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If you are to turn VICTORIOUS, WIN first and then set out to CONQUER. You need to WIN in knowing and understanding the opponent thoroughly. The same goes for UPSC. If you are to Clear this Exam, you need to understand the Core Philosophy of UPSC, the demands of CSE, penetrate into the minds of UPSC paper setters and be abreast of the recent trends of this Exam. With a vast syllabus, you cannot make the mistake of trying to achieve perfection in every area to clear this exam. You need to be smart in focusing on the important areas, strategically. The surest and fastest way of doing this is to solve the Previous Year UPSC Question papers religiously.
You may be a beginner or a veteran, practicing Previous Year UPSC Questions is of utmost importance to get a good hold of the language used by UPSC especially with the Prelims Exam approaching. In this regard, InsightsIAS will be uploading Previous Year UPSC Prelims Question papers in a QUIZ format so that you have an experience of solving the MCQs like the real Prelims Examination.
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to cabinet mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It recommended a federal government.
- It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
- It provided for more Indians in the ICS
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: a)
The cabinet mission plan of 1946 proposed that there shall be a Union of India which was to be empowered to deal with the defense, foreign affairs and communications.
- The Union Government and its legislature were to have limited powers, dealing with Finance, Foreign Affairs and Communications. The union would have powers necessary to raise the finances to manage the subjects.
- All subjects other than the Union Subjects and all the residuary powers would be vested in the provinces.
- Thus, the Cabinet Mission plan proposed a weak Centre with Provincial autonomy – essentially proposing a federal structure of government.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1946_Cabinet_Mission_to_India
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The cabinet mission plan of 1946 proposed that there shall be a Union of India which was to be empowered to deal with the defense, foreign affairs and communications.
- The Union Government and its legislature were to have limited powers, dealing with Finance, Foreign Affairs and Communications. The union would have powers necessary to raise the finances to manage the subjects.
- All subjects other than the Union Subjects and all the residuary powers would be vested in the provinces.
- Thus, the Cabinet Mission plan proposed a weak Centre with Provincial autonomy – essentially proposing a federal structure of government.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1946_Cabinet_Mission_to_India
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
Correct
Solution: d)
There is some dispute about the answer. Some claim it to be A or B which are not correct. Both Khangchendzonga and Nandadevi National park do not have tropical vegetation.
Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India.
The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests.
The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Montane forests, temperate forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow. The park has extensive bamboo forests and secondary forests in addition to the primary forests. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Namdapha_National_Park#Geography http://www.knpsikkim.in/khangchendzonga-national-park-trekking/ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nanda_Devi_National_Park#Flora
Incorrect
Solution: d)
There is some dispute about the answer. Some claim it to be A or B which are not correct. Both Khangchendzonga and Nandadevi National park do not have tropical vegetation.
Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India.
The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests.
The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Montane forests, temperate forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow. The park has extensive bamboo forests and secondary forests in addition to the primary forests. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Namdapha_National_Park#Geography http://www.knpsikkim.in/khangchendzonga-national-park-trekking/ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nanda_Devi_National_Park#Flora
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsAmnesty International is
Correct
Solution: b)
As per the website of Amnesty International, “Amnesty International is a global movement of more than 7 million people who take injustice personally. We are campaigning for a world where human rights are enjoyed by all.”
Incorrect
Solution: b)
As per the website of Amnesty International, “Amnesty International is a global movement of more than 7 million people who take injustice personally. We are campaigning for a world where human rights are enjoyed by all.”
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?
Correct
Solution: b)
Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar was created in 11th AD. Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram are 7th century AD creation. At Udayagiri, it is 5th century AD creation. Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli was created during Ashoka’s reign (272-231 BC). This is the oldest among the four.
Sources: http://www.bl.uk/onlinegallery/onlineex/apac/photocoll/s/019pho000001003u0330b000.html https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Udayagiri_Caves https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lingaraja_Temple
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar was created in 11th AD. Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram are 7th century AD creation. At Udayagiri, it is 5th century AD creation. Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli was created during Ashoka’s reign (272-231 BC). This is the oldest among the four.
Sources: http://www.bl.uk/onlinegallery/onlineex/apac/photocoll/s/019pho000001003u0330b000.html https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Udayagiri_Caves https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lingaraja_Temple
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential elementary elements of the feudal system?
- A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority
- Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land
Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: b)
The terms feudalism and feudal system were generally applied to the early and central Middle Ages—the period from the 5th century, when central political authority in the Western empire disappeared, to the 12th century, when kingdoms began to emerge as effective centralized units of government (the period is claimed as 9th-15th century by Wikipedia).
Broadly defined, it was a way of structuring society around relationships derived from the holding of land in exchange for service or labour (lord-vassal relationship).
Use of the term feudalism to describe India applies a concept of medieval European origin, according to which the landed nobility held lands from the Crown in exchange for military service, and vassals were in turn tenants of the nobles, while the peasants (villeins or serfs) were obliged to live on their lord’s land and give him homage, labor, and a share of the produce, notionally in exchange for military protection. The term Indian feudalism is an attempt to classify Indian history according to a European model.
