DAY – 26 (InstaTest-26): Insta 70 Days Revision Plan-2021: Topic – POLITY, Subject-wise Test 22 &23 , December 2020 CA

Solution: D

The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Article 324 of the constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Thus, the Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to both the Central government and the state governments. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Representation of People act, 1951 doesn’t fix the term of the members of the Election commission. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the
president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the
Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who
determines its composition. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Further, no qualifications are prescribed for the Commission’s membership except that one-half of the members of the Commission should be such persons who have held office for at least ten years either under the Government of India or under the government of a state. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The Constitution also authorises the president to determine the conditions of service of the chairman and other members of the Commission. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: D

Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance
Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the president
of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to
be appointed by the president. They hold office for such period as specified
by the president in his order. The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved the proposed amendment to enable Fifteenth Finance Commission to address serious concerns regarding the allocation of adequate, secure and non-lapsable funds for defence and internal security of India.

The amendment provides that Fifteenth Finance Commission shall also examine whether a separate mechanism for funding of defence and internal security ought to be set up and if so how such a mechanism could be operationalized. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

https://www.pmindia.gov.in/en/news_updates/cabinet-approves-amendment-in-the-terms-of-reference-for-the-fifteenth-finance-commission/

Solution: D

Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the president of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.

The commission submits its report to the president. He lays it before both
the Houses of Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum as to the
action taken on its recommendations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Solution: C

The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory but non-constitutional body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

The functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are:

1. To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
   
2. To intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.
3. To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
4.  To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection
   of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
5. To review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
6. To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Solution: B

The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure.
He cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the
same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Thus, he does not hold his
office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be
varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: D

The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners.
They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

They hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier. After their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC and that of the vigilance commissioner are similar to those of a member of UPSC.
But they cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: C

Disqualifications

Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqu-alified for being elected as a member of Parliament:

1. if he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament).
   2. if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
   3. if he is an undischarged insolvent.
   4. if he is not a citizen of India or has volun-tarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and
   5. if he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.

The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):

1. He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.

A House can declare the seat of a member vacant if he is absent from all its meetings for a period of sixty days without its permission. In computing the period of sixty days, no account shall be taken of any period during which the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days

Solution: C

A Committee set up by Ministry of Home Affairs in September, 2005 submitted a draft Model Police Act on 30th October, 2006.

The Model Act emphasized the need to have a professional police ‘service’ in a democratic society, which is efficient, effective, responsive to the needs of the people and accountable to the Rule of Law. The Act provided for social responsibilities of the police and emphasizes that the police would be governed by the principles of impartiality and human rights norms, with special attention to protection of weaker sections including minorities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

To ensure an efficient, responsive and professional police service, the Model Act sought earmarking dedicated staff for crime investigation; and distinct cadre for Civil police vis-à-vis Armed Police. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: D

Main Functions of RBI

Monetary Authority:

• Formulates, implements and monitors the monetary policy.
• Objective: maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

Regulator and supervisor of the financial system:

• Prescribes broad parameters of banking operations within which the country’s banking and financial system functions.
• Objective: maintain public confidence in the system, protect depositors’ interest and provide cost-effective banking services to the public.

Manager of Foreign Exchange

• Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
• Objective: to facilitate external trade and payment and promote orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.

Issuer of currency:

• Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.
• Objective: to give the public adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins and in good quality.

Developmental role

• Performs a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives.

https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/AboutusDisplay.aspx#MF

Solution: C

National Pension Scheme for the Traders and Self Employed Persons (NPS-Traders):

This scheme is meant for old age protection and social security of Vyapaaris (retail traders/shopkeepers and self-employed persons) whose annual turnover is not exceeding Rs.1.5 crores.
These retail traders/petty shopkeepers and self-employed persons are mostly working as shop owners, retail traders, rice mill owners, oil mill owners, workshop owners, commission agents, brokers of real estate, owners of small hotels, restaurants and other Vyapaaris.

The entry age for the scheme is 18-40 years and the Vyapaari should not be a member of ESIC/EPFO/PM-SYM or an income taxpayer.

The schemes are being implemented through Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India and Common Service Centres. LIC is the Fund Manager and responsible for pension payout.

