INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Constitutional Amendment Act bifurcated the National Commission for SCs and STs and created a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?
Correct
Solution: D
The National Commission for SCs and STs came into being consequent upon
passing of the 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990. The
Commission was established under Article 338 of the Constitution with the
objective of monitoring all the safeguards provided for the SCs and STs
under the Constitution or other laws.In order to safeguard the interests of the STs more effectively, it was proposed to set up a separate National Commission for STs by bifurcating the existing combined National Commission for SCs and STs. This was done by passing the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003. This Act further amended Article 338 and inserted a new Article 338-A in the Constitution.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The National Commission for SCs and STs came into being consequent upon
passing of the 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990. The
Commission was established under Article 338 of the Constitution with the
objective of monitoring all the safeguards provided for the SCs and STs
under the Constitution or other laws.In order to safeguard the interests of the STs more effectively, it was proposed to set up a separate National Commission for STs by bifurcating the existing combined National Commission for SCs and STs. This was done by passing the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003. This Act further amended Article 338 and inserted a new Article 338-A in the Constitution.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following schedule was added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act?
Correct
Solution: C
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the
members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of
defection from one political party to another. For this purpose, it made
changes in four Articles of the Constitution and added a new Schedule (the
Tenth Schedule) to the Constitution. This act is often referred to as the ‘anti-defection law’. Hence, option (c) is correct.Incorrect
Solution: C
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the
members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of
defection from one political party to another. For this purpose, it made
changes in four Articles of the Constitution and added a new Schedule (the
Tenth Schedule) to the Constitution. This act is often referred to as the ‘anti-defection law’. Hence, option (c) is correct. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs), consider the following statements:
- It is directly established by Article 338 of the Constitution.
- The Commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any
complaint, has all the powers of a criminal court trying a suit. - It can submit a report to President as and when it thinks necessary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional
body in the sense that it is directly established by Article 338 of the
Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.The Commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any
complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.The commission presents an annual report to the president. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a
memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by
the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the
non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.Incorrect
Solution: C
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional
body in the sense that it is directly established by Article 338 of the
Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.The Commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any
complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.The commission presents an annual report to the president. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a
memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by
the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the
non-acceptance of any of such recommendations. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Advocate General of State, consider the following statements:
- He is the highest law officer in the state.
- He/she is appointed by the governor.
- The term of office of the advocate general is fixed for 5 years by the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate
general for the states. He is the highest law officer in the state. Thus he
corresponds to the Attorney General of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.The advocate general is appointed by the governor. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate
general for the states. He is the highest law officer in the state. Thus he
corresponds to the Attorney General of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.The advocate general is appointed by the governor. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Attorney General of India, consider the following statements:
1. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine.- He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney
General for India1. He is the highest law officer in the country.The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a
person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president. Hence, statement 1 is correct.The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives
such remuneration as the president may determine. Hence, statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
Solution: C
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney
General for India1. He is the highest law officer in the country.The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a
person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president. Hence, statement 1 is correct.The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives
such remuneration as the president may determine. Hence, statement 2 is correct. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to National Commission for Women, consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body.
- It take suo-moto notice of matters relating to deprivation of women’s rights.
- Among the five members of the commission at least one Member each shall be from amongst persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 ( Act No. 20 of 1990 of Govt.of India ) to :
- review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women ;
- recommend remedial legislative measures ;
- facilitate redressal of grievances and
- advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Commission shall look into complaints and take suo moto notice of matters relating to:-
- deprivation of women’s rights. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- non-implementation of laws enacted to provide protection to women and also to achieve the objective of equality and development,
- non-compliance of policy decisions,guidelines or instructions aimed at mitigating hardships and ensuring welfare and providing relief to women, and take up the issues arising out of such matters with appropriate authorities.
Among the five members of the commission at least one Member each shall be from amongst persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively
Incorrect
Solution: D
The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 ( Act No. 20 of 1990 of Govt.of India ) to :
- review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women ;
- recommend remedial legislative measures ;
- facilitate redressal of grievances and
- advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Commission shall look into complaints and take suo moto notice of matters relating to:-
- deprivation of women’s rights. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- non-implementation of laws enacted to provide protection to women and also to achieve the objective of equality and development,
- non-compliance of policy decisions,guidelines or instructions aimed at mitigating hardships and ensuring welfare and providing relief to women, and take up the issues arising out of such matters with appropriate authorities.
Among the five members of the commission at least one Member each shall be from amongst persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Municipal corporation, consider the following statements:
- The Municipal Council is headed by Municipal commissioner.
- Mayor is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the council and its standing committees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like
Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India.A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the standing committees and the commissioner.
The Council is headed by a Mayor. He is assisted by a Deputy Mayor. He
is elected in a majority of the states for a one-year renewable term. He is
basically an ornamental figure and a formal head of the corporation. His main function is to preside over the meetings of the Council. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.The municipal commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the council and its standing committees. Thus, he is the chief executive authority of the corporation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like
Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India.A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the standing committees and the commissioner.