Feudalism, in its various forms, usually emerged as a result of the decentralization of an empire: especially in the Carolingian empires which both lacked the bureaucratic infrastructure necessary to support cavalry without the ability to allocate land to these mounted troops.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Feudalism http://www.britannica.com/topic/feudalism
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The terms feudalism and feudal system were generally applied to the early and central Middle Ages—the period from the 5th century, when central political authority in the Western empire disappeared, to the 12th century, when kingdoms began to emerge as effective centralized units of government (the period is claimed as 9th-15th century by Wikipedia).
Broadly defined, it was a way of structuring society around relationships derived from the holding of land in exchange for service or labour (lord-vassal relationship).
Use of the term feudalism to describe India applies a concept of medieval European origin, according to which the landed nobility held lands from the Crown in exchange for military service, and vassals were in turn tenants of the nobles, while the peasants (villeins or serfs) were obliged to live on their lord’s land and give him homage, labor, and a share of the produce, notionally in exchange for military protection. The term Indian feudalism is an attempt to classify Indian history according to a European model.
Feudalism, in its various forms, usually emerged as a result of the decentralization of an empire: especially in the Carolingian empires which both lacked the bureaucratic infrastructure necessary to support cavalry without the ability to allocate land to these mounted troops.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Feudalism http://www.britannica.com/topic/feudalism
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 points‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
Correct
Solution: d)
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
Sources: http://vlscop.vermontlaw.edu/2013/11/20/the-biocarbon-fund-initiative-for- sustainable-forest-landscapes-a-bold-step-forward/
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
Sources: http://vlscop.vermontlaw.edu/2013/11/20/the-biocarbon-fund-initiative-for- sustainable-forest-landscapes-a-bold-step-forward/
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsIndia is a member of which of the following?
- Asia-Pacific economic corporation.
- Association of South-East Asian Nations.
- East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: b)
India is a member of East Asia Summit. India is a member of ASEAN+6, not ASEAN. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/East_Asia_Summit
Incorrect
Solution: b)
India is a member of East Asia Summit. India is a member of ASEAN+6, not ASEAN. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/East_Asia_Summit
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsIn India the steel production industry requires the import of
Correct
Solution: c)
Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the production of steel. It is instead used in fertilizers, tree stump removal, rocket propellants and fireworks. It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder (blackpowder) and has been used since the Middle Ages as a food preservative.
India definitely imports coking coal. So, the answer has to be C.
It requires 0.8 tonnes coking coal to produce one tonne of steel. The government had recently imposed a 2.5 per cent duty on coking coal import.
Source:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Potassium_nitrate http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2014-07-10/news/51300920_1_steel-industry- key-steel-making-input-basic-customs-duty
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the production of steel. It is instead used in fertilizers, tree stump removal, rocket propellants and fireworks. It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder (blackpowder) and has been used since the Middle Ages as a food preservative.
India definitely imports coking coal. So, the answer has to be C.
It requires 0.8 tonnes coking coal to produce one tonne of steel. The government had recently imposed a 2.5 per cent duty on coking coal import.
Source:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Potassium_nitrate http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2014-07-10/news/51300920_1_steel-industry- key-steel-making-input-basic-customs-duty
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsThe provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
Correct
Solution: a)
Option C is incorrect because it excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system. This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, social and political institutions are not tampered with.
Instead, the act known as PESA, 1996 extends the panchayati raj system to the tribal areas.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Option C is incorrect because it excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system. This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, social and political institutions are not tampered with.
Instead, the act known as PESA, 1996 extends the panchayati raj system to the tribal areas.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.
- The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
- No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
- All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization from the Parliament of India
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund.
Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).
The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs. The Finance Secretary coordinates the overall Budget-making process
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund.
Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).
The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs. The Finance Secretary coordinates the overall Budget-making process
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsWho/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?
Correct
Solution: d (As per the whims of UPSC!)
There is a dispute whether answer should be D or A.
Arguments in favour of the Supreme court as Custodian of the Constitution:
Source:http://cbseacademic.in/web_material/doc/Legal_Studies/XI_U4_Legal_Studies.pdf
Incorrect
Solution: d (As per the whims of UPSC!)
There is a dispute whether answer should be D or A.
Arguments in favour of the Supreme court as Custodian of the Constitution:
Source:http://cbseacademic.in/web_material/doc/Legal_Studies/XI_U4_Legal_Studies.pdf
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
- The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
The government of India launched Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program (AIBP) in 1996-
- This program was launched to give loan assistance to the states to help them a few major irrigation projects which were in advanced stage of completion.
The Command Area Development Programme was launched as a Centrally-sponsored scheme in 1974-75 with the main objectives of improving utilization of irrigation potential and optimizing agricultural productivity and production from the irrigated areas by integrating all functions related with irrigated agriculture.
Source: http://www.archive.india.gov.in/sectors/water_resources/index.php?id=10 http://www.archive.india.gov.in/sectors/water_resources/index.php?id=8
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The government of India launched Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program (AIBP) in 1996-
- This program was launched to give loan assistance to the states to help them a few major irrigation projects which were in advanced stage of completion.