Solution: B

Colombo Declaration on Sustainable Nitrogen Management

• The aim of the Declaration is to halve nitrogen waste by 2030.
• It calls upon UN agencies, other international organizations, development partners, philanthropic agencies, academic and civil society organizations to support its implementation.
• It urges countries to conduct a comprehensive assessment on nitrogen cycling covering policy, implementation, regulation, and scientific aspects at a national level plus sensitize the citizens to understand the natural nitrogen cycle and how human impacts alter its balance.
• The Declaration was developed with technical support from International Nitrogen Management System (INMS).

Solution: C

Spread over an area of about 18,650 hectares, the Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary is unique in that it is an open sanctuary, comprising farmlands of 13 Bishnoi villages.

It is located in the Fazilka District of Punjab.

Solution: A

About Nirbhaya Fund

 The fund is created by Ministry of Finance in 2013.

 It dedicated for implementation of initiatives aimed at enhancing the safety and security for women in the country.

 It is a non-lapsable corpus fund.

 Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal Ministry to appraise schemes under Nirbhaya Fund and also to review and monitor the progress of sanctioned Schemes in conjunction with the line Ministries/Departments.

 It is being monitored by Empowered Committee of Officers under Secretary of Women and Child Development Ministry.

 Empowered Committee of Officers: It is an inter-ministerial committee which appraises and recommends various projects (schemes) proposed by different ministries to be funded from Nirbhaya Fund

Solution : B

Launched in January 2018, the ‘Transformation of Aspirational Districts’ initiative aims to remove this heterogeneity through a mass movement to quickly and effectively transform these districts.

This programme is a policy priority of Government of India. NITI Aayog anchors the programme with support from Central Ministries and the State Governments. While NITI Aayog is steering the initiative in 30 districts, various central ministries oversee 50 districts besides the Ministry of Home Affairs, which focuses on 35 Left Wing Extremism (LWE) affected districts. Officers at the level of Joint Secretary / Additional Secretary have been nominated to become the ‘Central Prabhari Officers’ of each district. States have appointed state-nodal and Prabhari officers. An Empowered Committee under the Convenorship of the CEO, NITI Aayog will help in the convergence of various government schemes and streamlining of efforts.

http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/rural-poverty-alleviation-1/transformation-of-aspirational-districts

Solution: A

Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary is a Wildlife Sanctuary in Tripura, India. It covers an area of about 163.08 square kilometres. This sanctuary is situated in South Tripura District.

Solution: B

During the period between October 2018 to January 2019, the Office of Principal Scientific Adviser to Government of India held four meetings of the PM-STIAC, which resulted in the formulation of nine different technology missions. Each mission will be led by a Ministry lead and will engage international and national institutional partners, young scientists and industry partners.

They are: Electric Vehicles, Natural Language Translation, Artificial Intelligence, National Biodiversity Mission, Quantum Frontier, BioScience for Human Health, Waste to Wealth, Deep Ocean Exploration and AGNIi

Other Major Projects of PM-STIAC

Apart from the 9 missions, the Office of Principal Scientific Adviser has also initiated other major Science, Technology and Innovation projects, including;

Research Clusters, Earth Museum, Brahmaputra River System, I-STEM, Energy Security

Solution: C

The ‘Blue Flag’ beach is an Eco-tourism model endeavouring to provide to the tourists/beach goers clean and hygienic bathing water, facilities/amenities, safe and healthy environment and sustainable development of the area.

13 pilot beaches that have been identified for the certification, in consultation with concerned coastal States/UTs, are Ghoghala Beach (Diu), Shivrajpur beach (Gujarat), Bhogave (Maharashtra), Padubidri (Karnataka), Kappad beach (Kerala), Kovalam beach (Tamil Nadu), Eden beach (Puducherry), Rushikonda beach (Andhra Pradesh), Miramar beach (Goa), Golden beach (Odisha), Radhanagar beach (Andaman & Nicobar Islands) and Bangaram beach (Lakshadweep).

Rushikonda beach in Andhra Pradesh also features in the list of 13 pilot beaches, for development of facilities and infrastructure accordingly.

Solution: C

Kharif crops, monsoon crops or autumn crops are domesticated plants like rice that are cultivated and harvested during monsoon season, which lasts from June to November depending on the area.

Rice, maize, bajra, ragi, soybean, groundnut, cotton are all Kharif crops.

Rabi crops or rabi harvest are agricultural crops that are sown in winter and harvested in the spring.