The Council is headed by a Mayor. He is assisted by a Deputy Mayor. He
is elected in a majority of the states for a one-year renewable term. He is
basically an ornamental figure and a formal head of the corporation. His main function is to preside over the meetings of the Council. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.The municipal commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the council and its standing committees. Thus, he is the chief executive authority of the corporation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following information is/are generally exempted from RTI Act?
- Information which may constitute contempt of court.
- Information received in confidence from foreign government
- Information which would impede the process of investigation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: D
Right to Information is act of the Parliament of India to provide for setting out the practical regime of the right to information for citizens and replaces the erstwhile Freedom of information Act, 2002.
In the RTI Act, 2005, Section 8(1) lists all of the exemptions:
(a) information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the security, sovereignty and integrity of India;
(b) information which may constitute contempt of court; Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(c) information that would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature;
(d) information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
(e) information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
(f) information received in confidence from foreign government; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(g) information, the disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person;
(h) information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
(i) cabinet papers including records of deliberations, which come under the specified exemptions;
(j) information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has not relationship to any public activity or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy.
Even where requested information is covered by an exemption, the information should still be disclosed to the applicant if the public interest in the specific case requires it.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Right to Information is act of the Parliament of India to provide for setting out the practical regime of the right to information for citizens and replaces the erstwhile Freedom of information Act, 2002.
In the RTI Act, 2005, Section 8(1) lists all of the exemptions:
(a) information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the security, sovereignty and integrity of India;
(b) information which may constitute contempt of court; Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(c) information that would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature;
(d) information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
(e) information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
(f) information received in confidence from foreign government; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(g) information, the disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person;
(h) information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
(i) cabinet papers including records of deliberations, which come under the specified exemptions;
(j) information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has not relationship to any public activity or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy.
Even where requested information is covered by an exemption, the information should still be disclosed to the applicant if the public interest in the specific case requires it.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsEighth Schedule recognizes which of the following languages?
- English
- Sanskrit
- Magadhi
- Hindi
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: A
Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.
They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
English is not recognized under 8th schedule, even though it is the official language of India. So, 1 is incorrect.
Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili ( Not Magadhi) and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.
They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
English is not recognized under 8th schedule, even though it is the official language of India. So, 1 is incorrect.
Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili ( Not Magadhi) and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsThe term “Socialist” in the Preamble of the Constitution implies
- The government strives to maintain a more equitable distribution of wealth in society.
- Government should regulate and facilitate the equitable ownership of factors of production to achieve desired socio-economic objectives.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
The Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic socialism’ (also known as ‘state socialism’) which involves the nationalisation of all means of production and distribution and the abolition of private property.
Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where both public and private sectors co-exist side by side.
As the Supreme Court says, ‘Democratic socialism aims to end poverty, ignorance, disease and inequality of opportunity. Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards Gandhian socialism’.
The new economic policy (1991) of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation has, however, diluted the socialist credentials of the Indian State.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
The Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic socialism’ (also known as ‘state socialism’) which involves the nationalisation of all means of production and distribution and the abolition of private property.
Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where both public and private sectors co-exist side by side.
As the Supreme Court says, ‘Democratic socialism aims to end poverty, ignorance, disease and inequality of opportunity. Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards Gandhian socialism’.
The new economic policy (1991) of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation has, however, diluted the socialist credentials of the Indian State.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Tribal revolts: Associated Leaders:
- Khond Uprisings Bapu Trimbakji Sawant.
- Koya Revolts Tomma Sora.
- Ramosi uprisings Chittur Singh.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Khond Uprisings (1837-1856)
From 1837 to 1856, the Khonds of the hilly tracts extending from Odisha to the Srikakulam and Visakhapatnam districts of Andhra Pradesh revolted against Company rule. Chakra Bisoi, a young raja, led the Khonds who were joined by the Ghumsar, Kalahandi and other tribals to oppose the suppression of human sacrifice, new taxes, and the entry of zamindars into their areas. With Chakra Bisoi’s disappearance, the uprising came to an end.
Koya Revolts
The Koyas of the eastern Godavari track (modern Andhra),joined by Khonda Sara chiefs, rebelled in 1803, 1840, 1845,1858, 1861 and 1862. They rose once again in 1879-80 under Tomma Sora. Their complaints were oppression by police and moneylenders, new regulations and denial of their customary rights over forest areas. After the death of Tomma Sora, another rebellion was organized in 1886 by Raja Anantayyar.
Ramosi Risings
The Ramosis, the hill tribes of the Western Ghats, had not reconciled to British rule and the British pattern of administration. They resented the policy of annexation. After the annexation of the Maratha territories by the British, the Ramosis, who had been employed by the Maratha administration, lost their means of livelihood. They rose under Chittur Singh in 1822 and plundered the country around Satara. Again, there were eruptions in 1825-26 under Umaji Naik of Poona and his supporter Bapu Trimbakji Sawant, and the disturbances continued till 1829. The disturbance occurred again in 1839 over deposition and banishment of Raja PratapSingh of Satara, and disturbances erupted in 1840-41 also. Finally, a superior British force restored order in the area. Generally, the British followed a pacifist policy towards the Ramosis, and even recruited some of them into the hill police.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Khond Uprisings (1837-1856)
From 1837 to 1856, the Khonds of the hilly tracts extending from Odisha to the Srikakulam and Visakhapatnam districts of Andhra Pradesh revolted against Company rule. Chakra Bisoi, a young raja, led the Khonds who were joined by the Ghumsar, Kalahandi and other tribals to oppose the suppression of human sacrifice, new taxes, and the entry of zamindars into their areas. With Chakra Bisoi’s disappearance, the uprising came to an end.
