Pataliputra.Some remains of this palace have been found at Kumrhar near
Patna. Ashokan pillars at Rampurva, Lauriya Nandangarh and Sarnath present excellent examples of stone sculptures which developed in this period.Dhauli is located on the banks of the river Daya, 8 km south of Bhubaneswar in Odisha, India. It is a hill with vast open space adjoining it, and has major Edicts of Ashoka engraved on a mass of rock, by the side of the road leading to the summit of the hill.
The Lomas Rishi Cave, also called the Grotto of Lomas Rishi, is one of the man-made Barabar Caves in the Barabar and Nagarjuni hills of Jehanabad district in the Indian state of Bihar. This rock-cut cave was carved out as a sanctuary. It was built during the Ashokan period of the Maurya Empire in the 3rd century BC, as part of the sacred architecture of the Ajivikas, an ancient religious and philosophical group of India that competed with Jainism and became extinct over time.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Operation Clean Art:
- It was the first pan India operation to crackdown on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country.
- It was conceived by Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Operation Clean Art was the first pan India operation to crack down on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country. Operation Clean Art was conceived by Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB).
The Indian Grey Mongoose is listed in Schedule II while all the other five species are listed in Schedule IV of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Mongoose hair is in high demand among artists worldwide because of the quality of brushes they help create, which define lines clearly and hold paint properly.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Operation Clean Art was the first pan India operation to crack down on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country. Operation Clean Art was conceived by Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB).
The Indian Grey Mongoose is listed in Schedule II while all the other five species are listed in Schedule IV of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Mongoose hair is in high demand among artists worldwide because of the quality of brushes they help create, which define lines clearly and hold paint properly.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWith regard to ‘Padho Pardesh’ scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is a central sector scheme
- It aims to provide financial assistance for Overseas Studies for the Students Belonging to the Minority Communities.
- Under the scheme, the government would reimburse 100 per cent of the interest amount of the educational loan taken.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Padho Pardesh-scheme of interest subsidy on educational loans for overseas studies for the students belonging to the Minority communities. This is a Central Sector Scheme to provide Interest Subsidy to Meritorious Students belonging to economically weaker sections of notified Minority Communities so as to provide them better opportunities for higher education abroad and enhance their employability to pursue study in courses approved in the Scheme
The government has taken the following steps to ensure that these benefits reach the intended beneficiaries.
- The Scholarship Schemes have been restructured to allow for greater transparency and accountability during processing and sanction.
- To help evaluation of flow of benefits, segregated data for the different minority communities is being sought from all Ministries. The states/UTs have also been requested to provide better and timely feedback.
- The scholarship schemes are reviewed regularly through interaction with the State Governments at regular intervals and field visits by the Ministry officials.
- The Online Scholarship Management System (OSMS) earlier introduced for the Merit-cum-Means scholarship scheme has now been extended to Post Matric scholarship scheme.
Schemes
The government would not reimburse 100 per cent of the interest amount of the educational loan taken.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Padho Pardesh-scheme of interest subsidy on educational loans for overseas studies for the students belonging to the Minority communities. This is a Central Sector Scheme to provide Interest Subsidy to Meritorious Students belonging to economically weaker sections of notified Minority Communities so as to provide them better opportunities for higher education abroad and enhance their employability to pursue study in courses approved in the Scheme
The government has taken the following steps to ensure that these benefits reach the intended beneficiaries.
- The Scholarship Schemes have been restructured to allow for greater transparency and accountability during processing and sanction.
- To help evaluation of flow of benefits, segregated data for the different minority communities is being sought from all Ministries. The states/UTs have also been requested to provide better and timely feedback.
- The scholarship schemes are reviewed regularly through interaction with the State Governments at regular intervals and field visits by the Ministry officials.
- The Online Scholarship Management System (OSMS) earlier introduced for the Merit-cum-Means scholarship scheme has now been extended to Post Matric scholarship scheme.
Schemes
The government would not reimburse 100 per cent of the interest amount of the educational loan taken.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Blackbuck species:
- It is naturally found in India only .
- It has been protected under the Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
- It is been categorized as ‘Endangered’ species as per IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The blackbuck, also known as the Indian antelope, is an antelope found in India, Nepal, and Pakistan. The blackbuck is the sole extant member of the genus Antilope.