Wheat, barley, mustard and green peas are some of the major rabi crops that grow in India.

Solution: D

Great Indian Bustards (GIB):

• IUCN status:critically endangered.
• Listed inSchedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection)Act, 1972 and in the CMS Convention and in Appendix I of CITES.
• Identified as one of the species for the recovery programme under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats of the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
• Project Great Indian Bustard —state of Rajasthan — identifying and fencing off bustard breeding grounds in existing protected areas as well as provide secure breeding enclosures in areas outside protected areas.

Threats:

• Habitat loss & fragmentation
• Change of land use pattern
• Desertification
• Ill-thought plantation of exotic & invasive species in grassland ecosystems
• Neglect of state institutions due to classification of ‘grasslands’ as ‘wastelands’
• Conversion of grasslands to agriculture lands due to increasing irrigation potential
• Decline of nature/GIB-friendly agrarian practices
• Occasional poaching outside Protected Areas
• Collisions with high tension electric wires
• fast moving vehicles and free-ranging dogs in villages
• Widespread agricultural expansion and mechanized farming
• Infrastructural development

Solution: C

Desert National Park is a national park situated in the Indian state of Rajasthan, near the towns of Jaisalmer and Barmer. This is one of the largest national parks, covering an area of 3162 km². The Desert National Park is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert.

Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in the Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh, India. Known primarily as a habitat of the great Indian bustard, the species has suffered a drastic fall in its numbers in the sanctuary in recent years.

Karera Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife Sanctuary in the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, India. Established in 1981 to protect a population of the Great Indian bustard in the region, it is now in the process of being denotified due to opposition by the local people and the extinction of the bird locally.

Solution: D

Montreux Record:

• Montreux Record under the Convention is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
• It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
• The Montreux Record was established by Recommendation of the Conference of the Contracting Parties (1990).

Solution: C

Global Stocktake (GST):

• The landmark Paris Agreement requires assessment of collective progress every five years as part of the regular process to increase the ambition of country climate commitments. This analysis, known as the Global Stocktake (GST), is an essential feature of the Paris Agreement, providing a solid foundation to empower countries to take bolder climate action.
• Under the Paris Agreement, each country has to present a climate action plan every five years.
• Under the Paris Agreement, the first global stocktake will happen in 2023.
• It will help world to determine whether it needs to do more and how much more.

Solution: A

Partners in Population and Development (PPD):

Context:

Inter-Ministerial Conference by Partners in Population and Development (PPD). India took part in it.

About PPD:

• It is an intergovernmental organisation for promoting south-south cooperation in the fields of reproductive health, population, and development.
• Its Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
• Currently, PPD has the membership of 26 developing countries, representing more than 59% of the world’s population.
• Launched at the 1994 International Conference on Population and Development (ICPD), when ten developing countries from Asia, Africa and Latin America formed an intergovernmental alliance to help implement the Cairo Program of Action (POA).
• This POA, endorsed by 179 nations, stresses the need to establish mechanisms to promote development through the sharing of experiences in reproductive health (RH) and family planning (FP) within and among countries and to promote effective partnerships among the governments, NGOs, research institutions and the private sector.
• India is a member of alliance.

Solution: A

For a number to be divisible by 8; its last 3 digits should be divisible by 8
So (45x) is divisible by 8

Thus, x = 6 is the correct answer

Solution: B

It is better to answer this kind of question through options.

Let the unit digit of number be: y, and tenth digit number be: x

Therefore, two digit number = 10x + y

Now, it is given that x+y = 10 —(1)

And x-y = 2 ….(2)

Now, adding Eqn (1) and (2), we get 2x= 12 or x= 6

Substituting the value of any of the eqn we get y= 4

Therefore number = 10 * 6 + 4 = 64.

Solution: C

Let the original number be 10x + y.

Number obtained by interchanging the digits = 10y + x

∴ (10x + y) – (10y + x) = 18

Or, x – y = 2 … (i)

Also, x + y = 6 … (ii)

From equations (i) and (ii),

x = 4 and y = 2.

∴ Original number = (10 x 4) + 2 = 42

Solution: C

If the first divisor be a multiple of the second divisor, then required number = Remainder obtained by dividing the first remainder by the second divisor.
Since, 17 is a factor of 136.
Therefore, 36 divided by 17 is 2.