Koya Revolts
The Koyas of the eastern Godavari track (modern Andhra),joined by Khonda Sara chiefs, rebelled in 1803, 1840, 1845,1858, 1861 and 1862. They rose once again in 1879-80 under Tomma Sora. Their complaints were oppression by police and moneylenders, new regulations and denial of their customary rights over forest areas. After the death of Tomma Sora, another rebellion was organized in 1886 by Raja Anantayyar.
Ramosi Risings
The Ramosis, the hill tribes of the Western Ghats, had not reconciled to British rule and the British pattern of administration. They resented the policy of annexation. After the annexation of the Maratha territories by the British, the Ramosis, who had been employed by the Maratha administration, lost their means of livelihood. They rose under Chittur Singh in 1822 and plundered the country around Satara. Again, there were eruptions in 1825-26 under Umaji Naik of Poona and his supporter Bapu Trimbakji Sawant, and the disturbances continued till 1829. The disturbance occurred again in 1839 over deposition and banishment of Raja PratapSingh of Satara, and disturbances erupted in 1840-41 also. Finally, a superior British force restored order in the area. Generally, the British followed a pacifist policy towards the Ramosis, and even recruited some of them into the hill police.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 points‘TOI 700 d’, sometimes seen in news, is
Correct
Solution: C
TOI 700 d is an exoplanet, likely rocky, orbiting TOI 700, a red dwarf star 101.4 light-years away in the Dorado constellation. The exoplanet is the first Earth-sized exoplanet in the habitable zone discovered by the Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite.
Incorrect
Solution: C
TOI 700 d is an exoplanet, likely rocky, orbiting TOI 700, a red dwarf star 101.4 light-years away in the Dorado constellation. The exoplanet is the first Earth-sized exoplanet in the habitable zone discovered by the Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following events occurred during British rule in India:
- Macaulay Minute
- Strachey Commission
- Butler committee
- Saddler Commission
Which of the above given is/are related to Education Sector?
Correct
Solution: A
The English Education Act 1835 was a legislative Act of the Council of India, gave effect to a decision in 1835 by Lord William Bentinck, then Governor-General of British India, to reallocate funds the East India Company was required by the British Parliament to spend on education and literature in India.
The Government actually felt the necessity of investigating into the affairs of university education in 1914. Accordingly, a proposal was taken to reform the Indian Universities under the leadership of Lord Halden. But the proposal was not carried into effect due to the outbreak of the First World War Towards the fag end of the war, the Government of India took up the matter again. In 1917 the Government appointed the Calcutta University Commission to study and report on the problem of university education. The commission is also known as the Sadler Commission after the name of its chairman Dr. Michael E. Sadler, the Vice Chancellor of the university of Leeds. The other members of the Commission were Dr. Gregory, Prof. Ramsay Muir, Sir Hartog, Dr. Horniel, Dr. Zia Uddin Ahmed and Sir Asutosh Mukerji. Sir Asutosh Mukerji was the most influential member of the commission. It is said that most of the recommendations of the commission were patterned on his views.
Strachey Commission is related to famine policy in India and Butler committee to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the Princes of Princely States in AD 1927.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The English Education Act 1835 was a legislative Act of the Council of India, gave effect to a decision in 1835 by Lord William Bentinck, then Governor-General of British India, to reallocate funds the East India Company was required by the British Parliament to spend on education and literature in India.
The Government actually felt the necessity of investigating into the affairs of university education in 1914. Accordingly, a proposal was taken to reform the Indian Universities under the leadership of Lord Halden. But the proposal was not carried into effect due to the outbreak of the First World War Towards the fag end of the war, the Government of India took up the matter again. In 1917 the Government appointed the Calcutta University Commission to study and report on the problem of university education. The commission is also known as the Sadler Commission after the name of its chairman Dr. Michael E. Sadler, the Vice Chancellor of the university of Leeds. The other members of the Commission were Dr. Gregory, Prof. Ramsay Muir, Sir Hartog, Dr. Horniel, Dr. Zia Uddin Ahmed and Sir Asutosh Mukerji. Sir Asutosh Mukerji was the most influential member of the commission. It is said that most of the recommendations of the commission were patterned on his views.
Strachey Commission is related to famine policy in India and Butler committee to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the Princes of Princely States in AD 1927.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme
- As per the scheme, Government of India will share 50% of prescribed stipend subject to a maximum of Rs. 1500 per month per apprentice.
- This scheme will cover all categories of apprentices including the Graduate, Technician and Technician (Vocational) apprentices under Ministry of Human Resource Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme
As per the scheme, Government of India will share 25% of prescribed stipend subject to a maximum of Rs. 1500 per month per apprentice with the employers. Government of India will also share maximum Rs.7500 per fresher apprentice (without any formal trade training) as a cost of basic training with Basic Training Providers.