The Command Area Development Programme was launched as a Centrally-sponsored scheme in 1974-75 with the main objectives of improving utilization of irrigation potential and optimizing agricultural productivity and production from the irrigated areas by integrating all functions related with irrigated agriculture.
Source: http://www.archive.india.gov.in/sectors/water_resources/index.php?id=10 http://www.archive.india.gov.in/sectors/water_resources/index.php?id=8
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsThe Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
Correct
Solution: c)
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of Environment and Forests under ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
It is the apex body to accord notified under Rules 1989, for approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recom¬binants in research and industrial production from the environ¬mental angle. The GEAC is also responsible for ap¬proval of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment, including experimen¬tal field trials (Biosafety Research Level trial-I and II known as BRL-I and BRL-II).
Source: http://envfor.nic.in/major-initiatives/geac-clearances
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of Environment and Forests under ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
It is the apex body to accord notified under Rules 1989, for approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recom¬binants in research and industrial production from the environ¬mental angle. The GEAC is also responsible for ap¬proval of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment, including experimen¬tal field trials (Biosafety Research Level trial-I and II known as BRL-I and BRL-II).
Source: http://envfor.nic.in/major-initiatives/geac-clearances
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsIn the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants?
- Bangladesh
- Cambodia
- China
- Myanmar
- Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: c)
The Mekong–Ganga Cooperation (MGC) was established on November 10, 2000 at Vientiane at the First MGC Ministerial Meeting. It comprises six member countries, namely India, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam. They emphasised four areas of cooperation, which are tourism, culture, education, and transportation linkage in order to be solid foundation for future trade and investment cooperation in the region.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mekong%E2%80%93Ganga_Cooperation
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Mekong–Ganga Cooperation (MGC) was established on November 10, 2000 at Vientiane at the First MGC Ministerial Meeting. It comprises six member countries, namely India, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam. They emphasised four areas of cooperation, which are tourism, culture, education, and transportation linkage in order to be solid foundation for future trade and investment cooperation in the region.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mekong%E2%80%93Ganga_Cooperation
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 points‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to
Correct
Solution: b)
Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory framework on bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk. It was agreed upon by the members of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in 2010–11, and was scheduled to be introduced from 2013 until 2015.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory framework on bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk. It was agreed upon by the members of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in 2010–11, and was scheduled to be introduced from 2013 until 2015.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The winds which blow between 30 degrees N and 60 degrees S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
- The moist air masses that cause winter rams in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Westerlies flow between latitudes 30-60 degrees North and 30-60 degrees South. The statement mentions 30N-60S. So it is wrong.
The western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the westerly flow from the Mediterranean region. They usually influence the weather of the north and north-western regions of India. They are a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the Westerlies. (http://www.nih.ernet.in/rbis/india_information/wd.htm) Source: NCERT -9th Standard – Contemporary India-I – Chapter 4 (Climate)
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Westerlies flow between latitudes 30-60 degrees North and 30-60 degrees South. The statement mentions 30N-60S. So it is wrong.
The western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the westerly flow from the Mediterranean region. They usually influence the weather of the north and north-western regions of India. They are a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the Westerlies. (http://www.nih.ernet.in/rbis/india_information/wd.htm) Source: NCERT -9th Standard – Contemporary India-I – Chapter 4 (Climate)
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements:
- It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills
- It is an alliance meant for maritime security only
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Solution: d)
The organization was first established as Indian Ocean Rim Initiative in Mauritius on March 1995 and formally launched on 6–7 March 1997. It is an international organization consisting of coastal states bordering the Indian Ocean.
Priority areas are to promote the sustained growth and balanced development of the region and of the Member States, and to create common ground for regional economic co- operation. Six priority areas were identified at the 11th Council of Ministers, in Bengaluru are:
- Maritime Safety & Security,
- Trade & Investment Facilitation,
- Fisheries Management,
- Disaster Risk Management,
- Academic, Science & Technology,
- Tourism & Cultural Exchanges
- Gender empowerment Source: http://iora.net/
Incorrect
- Solution: d)
The organization was first established as Indian Ocean Rim Initiative in Mauritius on March 1995 and formally launched on 6–7 March 1997. It is an international organization consisting of coastal states bordering the Indian Ocean.
Priority areas are to promote the sustained growth and balanced development of the region and of the Member States, and to create common ground for regional economic co- operation. Six priority areas were identified at the 11th Council of Ministers, in Bengaluru are:
- Maritime Safety & Security,
- Trade & Investment Facilitation,
- Fisheries Management,
- Disaster Risk Management,
- Academic, Science & Technology,
- Tourism & Cultural Exchanges
- Gender empowerment Source: http://iora.net/
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?
Correct
Solution: a)
Surat split was due to disagreements between Moderates and extremists regarding the methods for protest against the partition of Bengal (in the Swadeshi Movement).
Answer cannot be B, C or D, because moderates and extremists re-united in the Lucknow session, 1916 which was before Non-cooperation/Quit India/Civil Disobedience Movements.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Surat split was due to disagreements between Moderates and extremists regarding the methods for protest against the partition of Bengal (in the Swadeshi Movement).