Until India’s independence in 1947, blackbuck and chinkara were hunted in many princely states with specially trained captive Asiatic cheetahs. By the 1970s, blackbuck was locally extinct in several areas.
The blackbuck is listed under Appendix III of CITES. In India, hunting of blackbuck is prohibited under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
It has been categorized least concerned in IUCN Red Data Book.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The blackbuck, also known as the Indian antelope, is an antelope found in India, Nepal, and Pakistan. The blackbuck is the sole extant member of the genus Antilope.
Until India’s independence in 1947, blackbuck and chinkara were hunted in many princely states with specially trained captive Asiatic cheetahs. By the 1970s, blackbuck was locally extinct in several areas.
The blackbuck is listed under Appendix III of CITES. In India, hunting of blackbuck is prohibited under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
It has been categorized least concerned in IUCN Red Data Book.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Ministry has launched the Seva Bhoj Yojna?
Correct
Solution: B
The Ministry of Culture, Government of India has introduced a new scheme namely ‘Seva Bhoj Yojna’ with a total outlay of Rs. 325.00 Crores for Financial Years 2018-19 and 2019-20.
The scheme envisages to reimburse the Central Government share of Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST)so as to lessen the financial burden of such Charitable Religious Institutions who provide Food/Prasad/Langar (Community Kitchen)/Bhandara free of cost without any discrimination to Public/Devotees.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Ministry of Culture, Government of India has introduced a new scheme namely ‘Seva Bhoj Yojna’ with a total outlay of Rs. 325.00 Crores for Financial Years 2018-19 and 2019-20.
The scheme envisages to reimburse the Central Government share of Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST)so as to lessen the financial burden of such Charitable Religious Institutions who provide Food/Prasad/Langar (Community Kitchen)/Bhandara free of cost without any discrimination to Public/Devotees.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Peninsular River:
- They are seasonal in nature and dependent on monsoon rainfall.
- All the rivers are examples for consequent drainage pattern.
- They are still in a youthful stage when compared to Himalayan rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Incorrect
Solution: A
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following types of soil is generally more suited for growing plantation crops?
Correct
Solution: C
When manured and irrigated, some laterites are suitable for growing plantation crops like tea, coffee, rubber, cinchona, coconut, arecanut, etc.
Incorrect
Solution: C
When manured and irrigated, some laterites are suitable for growing plantation crops like tea, coffee, rubber, cinchona, coconut, arecanut, etc.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO), Act:
- The Act defines a child as any person below 16 years of age.
- Punishment has been provided for making false complaint or proving false information with malicious intent.
- The Act provides for the establishment of Special Courts for trial of offences under the Act
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
In order to effectively address the heinous crimes of sexual abuse and sexual exploitation of children through less ambiguous and more stringent legal provisions, the Ministry of Women and Child Development championed the introduction of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.
Salient features
- The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age, and regards the best interests and well-being of the child as being of paramount importance at every stage, to ensure the healthy physical, emotional, intellectual and social development of the child.
- It defines different forms of sexual abuse, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as sexual harassment and pornography, and deems a sexual assault to be “aggravated” under certain circumstances, such as when the abused child is mentally ill or when the abuse is committed by a person in a position of trust or authority vis-à-vis the child, like a family member, police officer, teacher, or doctor.
- People who traffic children for sexual purposes are also punishable under the provisions relating to abetment in the Act. The Act prescribes stringent punishment graded as per the gravity of the offence, with a maximum term of rigorous imprisonment for life, and fine.
Provisions related to conduct of trial of reported offences:
- The Act provides for the establishment of Special Courts for trial of offences under the Act, keeping the best interest of the child as of paramount importance at every stage of the judicial process.
- The Act incorporates child friendly procedures for reporting, recording of evidence, investigation and trial of offences. These include:
- Recording the statement of the child at the residence of the child or at the place of his choice, preferably by a woman police officer not below the rank of sub-inspector.
- No child to be detained in the police station in the night for any reason.
- Police officer to not be in uniform while recording the statement of the child.
- The statement of the child to be recorded as spoken by the child.