The scheme is implemented from 1st October, 2016. Employers who have engaged the apprentices before 1st October, 2016 will get the benefits of scheme from 1st October, 2016 only.
State Apprenticeship Advisers (SAAs) and Regional Directorates of Apprenticeship (RDATs) will act as implementing agencies in their respective State/Regions.
Objective of the Scheme
The main objective of the scheme is to promote apprenticeship training and to increase the engagement of apprentices from present 2.3 lakh to 50 lakh cumulatively by 2020.
Components of the Scheme
The scheme has the following two components.
- Sharing of 25% of prescribed stipend subject to a maximum of Rs. 1500/- per month per apprentice with the employers. The stipend support would not be given during the basic training period for fresher apprentices.
- Sharing of basic training cost in respect of apprentices who come directly to apprenticeship training without any formal trade training. Basic training cost will be limited to Rs. 7500/- for a maximum of 500 hours/3 months.
Scope of the Scheme
This scheme will cover all categories of apprentices except the Graduate, Technician and Technician (Vocational) apprentices which are covered by the scheme administered by Ministry of Human Resource Development.
Hence, both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: D
National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme
As per the scheme, Government of India will share 25% of prescribed stipend subject to a maximum of Rs. 1500 per month per apprentice with the employers. Government of India will also share maximum Rs.7500 per fresher apprentice (without any formal trade training) as a cost of basic training with Basic Training Providers.
The scheme is implemented from 1st October, 2016. Employers who have engaged the apprentices before 1st October, 2016 will get the benefits of scheme from 1st October, 2016 only.
State Apprenticeship Advisers (SAAs) and Regional Directorates of Apprenticeship (RDATs) will act as implementing agencies in their respective State/Regions.
Objective of the Scheme
The main objective of the scheme is to promote apprenticeship training and to increase the engagement of apprentices from present 2.3 lakh to 50 lakh cumulatively by 2020.
Components of the Scheme
The scheme has the following two components.
- Sharing of 25% of prescribed stipend subject to a maximum of Rs. 1500/- per month per apprentice with the employers. The stipend support would not be given during the basic training period for fresher apprentices.
- Sharing of basic training cost in respect of apprentices who come directly to apprenticeship training without any formal trade training. Basic training cost will be limited to Rs. 7500/- for a maximum of 500 hours/3 months.
Scope of the Scheme
This scheme will cover all categories of apprentices except the Graduate, Technician and Technician (Vocational) apprentices which are covered by the scheme administered by Ministry of Human Resource Development.
Hence, both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsAnandamath Novel which portrayed the Sanyasi Revolt was written by:
Correct
Solution: C
The Sannyasi rebellion or Sannyasi Revolt (1770-1820) were the activities of sannyasis and fakirs in Bengal against the East India Company rule in the late 18th century.
The reminder of the Rebellion is in literature, in the Bengali novel Anandamath, written by India’s first modern novelist Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Sannyasi rebellion or Sannyasi Revolt (1770-1820) were the activities of sannyasis and fakirs in Bengal against the East India Company rule in the late 18th century.
The reminder of the Rebellion is in literature, in the Bengali novel Anandamath, written by India’s first modern novelist Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dadabhai Naoroji:
- He was the first Indian to be elected in the British Parliament
- He founded ‘Gyan Prasarak Mandali’ (Society for Promotion of Knowledge).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Dadabhai was a member of the Legislative Council of Bombay.
- In 1886, Naoroji was elected as President of the Indian National Congress.
- In England Dadabhai coined the Liberal Party and in 1892 he was elected to the Parliament.
- He was the first Indian to be elected in the British Parliament.
Dadabhai felt that the British misrule in India was mainly because of the illiteracy of the people. Thus, as a solution to this problem he started educating the masses regarding their rights and privileges. Dadabhai began free literacy classes for girls in Marathi and Gujarati. He set up the Gyan Prasarak Mandali (Society for Promotion of Knowledge) for adult education.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Dadabhai was a member of the Legislative Council of Bombay.
- In 1886, Naoroji was elected as President of the Indian National Congress.
- In England Dadabhai coined the Liberal Party and in 1892 he was elected to the Parliament.
- He was the first Indian to be elected in the British Parliament.
Dadabhai felt that the British misrule in India was mainly because of the illiteracy of the people. Thus, as a solution to this problem he started educating the masses regarding their rights and privileges. Dadabhai began free literacy classes for girls in Marathi and Gujarati. He set up the Gyan Prasarak Mandali (Society for Promotion of Knowledge) for adult education.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of Newspapers/Magazine and people associated with them:
Newspaper/Magazine Founder/Editor
- Nav Jeevan Motilal Nehru
- Bandi Jeevan Sachindra Nath Sanyal
- Al Hilal Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Newspaper called Navjivan was published by Mohandas Gandhi.