Answer cannot be B, C or D, because moderates and extremists re-united in the Lucknow session, 1916 which was before Non-cooperation/Quit India/Civil Disobedience Movements.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsIn a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living tree into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘Living Root Bridges’ are found in
Correct
Solution: a)
Meghalaya’s double-decker and single-decker root bridges are unique in the world and are a sight to behold. The bridges are tangles of massive thick roots, which have been intermingled to form a bridge that can hold several people at a time. Khasi people have been trained to grow these bridges across the raised banks of streams to form a solid bridge, made from roots. The living bridges are made from the roots of the Ficus elastic tree, which produces a series of secondary roots that are perched atop huge boulders along the streams or the riverbanks to form bridges.
The root bridges, some of which are over a hundred feet long, take ten to fifteen years to become fully functional, but they’re extraordinarily strong – strong enough that some of them can support the weight of fifty or more people at a time. The bridges are alive and still growing and gain strength over time.
Source: http://www.livingrootbridge.com/About-Living-Root-Bridge.php
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Meghalaya’s double-decker and single-decker root bridges are unique in the world and are a sight to behold. The bridges are tangles of massive thick roots, which have been intermingled to form a bridge that can hold several people at a time. Khasi people have been trained to grow these bridges across the raised banks of streams to form a solid bridge, made from roots. The living bridges are made from the roots of the Ficus elastic tree, which produces a series of secondary roots that are perched atop huge boulders along the streams or the riverbanks to form bridges.
The root bridges, some of which are over a hundred feet long, take ten to fifteen years to become fully functional, but they’re extraordinarily strong – strong enough that some of them can support the weight of fifty or more people at a time. The bridges are alive and still growing and gain strength over time.
Source: http://www.livingrootbridge.com/About-Living-Root-Bridge.php
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsTides occur in oceans and seas due to which of the following?
- Gravitational Force of the Sun
- Gravitational Force of the Moon
- Gravitational Force of the Earth
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: d)
Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the Earth.
The times and amplitude of tides at a locale are influenced by the alignment of the Sun and Moon, by the pattern of tides in the deep ocean, by the amphidromic systems of the oceans, and the shape of the coastline and near-shore bathymetry.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the Earth.
The times and amplitude of tides at a locale are influenced by the alignment of the Sun and Moon, by the pattern of tides in the deep ocean, by the amphidromic systems of the oceans, and the shape of the coastline and near-shore bathymetry.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
- Assessment of crop productivity
- Locating ground water resources
- Mineral exploration
- Telecommunications
- Traffic studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: a)
For telecommunications geo-stationary satellites are used. Hence, you can easily eliminate statement 4, which then also eliminates statement 5 (because both occur together).
Under remote sensing, Hyperspectral imaging produces an image where each pixel has full spectral information with imaging narrow spectral bands over a contiguous spectral range. Hyperspectral imagers are used in various applications including mineralogy, biology, defence, and environmental measurements.
So, the only possible answer can be A. Source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Remote_sensing#Applications_of_remote_sensing_data
Incorrect
Solution: a)
For telecommunications geo-stationary satellites are used. Hence, you can easily eliminate statement 4, which then also eliminates statement 5 (because both occur together).
Under remote sensing, Hyperspectral imaging produces an image where each pixel has full spectral information with imaging narrow spectral bands over a contiguous spectral range. Hyperspectral imagers are used in various applications including mineralogy, biology, defence, and environmental measurements.
So, the only possible answer can be A. Source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Remote_sensing#Applications_of_remote_sensing_data
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following States:
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Himachal Pradesh
- Mizoram
In which of the following states do “Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests” occur?
Correct
Solution: c)
These are typical rain forests which grow in those areas where the annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm, the annual temperature is about 25°-27°C the average annual humidity exceeds 77 per cent and the dry season is distinctly short.
The true evergreen forests are found along the western side of the Western Ghats (between 500 to 1370 metres above sea level) south of Mumbai, in a strip running from northeast to south-west direction across Arunachal Pradesh, Upper Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram and Tripura upto a height of 1070 metres and in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Source: http://www.north-east-india.com/mizoram/flora-fauna-of-mizoram.html http://www.north-east-india.com/arunachal-pradesh/
Incorrect
Solution: c)
These are typical rain forests which grow in those areas where the annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm, the annual temperature is about 25°-27°C the average annual humidity exceeds 77 per cent and the dry season is distinctly short.
The true evergreen forests are found along the western side of the Western Ghats (between 500 to 1370 metres above sea level) south of Mumbai, in a strip running from northeast to south-west direction across Arunachal Pradesh, Upper Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram and Tripura upto a height of 1070 metres and in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Source: http://www.north-east-india.com/mizoram/flora-fauna-of-mizoram.html http://www.north-east-india.com/arunachal-pradesh/
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsThe term ‘IndARC’ sometimes seen in the news, is the name of?
Correct
Solution: d)
The interaction between the Arctic ice shelf and the deep sea and its influence on climate shift requires detailed studies over an annual seasonal cycle.