- Assistance of an interpreter or translator or an expert as per the need of the child.
- Assistance of special educator or any person familiar with the manner of communication of the child in case child is disabled
- Medical examination of the child to be conducted in the presence of the parent of the child or any other person in whom the child has trust or confidence.
- In case the victim is a girl child, the medical examination shall be conducted by a woman doctor. Frequent breaks for the child during trial. Child not to be called repeatedly to testify.
- No aggressive questioning or character assassination of the child in-camera trial of cases.
To prevent misuse of the law, punishment has been provided for making false complaint or proving false information with malicious intent. Such punishment has been kept relatively light (six months) to encourage reporting. If false complaint is made against a child, punishment is higher (one year) (Section 22).
http://vikaspedia.in/education/policies-and-schemes/protection-of-children-from-sexual-offences-act
Incorrect
Solution: C
In order to effectively address the heinous crimes of sexual abuse and sexual exploitation of children through less ambiguous and more stringent legal provisions, the Ministry of Women and Child Development championed the introduction of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.
Salient features
- The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age, and regards the best interests and well-being of the child as being of paramount importance at every stage, to ensure the healthy physical, emotional, intellectual and social development of the child.
- It defines different forms of sexual abuse, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as sexual harassment and pornography, and deems a sexual assault to be “aggravated” under certain circumstances, such as when the abused child is mentally ill or when the abuse is committed by a person in a position of trust or authority vis-à-vis the child, like a family member, police officer, teacher, or doctor.
- People who traffic children for sexual purposes are also punishable under the provisions relating to abetment in the Act. The Act prescribes stringent punishment graded as per the gravity of the offence, with a maximum term of rigorous imprisonment for life, and fine.
Provisions related to conduct of trial of reported offences:
- The Act provides for the establishment of Special Courts for trial of offences under the Act, keeping the best interest of the child as of paramount importance at every stage of the judicial process.
- The Act incorporates child friendly procedures for reporting, recording of evidence, investigation and trial of offences. These include:
- Recording the statement of the child at the residence of the child or at the place of his choice, preferably by a woman police officer not below the rank of sub-inspector.
- No child to be detained in the police station in the night for any reason.
- Police officer to not be in uniform while recording the statement of the child.
- The statement of the child to be recorded as spoken by the child.
- Assistance of an interpreter or translator or an expert as per the need of the child.
- Assistance of special educator or any person familiar with the manner of communication of the child in case child is disabled
- Medical examination of the child to be conducted in the presence of the parent of the child or any other person in whom the child has trust or confidence.
- In case the victim is a girl child, the medical examination shall be conducted by a woman doctor. Frequent breaks for the child during trial. Child not to be called repeatedly to testify.
- No aggressive questioning or character assassination of the child in-camera trial of cases.
To prevent misuse of the law, punishment has been provided for making false complaint or proving false information with malicious intent. Such punishment has been kept relatively light (six months) to encourage reporting. If false complaint is made against a child, punishment is higher (one year) (Section 22).
http://vikaspedia.in/education/policies-and-schemes/protection-of-children-from-sexual-offences-act
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Eklavya Model Residential Schools:
- The objective of EMRS is to provide quality middle and high level education to Scheduled Tribe (ST) students in remote areas
- They are set up in States/UTs with grants under Article 275(1) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
In the context of the trend of establishing quality residential schools for the promotion of education in all areas and habitations in the country, the Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) for ST students take their place among the Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas, the Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas and the Kendriya Vidyalayas. Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) are set up in States/UTs with grants under Article 275(1) of the Constitution of India.
The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India.
Objectives of EMRS
The objective of EMRS is to provide quality middle and high level education to Scheduled Tribe (ST) students in remote areas, not only to enable them to avail of reservation in high and professional educational courses and as jobs in government and public and private sectors but also to have access to the best opportunities in education at par with the non ST population. This would be achieved by:
- Comprehensive physical, mental and socially relevant development of all students enrolled in each and every EMRS. Students will be empowered to be change agent, beginning in their school, in their homes, in their village and finally in a larger context.
- Focus differentially on the educational support to be made available to those in Standards XI and XII, and those in standards VI to X, so that their distinctive needs can be met.