Sachindra Nath Sanyal was sentenced to life for his involvement in the conspiracy and was imprisoned at Cellular Jail in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, where he wrote his book titled Bandi Jeevan (A Life of Captivity, 1922)
The Al-Hilal was a weekly Urdu language newspaper established by the Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticism of the British Raj in India. The first issue came out on 13 July 1912.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Newspaper called Navjivan was published by Mohandas Gandhi.
Sachindra Nath Sanyal was sentenced to life for his involvement in the conspiracy and was imprisoned at Cellular Jail in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, where he wrote his book titled Bandi Jeevan (A Life of Captivity, 1922)
The Al-Hilal was a weekly Urdu language newspaper established by the Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticism of the British Raj in India. The first issue came out on 13 July 1912.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Myristica swamps:
- They are characterized by temperate saltwater swamp forests with an abundance of Myristicaceae trees.
- They are the evergreen, water-tolerant trees which have dense stilt roots
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Myristica swamps are characterised by tropical freshwater swamp forests with an abundance of Myristicaceae trees, one of the most primitive of the flowering plants on earth.
They are mainly found in the states of Kerala, Karnataka and patches in Maharashtra and Goa.
In Kerala, Myristica swamps are now largely confined to a few patches in the forested valleys of the Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary and Kulathupuzha in the southern Western Ghats.
Myristica swamps were described as a separate evergreen forest type by Krishnamurthy in 1960. These received attention in 1988 when Rodgers and Panwar described it as the most endangered forest ecosystem in India.
The evergreen, water-tolerant trees have dense stilt roots helping them stay erect in the thick, black, wet alluvial soil.
The swamps also provide habitat for a rich diversity of invertebrate and vertebrate species, including amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
The fragile, primeval forests are considered among the most endangered ecosystems in India.
Owing to their water holding capacity round the year, Myristica swamps act as a sponge, helping to sustain water in the streams and groundwater sources
Incorrect
Solution: B
Myristica swamps are characterised by tropical freshwater swamp forests with an abundance of Myristicaceae trees, one of the most primitive of the flowering plants on earth.
They are mainly found in the states of Kerala, Karnataka and patches in Maharashtra and Goa.
In Kerala, Myristica swamps are now largely confined to a few patches in the forested valleys of the Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary and Kulathupuzha in the southern Western Ghats.
Myristica swamps were described as a separate evergreen forest type by Krishnamurthy in 1960. These received attention in 1988 when Rodgers and Panwar described it as the most endangered forest ecosystem in India.
The evergreen, water-tolerant trees have dense stilt roots helping them stay erect in the thick, black, wet alluvial soil.
The swamps also provide habitat for a rich diversity of invertebrate and vertebrate species, including amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
The fragile, primeval forests are considered among the most endangered ecosystems in India.
Owing to their water holding capacity round the year, Myristica swamps act as a sponge, helping to sustain water in the streams and groundwater sources
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of inscription and associated rulers:
Inscriptions Associated Rulers/Kings
- Mandasor stone inscription Harshavardhana.
- Apshad inscription Kumaragupta.
- Aihole Inscription Pulikeshi II
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Mandsaur stone inscription of Yashodharman-Vishnuvardhana, is a Sanskrit inscription in the Gupta script dated to about 532 CE, on a slate stone measuring about 2 feet broad, 1.5 feet high and 2.5 inches thick found in the Malwa region of India, now a large part of the southwestern Madhya Pradesh. The inscription records the construction of a well by a person named Daksha in Dashapura (modern Mandsaur, also often spelled Mandasor and referred to as Dasor. It mentions the rule of Yashodharman. The inscription mentions the victories of local ruler Yasodharman over Northern and Eastern kingdoms, with “peaceful overtures and by war”. These kingdoms are not further specified.
The early Maukhari kings had established family ties with the later Guptas. However, Isanavannan’s declaration of his independence must have spoilt the relations between the later Guptas and the Maukharis for the Apshad inscription tells us of the victory of Kumaragupta the fourth king of the Later Gupta family of Magdha, over Isanavannan. But the dynasty seems to have continued its rule.
.Many inscriptions found at Aihole, but the inscription which found at Meguti Temple popularly known as Aihole inscription, which has the significance in the history of India, witnessed for the many historical events of Chalukyas. The inscription is written in Sanskrit language and uses old Kannada script. There is a mention about the defeat of Harshavardhana by Pulakesin II and also about the victory of Chalukyas on Pallavas.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Mandsaur stone inscription of Yashodharman-Vishnuvardhana, is a Sanskrit inscription in the Gupta script dated to about 532 CE, on a slate stone measuring about 2 feet broad, 1.5 feet high and 2.5 inches thick found in the Malwa region of India, now a large part of the southwestern Madhya Pradesh. The inscription records the construction of a well by a person named Daksha in Dashapura (modern Mandsaur, also often spelled Mandasor and referred to as Dasor. It mentions the rule of Yashodharman. The inscription mentions the victories of local ruler Yasodharman over Northern and Eastern kingdoms, with “peaceful overtures and by war”. These kingdoms are not further specified.
The early Maukhari kings had established family ties with the later Guptas. However, Isanavannan’s declaration of his independence must have spoilt the relations between the later Guptas and the Maukharis for the Apshad inscription tells us of the victory of Kumaragupta the fourth king of the Later Gupta family of Magdha, over Isanavannan. But the dynasty seems to have continued its rule.