Therefore, IndARC, the India’s first underwater moored observatory, has been deployed in the Kongsfjorden fjord, half way between Norway and the North Pole. It will collect real- time data on seawater temperature, salinity, ocean currents and other vital parameters of the fjord.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indias-arctic- observatory-to-aid-climate-change-studies/article6405727.ece
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The interaction between the Arctic ice shelf and the deep sea and its influence on climate shift requires detailed studies over an annual seasonal cycle.
Therefore, IndARC, the India’s first underwater moored observatory, has been deployed in the Kongsfjorden fjord, half way between Norway and the North Pole. It will collect real- time data on seawater temperature, salinity, ocean currents and other vital parameters of the fjord.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indias-arctic- observatory-to-aid-climate-change-studies/article6405727.ece
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 points23. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- it is global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples
- it provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management
- It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: c)
Option B was framed to deviate you from the right answer.
The facility has been formed under REDD+. Go to the link to read the four objectives of FCPF. This is implemented at country level, not al universities or individual levels.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Option B was framed to deviate you from the right answer.
The facility has been formed under REDD+. Go to the link to read the four objectives of FCPF. This is implemented at country level, not al universities or individual levels.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following was given classical language status recently?
Correct
Solution: a)
This question was from UPSC Prelims GS-I paper, 2014.
Source: http://www.telegraphindia.com/1140221/jsp/frontpage/story_18004148.jsp
Incorrect
Solution: a)
This question was from UPSC Prelims GS-I paper, 2014.
Source: http://www.telegraphindia.com/1140221/jsp/frontpage/story_18004148.jsp
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsWith reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
- The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: c)
BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards
sustainability in the use of natural resources. It is the World’s largest partnership of conservation organisations, with over 120 partner organizations 120 partner
organizations. Together the BirdLife Partnership forms the leading authority on the status of birds, their habitats and the issues and problems affecting bird life.
BirdLife’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) Programme aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for the conservation of the world’s birds and other wildlife.
Source: http://www.birdlife.org/worldwide/partnership/about-birdlife
Incorrect
Solution: c)
BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards
sustainability in the use of natural resources. It is the World’s largest partnership of conservation organisations, with over 120 partner organizations 120 partner
organizations. Together the BirdLife Partnership forms the leading authority on the status of birds, their habitats and the issues and problems affecting bird life.
BirdLife’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) Programme aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for the conservation of the world’s birds and other wildlife.
Source: http://www.birdlife.org/worldwide/partnership/about-birdlife
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
Correct
Solution: b)
Incorrect
Solution: b)
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsIn India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?
Correct
Solution: a)
Tropical moist deciduous forests exist mostly in the eastern part of the country – northeastern states, along the foothills of the Himalayas, Jharkhand, West Orissa and Chhattisgarh, and on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
Teak is the most dominant species of this forest. Bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, arjun, mulberry are other commercially important species.
Source: NCERT – 9th Standard– Contemporary India-I (Geography) – Chapter 5
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Tropical moist deciduous forests exist mostly in the eastern part of the country – northeastern states, along the foothills of the Himalayas, Jharkhand, West Orissa and Chhattisgarh, and on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
Teak is the most dominant species of this forest. Bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, arjun, mulberry are other commercially important species.
Source: NCERT – 9th Standard– Contemporary India-I (Geography) – Chapter 5
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 points‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’ often seen in the news, is
Correct
Solution: c)
The Platform for Action is an agenda for women’s empowerment. It aims at accelerating the implementation of the Nairobi Forward-looking Strategies for the Advancement of Women and at removing all the obstacles to women’s active participation in all spheres of public and private life through a full and equal share in economic, social, cultural and political
decision-making.
Source: http://www.un.org/womenwatch/daw/beijing/platform/plat1.htm#statement
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Platform for Action is an agenda for women’s empowerment. It aims at accelerating the implementation of the Nairobi Forward-looking Strategies for the Advancement of Women and at removing all the obstacles to women’s active participation in all spheres of public and private life through a full and equal share in economic, social, cultural and political
decision-making.
Source: http://www.un.org/womenwatch/daw/beijing/platform/plat1.htm#statement
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 points“Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, than rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over.” Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?
Correct
Solution: b)
Equatorial climate is characterized by consistently high temperatures (around 30 °C), with plentiful precipitation (150–1,000 cm), heavy cloud cover, and high humidity, with very little annual temperature variation. Wet equatorial regions lie within about 12° latitude of the Equator.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Equatorial climate is characterized by consistently high temperatures (around 30 °C), with plentiful precipitation (150–1,000 cm), heavy cloud cover, and high humidity, with very little annual temperature variation. Wet equatorial regions lie within about 12° latitude of the Equator.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsWith reference to India economy, consider the following statements:
- The rate of growth of real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last
- The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Due to recession in 2008, the growth rate of the Indian economy had declined for the next few years from 8-9% to 5-6%. So, statement 1 is wrong.
Even though the growth rate declined, it never became negative. So, the GDP at market prices has always increased year on year since last one decade.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Due to recession in 2008, the growth rate of the Indian economy had declined for the next few years from 8-9% to 5-6%. So, statement 1 is wrong.
Even though the growth rate declined, it never became negative. So, the GDP at market prices has always increased year on year since last one decade.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
- The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions).