- Support the annual running expenses in a manner that offers reasonable remuneration to the staff and upkeep of the facilities.
- Support the construction of infrastructure that provides education, physical, environmental and cultural needs of student life.
http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/scheduled-tribes-welfare/eklavya-model-residential-schools
Incorrect
Solution: C
In the context of the trend of establishing quality residential schools for the promotion of education in all areas and habitations in the country, the Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) for ST students take their place among the Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas, the Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas and the Kendriya Vidyalayas. Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) are set up in States/UTs with grants under Article 275(1) of the Constitution of India.
The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India.
Objectives of EMRS
The objective of EMRS is to provide quality middle and high level education to Scheduled Tribe (ST) students in remote areas, not only to enable them to avail of reservation in high and professional educational courses and as jobs in government and public and private sectors but also to have access to the best opportunities in education at par with the non ST population. This would be achieved by:
- Comprehensive physical, mental and socially relevant development of all students enrolled in each and every EMRS. Students will be empowered to be change agent, beginning in their school, in their homes, in their village and finally in a larger context.
- Focus differentially on the educational support to be made available to those in Standards XI and XII, and those in standards VI to X, so that their distinctive needs can be met.
- Support the annual running expenses in a manner that offers reasonable remuneration to the staff and upkeep of the facilities.
- Support the construction of infrastructure that provides education, physical, environmental and cultural needs of student life.
http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/scheduled-tribes-welfare/eklavya-model-residential-schools
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsUnder the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is responsible for
- Approval of Drugs
- Conduct of Clinical Trials
- Laying down the standards for Drugs
- Control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country
- Coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO):
- It is under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India.
- It is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India for drugs and clinical trials.
- CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for grant of licenses of certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine and Sera.
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for:
- Approval of Drugs,
- Conduct of Clinical Trials,
- Laying down the standards for Drugs,
- Control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country.
- Coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations
- CDSCO along with state regulators is jointly responsible for granting license to certain specialized categories of critical Drugs.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO):
- It is under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India.
- It is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India for drugs and clinical trials.
- CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for grant of licenses of certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine and Sera.
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for:
- Approval of Drugs,
- Conduct of Clinical Trials,
- Laying down the standards for Drugs,
- Control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country.
- Coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations
- CDSCO along with state regulators is jointly responsible for granting license to certain specialized categories of critical Drugs.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsQuantum Technology has applications in which of the following areas?
- Industrial revolution 4.0
- Financial Portfolio Optimisation
- Logistics and Scheduling
- Pharmaceutical industry
- Disaster Management
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Quantum technology:
- Quantum technology is a class of technology that works by using the principles of quantum mechanics (the physics of sub-atomic particles), including quantum entanglement and quantum superposition.
- Quantum mechanics developed in the early 20th century. However, even after a century of its development, it still remains mysterious.
- A second revolution is underway in the quantum field by harnessing the power of quantum properties of matter. One of the most striking of these is the tremendous computing power of quantum computers, whose actual experimental realisation is one of the great challenges of our times.
- Quantum technologies are expected to be one of the major technology disruptions that will change the entire paradigm of computation, communication and encryption.
- Quantum technology is based on principles of quantum theory, which explains the nature of energy and matter on atomic and sub atomic level.
- Quantum computers store and process information using quantum two level systems (quantum bits or qubits) which unlike classical bits, can be prepared in superposition states.
- Conventional computers process information in ‘bits’ or 1s and 0s, following classical physics under which our computers can process a ‘1’ or a ‘0’ at a time.
- Quantum computers compute in ‘qubits’ (or quantum bits). They exploit the properties of quantum mechanics, the science that governs how matter behaves on the atomic scale.
Potential applications of quantum technology:
- Industrial revolution 4.0: Quantum computing is an integral part of Industrial revolution 4.0. Success in it will help in Strategic initiatives aimed at leveraging other Industrial revolution 4.0 technologies like the Internet-of-Things, machine learning, robotics, and artificial intelligence across sectors will further help in laying the foundation of the Knowledge economy.
- Financial Portfolio Optimisation: Finding the optimum mix for a basketful of investments based upon projected returns, risk assessments, and other factors is a daily task within the finance industry. By utilizing quantum technology to perform these calculations, one could achieve improvements in both the quality of the solutions as well as the time to develop them.