.Many inscriptions found at Aihole, but the inscription which found at Meguti Temple popularly known as Aihole inscription, which has the significance in the history of India, witnessed for the many historical events of Chalukyas. The inscription is written in Sanskrit language and uses old Kannada script. There is a mention about the defeat of Harshavardhana by Pulakesin II and also about the victory of Chalukyas on Pallavas.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile
- It has been developed to replace the ‘Prithvi’ missile system
- It is a sophisticated all-weather and all-terrain missile
- It can be mounted on a truck and stored in a canister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile:
About QRSAM:
- It has been developed to replace the ‘Akash’ missile defence system, and has 360-degree coverage.
- Developed by DRDO
- It uses solid fuel propellant and has a strike range of 25-30 km with capability of hitting multiple targets.
- It is capable of hitting the low flying objects.
- It is a sophisticated all-weather and all-terrain missile.
- It can be mounted on a truck and stored in a canister.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile:
About QRSAM:
- It has been developed to replace the ‘Akash’ missile defence system, and has 360-degree coverage.
- Developed by DRDO
- It uses solid fuel propellant and has a strike range of 25-30 km with capability of hitting multiple targets.
- It is capable of hitting the low flying objects.
- It is a sophisticated all-weather and all-terrain missile.
- It can be mounted on a truck and stored in a canister.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsThe Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of
- The Prime Minister
- The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
- Speaker of Lok Sabha
- A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
- Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court judge nominated by CJI
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Central Information Commission (CIC):
- CIC was established in 2005 by the Central Government under the provisions of Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
- The Chief Information Commissioner heads the Central Information Commission.
- It hears appeals from information-seekers who have not been satisfied by the public authority and also addresses major issues concerning the RTI Act.
- CIC submits an annual report to the Union government on the implementation of the provisions of RTI Act.
What are the eligibility criteria and what is the process of appointment of CIC/IC?
Section 12(3) of the RTI Act 2005 provides as follows.
The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of
- The Prime Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee.
- The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
- A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
What is the term of office and other service conditions of IC?
- Section 13(2) of the RTI Act 2005 provides that the Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office and shall not be eligible for reappointment as such Information Commissioners provided.
- Provided that every Information Commissioner shall on vacating his office under this sub-section be eligible for appointment as the Chief Information Commissioner in the manner specified in sub-section (3) of section 12 of the RTI Act 2005:
- Provided further that where the Information Commissioner is appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner, his term of office shall not be more than five years in aggregate as the Information Commissioner and the Chief Information Commissioner.
- Section 13(5)(b) of the RTI Act 2005 provides that the salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of an Information Commissioner shall be the same as that of an Election Commissioner.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Central Information Commission (CIC):
- CIC was established in 2005 by the Central Government under the provisions of Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
- The Chief Information Commissioner heads the Central Information Commission.
- It hears appeals from information-seekers who have not been satisfied by the public authority and also addresses major issues concerning the RTI Act.
- CIC submits an annual report to the Union government on the implementation of the provisions of RTI Act.
What are the eligibility criteria and what is the process of appointment of CIC/IC?
Section 12(3) of the RTI Act 2005 provides as follows.
The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of
- The Prime Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee.
- The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
- A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
What is the term of office and other service conditions of IC?
- Section 13(2) of the RTI Act 2005 provides that the Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office and shall not be eligible for reappointment as such Information Commissioners provided.
- Provided that every Information Commissioner shall on vacating his office under this sub-section be eligible for appointment as the Chief Information Commissioner in the manner specified in sub-section (3) of section 12 of the RTI Act 2005:
- Provided further that where the Information Commissioner is appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner, his term of office shall not be more than five years in aggregate as the Information Commissioner and the Chief Information Commissioner.
- Section 13(5)(b) of the RTI Act 2005 provides that the salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of an Information Commissioner shall be the same as that of an Election Commissioner.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsThe term “Istanbul Convention” sometimes mentioned in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: C
Istanbul Convention:
- It is also called as the Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence.
- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- It is the most comprehensive legal framework that exists to tackle violence against women and girls, covering domestic violence, rape, sexual assault, female genital mutilation (FGM), so-called honour-based violence, and forced marriage.
- The Convention sets minimum standards for governments to meet when tackling violence against women.
- When a government ratifies the Convention, they are legally bound to follow it.
- As of March 2019, it has been signed by 45 countries and the European Union.
The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers on 7 April 2011.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Istanbul Convention:
- It is also called as the Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence.
- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- It is the most comprehensive legal framework that exists to tackle violence against women and girls, covering domestic violence, rape, sexual assault, female genital mutilation (FGM), so-called honour-based violence, and forced marriage.
- The Convention sets minimum standards for governments to meet when tackling violence against women.
- When a government ratifies the Convention, they are legally bound to follow it.
- As of March 2019, it has been signed by 45 countries and the European Union.