The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 29 (State Legislatures)
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions).
The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 29 (State Legislatures)
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 points“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
Correct
Solution: d)
It has been mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution (Fundamental Duties).
Incorrect
Solution: d)
It has been mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution (Fundamental Duties).
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is the best description of the term “ecosystem”?
Correct
Solution: c)
An ecosystem is a community of living organisms in conjunction with the non-living components of their environment, interacting as a system. These biotic and abiotic components are regarded as linked together through nutrient cycles and energy flows. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecosystem
Incorrect
Solution: c)
An ecosystem is a community of living organisms in conjunction with the non-living components of their environment, interacting as a system. These biotic and abiotic components are regarded as linked together through nutrient cycles and energy flows. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecosystem
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsThe fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
- People’s participation in development
- Political accountability
- Democratic decentralization
- Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: c)
There is some dispute about the answers. Some claim the answer to be A, some C and some D.
We accept that there is some subjectivity inherent in the options. However, the question can be solved on objective basis.
Statement 4 is INCORRECT because financial mobilization was never the basis for the establishment of panchayati raj. Local financial mobilization (by way of octroi taxes etc. ) is the outcome of the establishment of the PRIs, not its objective. In fact, only few states have devolved financial powers to their PRIs.
Statement 3 is also INAPPROPRIATE in the context of the question. Reasons are:
- Political accountability can be ensured in any system which is democratic/rule-based, it need not necessarily be via a local
- Grass-roots democracy was established in India not to ensure any political accountability, but to ensure citizen’s participation in governance leading to democratic decentralization. So, the term “democratic decentralization” is an appropriate replacement for the term “political accountability”.
- Moreover, political accountability already existed in the villages by way of elections to State legislatures. What has happened after 1993 is that it has only become easier to hold the representatives accountable. It is always easier to approach someone next door (ward councilor) than next district (MP or MLA/MLC).
In Karnataka, elections to Grama Panchayats are held on apolitical basis i.e. members are not elected from political party tickets.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
There is some dispute about the answers. Some claim the answer to be A, some C and some D.
We accept that there is some subjectivity inherent in the options. However, the question can be solved on objective basis.
Statement 4 is INCORRECT because financial mobilization was never the basis for the establishment of panchayati raj. Local financial mobilization (by way of octroi taxes etc. ) is the outcome of the establishment of the PRIs, not its objective. In fact, only few states have devolved financial powers to their PRIs.
Statement 3 is also INAPPROPRIATE in the context of the question. Reasons are:
- Political accountability can be ensured in any system which is democratic/rule-based, it need not necessarily be via a local
- Grass-roots democracy was established in India not to ensure any political accountability, but to ensure citizen’s participation in governance leading to democratic decentralization. So, the term “democratic decentralization” is an appropriate replacement for the term “political accountability”.
- Moreover, political accountability already existed in the villages by way of elections to State legislatures. What has happened after 1993 is that it has only become easier to hold the representatives accountable. It is always easier to approach someone next door (ward councilor) than next district (MP or MLA/MLC).
In Karnataka, elections to Grama Panchayats are held on apolitical basis i.e. members are not elected from political party tickets.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsWith reference to India economy, consider the following :
- Bank rate
- Open market operations
- Public debt
- Public revenue
Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?
Correct
Solution: c)
Public debt and Public revenue are matters falling under Fiscal policy. The Ministry of Finance handles these subjects.
Bank rate and OMOs fall within the jurisdiction of RBI’s monetary policy.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Public debt and Public revenue are matters falling under Fiscal policy. The Ministry of Finance handles these subjects.
Bank rate and OMOs fall within the jurisdiction of RBI’s monetary policy.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsWhich reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Decreased money circulation leads to lesser money in hands of people to spend. Hence, lower demand (given the same supply) leads to falling prices fall and reduced inflation.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Decreased money circulation leads to lesser money in hands of people to spend. Hence, lower demand (given the same supply) leads to falling prices fall and reduced inflation.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 pointsConsider the following countries
- China
- France
- India
- Israel
- Pakistan
Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Nonproliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
Correct
Solution: a)
The treaty recognizes five states as nuclear-weapon states: the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China (also the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council).
Four other states are known or believed to possess nuclear weapons: India, Pakistan and North Korea have openly tested and declared that they possess nuclear weapons, while Israel has had a policy of opacity regarding its nuclear weapons program.
So, you can conclude that Israel can never be a part of the answer which directly points out to option A as the answer.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treaty_on_the_Non- Proliferation_of_Nuclear_Weapons
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The treaty recognizes five states as nuclear-weapon states: the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China (also the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council).
Four other states are known or believed to possess nuclear weapons: India, Pakistan and North Korea have openly tested and declared that they possess nuclear weapons, while Israel has had a policy of opacity regarding its nuclear weapons program.
So, you can conclude that Israel can never be a part of the answer which directly points out to option A as the answer.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treaty_on_the_Non- Proliferation_of_Nuclear_Weapons
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsThe ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
Correct
Solution: b)
In a welfare State, the functions of the State are not only the defence of the country or administration of justice or maintaining law and order but it extends to regulating and controlling the activities of the people in almost every sphere—educational, commercial, social, economic, political and even marital.