- Logistics and Scheduling: Many common optimisations used in industry can be classified under logistics and scheduling. Quantum computing can make logistics more efficient. For example, airlines can figure out how to stage their airplanes for the best service at the lowest cost.
- Pharmaceutical: Quantum computing could reduce the time frame of the discovery of new molecules and related processes to a few days. For instance, tracking protein behaviour or even modelling new proteins with the help of quantum computers could be made easier and faster.
- Cyber Security: Various techniques to combat cyber security threats can be developed using some of the quantum machine learning approaches mentioned above to recognize the threats earlier and mitigate the damage that they may do.
- Research: It can help in solving some of the fundamental questions in physics related to gravity, blackhole etc. Similarly, the quantum initiative could give a big boost to the Genome India project, a collaborative effort of 20 institutions to enable new efficiencies in life sciences, agriculture and medicine.
Disaster Management: Tsunamis, drought, earthquakes and floods may become more predictable with quantum applications. The collection of data regarding climate change can be streamlined in a better way through quantum technology.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Quantum technology:
- Quantum technology is a class of technology that works by using the principles of quantum mechanics (the physics of sub-atomic particles), including quantum entanglement and quantum superposition.
- Quantum mechanics developed in the early 20th century. However, even after a century of its development, it still remains mysterious.
- A second revolution is underway in the quantum field by harnessing the power of quantum properties of matter. One of the most striking of these is the tremendous computing power of quantum computers, whose actual experimental realisation is one of the great challenges of our times.
- Quantum technologies are expected to be one of the major technology disruptions that will change the entire paradigm of computation, communication and encryption.
- Quantum technology is based on principles of quantum theory, which explains the nature of energy and matter on atomic and sub atomic level.
- Quantum computers store and process information using quantum two level systems (quantum bits or qubits) which unlike classical bits, can be prepared in superposition states.
- Conventional computers process information in ‘bits’ or 1s and 0s, following classical physics under which our computers can process a ‘1’ or a ‘0’ at a time.
- Quantum computers compute in ‘qubits’ (or quantum bits). They exploit the properties of quantum mechanics, the science that governs how matter behaves on the atomic scale.
Potential applications of quantum technology:
- Industrial revolution 4.0: Quantum computing is an integral part of Industrial revolution 4.0. Success in it will help in Strategic initiatives aimed at leveraging other Industrial revolution 4.0 technologies like the Internet-of-Things, machine learning, robotics, and artificial intelligence across sectors will further help in laying the foundation of the Knowledge economy.
- Financial Portfolio Optimisation: Finding the optimum mix for a basketful of investments based upon projected returns, risk assessments, and other factors is a daily task within the finance industry. By utilizing quantum technology to perform these calculations, one could achieve improvements in both the quality of the solutions as well as the time to develop them.
- Logistics and Scheduling: Many common optimisations used in industry can be classified under logistics and scheduling. Quantum computing can make logistics more efficient. For example, airlines can figure out how to stage their airplanes for the best service at the lowest cost.
- Pharmaceutical: Quantum computing could reduce the time frame of the discovery of new molecules and related processes to a few days. For instance, tracking protein behaviour or even modelling new proteins with the help of quantum computers could be made easier and faster.
- Cyber Security: Various techniques to combat cyber security threats can be developed using some of the quantum machine learning approaches mentioned above to recognize the threats earlier and mitigate the damage that they may do.
- Research: It can help in solving some of the fundamental questions in physics related to gravity, blackhole etc. Similarly, the quantum initiative could give a big boost to the Genome India project, a collaborative effort of 20 institutions to enable new efficiencies in life sciences, agriculture and medicine.
Disaster Management: Tsunamis, drought, earthquakes and floods may become more predictable with quantum applications. The collection of data regarding climate change can be streamlined in a better way through quantum technology.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsThe term “Black Box”, sometimes seen in the news, is associated with:
Correct
Solution: B
Black Box:
- A black box, technically known as an Electronic Flight Data Recorder.
- It is an orange-coloured heavily protected recording device placed in a flight.
- It is used to investigate the details of the events immediately preceding an accident.