The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers on 7 April 2011.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Special Zero-Coupon Bonds, consider the following statements
- These recapitalisation bonds are special types of bonds issued by the Reserve Bank of India
- Only nationalized banks can invest in them
- These bonds are not transferable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Special Zero-Coupon Bonds
- These recapitalisation bonds are special types of bonds issued by the Central government specifically to a particular institution.
- Only those banks, whosoever is specified, can invest in them, nobody else.
- It is not tradable; it is not transferable.
- It is limited only to a specific bank, and it is for a specified period.
- It is held at the held-to-maturity (HTM) category of the bank as per the RBI guidelines.
- Since it is held to maturity, it is accounted at the face value (and) no mark-to-market will be there.
- Though zero coupon, these bonds are different from traditional zero-coupon bonds.
- They are being issued at par, there is no interest; in previous cases, since they were issued at discount, they technically were interest bearing.
- The said amount will be paid on the maturity as per the government notification.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Special Zero-Coupon Bonds
- These recapitalisation bonds are special types of bonds issued by the Central government specifically to a particular institution.
- Only those banks, whosoever is specified, can invest in them, nobody else.
- It is not tradable; it is not transferable.
- It is limited only to a specific bank, and it is for a specified period.
- It is held at the held-to-maturity (HTM) category of the bank as per the RBI guidelines.
- Since it is held to maturity, it is accounted at the face value (and) no mark-to-market will be there.
- Though zero coupon, these bonds are different from traditional zero-coupon bonds.
- They are being issued at par, there is no interest; in previous cases, since they were issued at discount, they technically were interest bearing.
- The said amount will be paid on the maturity as per the government notification.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsGoldilocks economy as a concept is better explained with which of the following features?
- Sustained moderate economic growth
- Low market interest rates
- An increase in asset prices
- low unemployment rate
- Low market interest rates
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: D
‘Goldilocks Economy’:
- Goldilocks economy — not too much deflation, not too much inflation — sustains moderate economic growth.
- In other words, that is the economy is in equilibrium: with economic stability, good employment figures and higher than global average growth.
- The economy is not expanding or contracting by a large margin.
- The economy follows a steady growth to avoid any ups and downs.
- A Goldilocks economy is warm enough with steady economic growth to prevent a recession.
Features:
- A low unemployment rate: The rate is measured by taking into account the count of people who are ready to work, able to work, and those who have asked or searched for work in the last four weeks.
- An increase in asset prices: known as asset price inflation—of stocks, derivatives, bonds, real estate.
- Low market interest rates: The market rate of interest or the benchmark rate is low.
- Low inflation: The measure of inflation based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Producer Price Index (PPI) is low.
- Steady gross domestic product (GDP) or economic growth-GDP is a macroeconomic measure of the growth of the country.
Incorrect
Solution: D
‘Goldilocks Economy’:
- Goldilocks economy — not too much deflation, not too much inflation — sustains moderate economic growth.
- In other words, that is the economy is in equilibrium: with economic stability, good employment figures and higher than global average growth.
- The economy is not expanding or contracting by a large margin.
- The economy follows a steady growth to avoid any ups and downs.
- A Goldilocks economy is warm enough with steady economic growth to prevent a recession.
Features:
- A low unemployment rate: The rate is measured by taking into account the count of people who are ready to work, able to work, and those who have asked or searched for work in the last four weeks.
- An increase in asset prices: known as asset price inflation—of stocks, derivatives, bonds, real estate.
- Low market interest rates: The market rate of interest or the benchmark rate is low.
- Low inflation: The measure of inflation based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Producer Price Index (PPI) is low.
- Steady gross domestic product (GDP) or economic growth-GDP is a macroeconomic measure of the growth of the country.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWith reference to VISVAS scheme, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Under the scheme, SC and OBC Self Help Groups (SHGs) and Individuals would be able to avail an interest subvention of 5% per annum on bank loans of up to ₹4 lakh per SHG and ₹2 lakh per individual.
- It is being introduced by Ministry of Finance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: A
Vanchit Ikai Samooh aur Vargon ki Aarthik Sahayta scheme (VISVAS scheme):
- The ministry of social justice and empowerment will introduce VISVAS for self-help groups or SC and OBC households with an annual income of up to ₹3 lakh.
- The scheme aims to ensure more credit in the hands of the most-deprived households for productive and economic activities.
- Under this scheme, interest subvention will be provided to Self Help Groups with 100% OBC members and OBC individuals who have taken loan for various income generating activities from those Lending Institutions who have signed MoA with NBCFDC.
- Under the scheme, SC and OBC Self Help Groups (SHGs) and Individuals would be able to avail an interest subvention of 5% per annum on bank loans of up to ₹4 lakh per SHG and ₹2 lakh per individual.
- The scheme would help in immediate liquidity as it would entail direct beneficiary transfer mode of crediting the operational accounts of individuals and SHGs.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Vanchit Ikai Samooh aur Vargon ki Aarthik Sahayta scheme (VISVAS scheme):
- The ministry of social justice and empowerment will introduce VISVAS for self-help groups or SC and OBC households with an annual income of up to ₹3 lakh.
- The scheme aims to ensure more credit in the hands of the most-deprived households for productive and economic activities.