DPSP thus promotes the ideal of a welfare state as it guides the state in making policies for the socio-economic well being of the people of India.
Preamble, option A, will NOT be the answer because it simply lists the socio-economic objectives of Indian society. It does not tell us who will design or execute policies based on the objectives.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
In a welfare State, the functions of the State are not only the defence of the country or administration of justice or maintaining law and order but it extends to regulating and controlling the activities of the people in almost every sphere—educational, commercial, social, economic, political and even marital.
DPSP thus promotes the ideal of a welfare state as it guides the state in making policies for the socio-economic well being of the people of India.
Preamble, option A, will NOT be the answer because it simply lists the socio-economic objectives of Indian society. It does not tell us who will design or execute policies based on the objectives.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsThe substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of
Correct
Solution: b)
“Capital” in an economic context means machinery or capital goods which can be employed to produce other goods.
Substitution of steel can be considered as the substitution of a lesser machine by a better machine. This encourages steel production. Hence it is a capital-augmenting technological progress.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
“Capital” in an economic context means machinery or capital goods which can be employed to produce other goods.
Substitution of steel can be considered as the substitution of a lesser machine by a better machine. This encourages steel production. Hence it is a capital-augmenting technological progress.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsThere is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
Correct
Solution: d)
Option A points to a democratic system. It does not necessarily mean a Parliamentary Democratic system. For e.g. in USA the Congress is also elected, but it is a Presidential Democracy.
Option D is correct because “Collective responsibility” of the council of ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75) lies at the heart of a Parliamentary democracy.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 12 (Parliamentary System)
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Option A points to a democratic system. It does not necessarily mean a Parliamentary Democratic system. For e.g. in USA the Congress is also elected, but it is a Presidential Democracy.
Option D is correct because “Collective responsibility” of the council of ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75) lies at the heart of a Parliamentary democracy.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 12 (Parliamentary System)
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsH1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
Correct
Solution: d)
Influenza A (H1N1) virus is the most common cause of human influenza (flu). In June 2009, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared the new strain of swine-origin H1N1 as a pandemic. This strain is often called swine flu by the public media.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Influenza A (H1N1) virus is the most common cause of human influenza (flu). In June 2009, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared the new strain of swine-origin H1N1 as a pandemic. This strain is often called swine flu by the public media.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsWith reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:
- The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculum.
- Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Under the bio-toilet concept of the DRDO, the bio-digester tank in every toilet is filled with inoculums containing four types of bacteria. The water trap system in the toilet prevents air from getting into the tank, the human waste is processed by anaerobic bacteria in seven chambers in the tank and the methane gas is allowed to escape into the air.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/biotoilets-in-trains-by- 2022/article6069104.ece
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Under the bio-toilet concept of the DRDO, the bio-digester tank in every toilet is filled with inoculums containing four types of bacteria. The water trap system in the toilet prevents air from getting into the tank, the human waste is processed by anaerobic bacteria in seven chambers in the tank and the methane gas is allowed to escape into the air.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/biotoilets-in-trains-by- 2022/article6069104.ece
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsThe problem of international liquidity is related to the non-availability of
Correct
Solution: c)
The concept of international liquidity is associated with international payments. These payments arise out of international trade in goods and services and also in connection with capital movements between one country and another. International liquidity refers to the generally accepted official means of settling imbalances in international payments which is basically dollars and hard currencies.
Source: http://capital-flow-watch.net/2006/02/19/what-is-international-liquidity/ http://www.ide.go.jp/English/Publish/Periodicals/De/pdf/65_03_05.pdf
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The concept of international liquidity is associated with international payments. These payments arise out of international trade in goods and services and also in connection with capital movements between one country and another. International liquidity refers to the generally accepted official means of settling imbalances in international payments which is basically dollars and hard currencies.
Source: http://capital-flow-watch.net/2006/02/19/what-is-international-liquidity/ http://www.ide.go.jp/English/Publish/Periodicals/De/pdf/65_03_05.pdf
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements :
- If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
- Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop
- Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
The purpose of a fuel cell is to produce an electrical current that can be directed outside the cell to do work, such as powering an electric motor or illuminating a light bulb or a city.
One great appeal of fuel cells is that they generate electricity with very little pollution–much of the hydrogen and oxygen used in generating electricity ultimately combines to form a harmless byproduct, namely water alongwith releasing heat.
A single fuel cell generates a tiny amount of direct current (DC) electricity. In practice, many fuel cells are usually assembled into a stack.
If alternating current (AC) is needed, the DC output of the fuel cell must be routed through a conversion device called an inverter.
Source: http://americanhistory.si.edu/fuelcells/basics.htm http://auto.howstuffworks.com/fuel-efficiency/alternative-fuels/fuel-cell1.htm
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The purpose of a fuel cell is to produce an electrical current that can be directed outside the cell to do work, such as powering an electric motor or illuminating a light bulb or a city.
One great appeal of fuel cells is that they generate electricity with very little pollution–much of the hydrogen and oxygen used in generating electricity ultimately combines to form a harmless byproduct, namely water alongwith releasing heat.