- They are compulsory on any commercial flight or corporate jet.
- They are usually kept in the tail of an aircraft, where they are more likely to survive crash.
- Black boxes are also used in vehicles other than planes like railways, cars etc.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Black Box:
- A black box, technically known as an Electronic Flight Data Recorder.
- It is an orange-coloured heavily protected recording device placed in a flight.
- It is used to investigate the details of the events immediately preceding an accident.
- They are compulsory on any commercial flight or corporate jet.
- They are usually kept in the tail of an aircraft, where they are more likely to survive crash.
- Black boxes are also used in vehicles other than planes like railways, cars etc.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWhich reference to S-400 Triumf Missile System, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a surface-to-air missile system (SAM) designed by USA.
- The system can engage all types of aerial targets including aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) and ballistic and cruise missiles within the range of 400km
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: B
S-400 Triumf Missile System
- The S-400 Triumf is a mobile, surface-to-air missile system (SAM) designed by Russia.
- It is the most dangerous operationally deployed modern long-range SAM (MLR SAM) in the world.
- It is considered as much ahead of the US-developed Terminal High Altitude Area Defense system (THAAD).
- The system can engage all types of aerial targets including aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) and ballistic and cruise missiles within the range of 400km, at an altitude of up to 30km.
- The system can track 100 airborne targets and engage six of them simultaneously.
Incorrect
Solution: B
S-400 Triumf Missile System
- The S-400 Triumf is a mobile, surface-to-air missile system (SAM) designed by Russia.
- It is the most dangerous operationally deployed modern long-range SAM (MLR SAM) in the world.
- It is considered as much ahead of the US-developed Terminal High Altitude Area Defense system (THAAD).
- The system can engage all types of aerial targets including aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) and ballistic and cruise missiles within the range of 400km, at an altitude of up to 30km.
- The system can track 100 airborne targets and engage six of them simultaneously.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lala Lajpat Rai
- He was founder of Servants of the People society.
- He was the first president of AITUC.
- He was associated with the formation of Punjab National Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Lala Lajpat Rai:
- Rai is remembered for his role during the Swadeshi movement and for his advocacy of education.
- He became a follower of Dayanand Saraswati, the founder of Arya Samaj and went on to become one of the society’s leaders.
- He also helped found the Punjab National Bank.
- In 1885, Rai established the Dayanand Anglo-Vedic School in Lahore and remained a committed educationist throughout his life.
- Rai, Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal (called Lal-Bal-Pal) fervently advocated the use of Swadeshi goods and mass agitation in the aftermath of the controversial Partition of Bengal in 1905 by Lord Curzon.
- He founded the Indian Home Rule League of America in New York City in 1917.
- He was elected President of the Indian National Congress during its Special Session in Kolkata in 1920, which saw the launch of Mahatma Gandhi’s Non-cooperation Movement.
- In 1921, he founded Servants of the People society
- The patriot died at Lahore in 1928 after he was attacked by police during a protest rally against the Simon Commission.
- He was the first president of AITUC which was founded on 31st October 1920.
- His important works include: ‘The Arya Samaj’, ‘Young India’, ‘England’s Debt to India’, ‘Evolution of Japan’, ‘India’s Will to Freedom’, ‘Message of the Bhagwad Gita’, ‘Political Future of India’, ‘Problem of National Education in India’, ‘The Depressed Glasses’, and the travelogue ‘United States of America’.
- He was also involved with the Hindu Mahasabha.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Lala Lajpat Rai:
- Rai is remembered for his role during the Swadeshi movement and for his advocacy of education.
- He became a follower of Dayanand Saraswati, the founder of Arya Samaj and went on to become one of the society’s leaders.
- He also helped found the Punjab National Bank.
- In 1885, Rai established the Dayanand Anglo-Vedic School in Lahore and remained a committed educationist throughout his life.
- Rai, Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal (called Lal-Bal-Pal) fervently advocated the use of Swadeshi goods and mass agitation in the aftermath of the controversial Partition of Bengal in 1905 by Lord Curzon.
- He founded the Indian Home Rule League of America in New York City in 1917.
- He was elected President of the Indian National Congress during its Special Session in Kolkata in 1920, which saw the launch of Mahatma Gandhi’s Non-cooperation Movement.