- Under this scheme, interest subvention will be provided to Self Help Groups with 100% OBC members and OBC individuals who have taken loan for various income generating activities from those Lending Institutions who have signed MoA with NBCFDC.
- Under the scheme, SC and OBC Self Help Groups (SHGs) and Individuals would be able to avail an interest subvention of 5% per annum on bank loans of up to ₹4 lakh per SHG and ₹2 lakh per individual.
- The scheme would help in immediate liquidity as it would entail direct beneficiary transfer mode of crediting the operational accounts of individuals and SHGs.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsConsider the sequence given below:
22, 42, 64, 88, ‘?’
What is the next term of the series?
Correct
Solution: C
The series is 3² + (13 x 1) = 22,
4² + (13 x 2) = 42,
5² + (13 x 3)= 64,
6² +(13 x 4) = 88
Therefore next number in the series is 7² + (13 X 5) = 114
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The series is 3² + (13 x 1) = 22,
4² + (13 x 2) = 42,
5² + (13 x 3)= 64,
6² +(13 x 4) = 88
Therefore next number in the series is 7² + (13 X 5) = 114
Hence, option (c) is correct.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsConsider the given information and answer the item that follow:
A is mother of B.
B is sister of C.
D is son of C.
E is brother of D.
F is mother of E.
G is granddaughter of A.
H has only two children B and C.
How is F related to H?
Correct
Solution: B
As per the given information, we can derive following information
A (female) is mother of B.
B (female) is sister of C.
Therefore A is mother of both B and C.
D (male) is son of C.
Therefore A is grandmother of D.
E (male) is brother of D.
Therefore, C is parent of both D and E, and A is grandmother of both D and E.
F (female) is mother of E.
Hence, F is mother of both D and E
Therefore C (male) is father of both D and E, and C is husband of F.
G (female) is granddaughter of A.
Therefore, A is grandmother of G.
H has only two children B and C.
Therefore, H is father of B and C, and H is husband of A.
Also, H is grandfather of D, E and G;
Therefore, F(female) is daughter-in-law of H.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
As per the given information, we can derive following information
A (female) is mother of B.
B (female) is sister of C.
Therefore A is mother of both B and C.
D (male) is son of C.
Therefore A is grandmother of D.
E (male) is brother of D.
Therefore, C is parent of both D and E, and A is grandmother of both D and E.
F (female) is mother of E.
Hence, F is mother of both D and E
Therefore C (male) is father of both D and E, and C is husband of F.
G (female) is granddaughter of A.
Therefore, A is grandmother of G.
H has only two children B and C.
Therefore, H is father of B and C, and H is husband of A.
Also, H is grandfather of D, E and G;
Therefore, F(female) is daughter-in-law of H.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsWhat should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
14, 25, 47, 91, ‘?’, 355
Correct
Solution: B
14 x 2 – 3 = 25,
25 x 2 – 3 = 47,
47 x 2 – 3 = 91
91 x 2 – 3 = 179
179 x 2 – 3 = 355.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
14 x 2 – 3 = 25,
25 x 2 – 3 = 47,
47 x 2 – 3 = 91
91 x 2 – 3 = 179
179 x 2 – 3 = 355.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsTina goes to school from her house at a speed of 3 km/hr and returns at a speed of 2 km/hr. If she takes 5 hours in total, then what is the distance between her house and school?
Correct
Solution: A
Let the distance between Tina’s house and school be ‘x’ km.
Therefore, time to cover the distance from her house to school =
(Distance/ speed) = (x/3) hours.
Similarly, time to cover the distance from her school to house = (x/2) hours.
It is given that total time taken for whole journey= 5 hours.
Thus, (x/3 + x/2)= 5
((2x+3x)/6)= 5
(5x/6)=5
5x=30 or x=6
Thus, distance between her house and school is 6 km.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Let the distance between Tina’s house and school be ‘x’ km.
Therefore, time to cover the distance from her house to school =
(Distance/ speed) = (x/3) hours.
Similarly, time to cover the distance from her school to house = (x/2) hours.
It is given that total time taken for whole journey= 5 hours.
Thus, (x/3 + x/2)= 5
((2x+3x)/6)= 5
(5x/6)=5
5x=30 or x=6
Thus, distance between her house and school is 6 km.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsLaws of nature are not commands but statements of acts. The use of the word “law” in this context is rather unfortunate. It would be better to speak of uniformities in nature. This would do away with the elementary fallacy that a law implies a law giver. If a piece of matter does not obey a law of nature it is punished. On the contrary, we say that the law has been incorrectly started.
The laws of nature based on observation are
Correct
correct answer is DExplanation:
It is written in the very first line “Laws of nature are not commands but statements of acts”. So basically which means that Laws of nature are not rigid or static but they change with the need and actions of its surroundings.
If we go by elimination method we will get D as an answer. Hence, correct answer is D.Incorrect
correct answer is DExplanation:
It is written in the very first line “Laws of nature are not commands but statements of acts”. So basically which means that Laws of nature are not rigid or static but they change with the need and actions of its surroundings.
If we go by elimination method we will get D as an answer. Hence, correct answer is D.
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