- In 1921, he founded Servants of the People society
- The patriot died at Lahore in 1928 after he was attacked by police during a protest rally against the Simon Commission.
- He was the first president of AITUC which was founded on 31st October 1920.
- His important works include: ‘The Arya Samaj’, ‘Young India’, ‘England’s Debt to India’, ‘Evolution of Japan’, ‘India’s Will to Freedom’, ‘Message of the Bhagwad Gita’, ‘Political Future of India’, ‘Problem of National Education in India’, ‘The Depressed Glasses’, and the travelogue ‘United States of America’.
- He was also involved with the Hindu Mahasabha.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIn a 100m race, A beats B by 10m and C by 13m. In a race of 180m, by how much distance B will beat C ?
Correct
Solution: B
A: B :C = 100: 90:87
Therefore, B/C = 90/87
Therefore, by the time B covers 180 m, C covers 87*2 m or 174 m
Thus, B beats C by 6 m
Incorrect
Solution: B
A: B :C = 100: 90:87
Therefore, B/C = 90/87
Therefore, by the time B covers 180 m, C covers 87*2 m or 174 m
Thus, B beats C by 6 m
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA library contains three types of books. There are nine less English books than the Biology books and fifteen more English books than the Chemistry books. If there are 54 English books, then how many books are there in the library?
Correct
Solution: D
Given that English books in the library = 54.
Since, the number of Biology books are nine more than the number of English books, the number of Biology books = 54 + 9 = 63.
Since, number of Chemistry books are fifteen less than English books. So, the number of Chemistry books = 54 – 15 = 39.
Hence, the total number of books in library = 54 + 63 + 39 = 156.Incorrect
Solution: D
Given that English books in the library = 54.
Since, the number of Biology books are nine more than the number of English books, the number of Biology books = 54 + 9 = 63.
Since, number of Chemistry books are fifteen less than English books. So, the number of Chemistry books = 54 – 15 = 39.
Hence, the total number of books in library = 54 + 63 + 39 = 156. -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsHow many numbers between 100 and 300 are divisible by 11?
Correct
Solution: C
Least number between 100 and 300 which is divisible by 11 is 110.
Highest number between 100 and 300 which is divisible by 11 is 297
Therefore, total number divisibly 11 including 110 and 297 are
(297 – 110)/11 + 1 = 187/11 + 1
= 17 + 1 = 18
Incorrect
Solution: C
Least number between 100 and 300 which is divisible by 11 is 110.
Highest number between 100 and 300 which is divisible by 11 is 297
Therefore, total number divisibly 11 including 110 and 297 are
(297 – 110)/11 + 1 = 187/11 + 1
= 17 + 1 = 18
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA man walked 20 m to cross a rectangular field diagonally. If the length of the field is 16 cm. Find the breadth of the field?
Correct
Solution: A
In the case of rectangle, Diagnol² = Length² + Breadth ²
Therefore 20² = 16 ² + Breadth ²
Therefore, breadth of rectangle = √(400-256 = 12 m
Incorrect
Solution: A
In the case of rectangle, Diagnol² = Length² + Breadth ²
Therefore 20² = 16 ² + Breadth ²
Therefore, breadth of rectangle = √(400-256 = 12 m
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsMahatma Gandhi believed that industrialization was no answer to the problems that plague the mass of India’s poor and that villagers should be taught to be self-sufficient in food, weave their own cloth from cotton and eschew the glittering prizes that the 20th century so temptingly offers. Such an idyllic and rural paradise did not appear to those who inherited the reins of political power.
Mahatma Gandhi’s views opposed industrialization of villages becauseCorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the passage, Gandhiji always believed in self-sufficiency and opposed
Industrialization. Passage compared the village life to rural-paradise and extremely
happier if it is not industrialized. So industrialization destroys the beauty of villagers
and undermines the advantages of self-sufficiency.Hence the correct answer is D.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the passage, Gandhiji always believed in self-sufficiency and opposed
Industrialization. Passage compared the village life to rural-paradise and extremely
happier if it is not industrialized. So industrialization destroys the beauty of villagers
and undermines the advantages of self-sufficiency.Hence the correct answer is D.
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