A single fuel cell generates a tiny amount of direct current (DC) electricity. In practice, many fuel cells are usually assembled into a stack.
If alternating current (AC) is needed, the DC output of the fuel cell must be routed through a conversion device called an inverter.
Source: http://americanhistory.si.edu/fuelcells/basics.htm http://auto.howstuffworks.com/fuel-efficiency/alternative-fuels/fuel-cell1.htm
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsKalamkari painting refers to
Correct
Solution: a)
Kalamkari painting is a type of Indian folk textile art that involves free hand drawing and painting or printing on cloth, mostly cotton. Derived from the Persian language meaning ‘drawing or crafting with pen’, Kalamkari is an ancient form of painting that developed in India over a period of 3,000 years.
Kalahasti and Machilipatnam in Andhra Pradesh, the nerve centres of this art continue to be beehives of Kalamkari activity.
Source: http://lepakshihandicrafts.gov.in/kalamkaripaintings.html
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Kalamkari painting is a type of Indian folk textile art that involves free hand drawing and painting or printing on cloth, mostly cotton. Derived from the Persian language meaning ‘drawing or crafting with pen’, Kalamkari is an ancient form of painting that developed in India over a period of 3,000 years.
Kalahasti and Machilipatnam in Andhra Pradesh, the nerve centres of this art continue to be beehives of Kalamkari activity.
Source: http://lepakshihandicrafts.gov.in/kalamkaripaintings.html
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept?
Correct
Solution: b)
A village, wherein trained group of fanners are involved (generally in a self-help group) in production of seeds of various crops and cater to the needs of themselves, fellow fanners of the village and fanners of neighboring villages in appropriate time and at affordable cost is called “a seed village”.
Source: http://www.agritech.tnau.ac.in/seed_certification/seed_tech_Seed%20Village.html
Incorrect
Solution: b)
A village, wherein trained group of fanners are involved (generally in a self-help group) in production of seeds of various crops and cater to the needs of themselves, fellow fanners of the village and fanners of neighboring villages in appropriate time and at affordable cost is called “a seed village”.
Source: http://www.agritech.tnau.ac.in/seed_certification/seed_tech_Seed%20Village.html
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsThere has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?
- Reducing revenue expenditure
- Introducing new welfare schemes
- Rationalizing subsidies
- Expanding industries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Introducing new welfare scheme will further inflate the budget.
Expanding industries by budgetary support will not add anything in the short-run to the tax revenues of the government, and thus will increase the budget deficit.
Rationalizing subsidies and reducing revenue expenditure are two direct ways of reducing the fiscal burden of the government of India.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Introducing new welfare scheme will further inflate the budget.
Expanding industries by budgetary support will not add anything in the short-run to the tax revenues of the government, and thus will increase the budget deficit.
Rationalizing subsidies and reducing revenue expenditure are two direct ways of reducing the fiscal burden of the government of India.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status?
- Banaras Brocades and Sarees
- Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
- Tirupathi Laddu
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: c)
The world famous Banarasi saree and brocade got GI status on September 4 2009.
Dal– Bati– Churma of Rajasthan has not been given Geographical Indicator Tag.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Geographical_Indications_in_India
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The world famous Banarasi saree and brocade got GI status on September 4 2009.
Dal– Bati– Churma of Rajasthan has not been given Geographical Indicator Tag.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Geographical_Indications_in_India
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a Public Limited Government Company.
- It is a Non – Banking Financial Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: c)
IREDA has been awarded “Mini Ratna” (Category -I) status in 2015 by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987 under the administrative control of MNRE to promote, develop and extend financial assistance for renewable energy and energy efficiency /conservation projects with the motto: “ENERGY FOR EVER”.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
IREDA has been awarded “Mini Ratna” (Category -I) status in 2015 by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987 under the administrative control of MNRE to promote, develop and extend financial assistance for renewable energy and energy efficiency /conservation projects with the motto: “ENERGY FOR EVER”.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsPradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana has been launched for
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Jan–Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/ Savings & Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner.
Reference link: http://jandhanyojana.net/
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Jan–Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/ Savings & Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner.
Reference link: http://jandhanyojana.net/
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsWith Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent
- It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct.
The commission has recommended states’ share in net proceeds of tax revenues be 42 percent, a huge jump from the 32 per cent recommend by the 13th Finance Commission, the largest change ever in the percentage of devolution. As compared to total devolutions in 2014-15, total devolution of states in 2015-16 will increase by over 45 per cent.
No sector specific grant recommendations were made. Please read the link below for detailed recommendations.
Source: http://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/14th-finance- commission-recommendations-115022500066_1.html
Incorrect
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct.
The commission has recommended states’ share in net proceeds of tax revenues be 42 percent, a huge jump from the 32 per cent recommend by the 13th Finance Commission, the largest change ever in the percentage of devolution. As compared to total devolutions in 2014-15, total devolution of states in 2015-16 will increase by over 45 per cent.
No sector specific grant recommendations were made. Please read the link below for detailed recommendations.
Source: http://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/14th-finance- commission-recommendations-115022500066_1.html
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation: The declaration was one of the outcomes of 6th BRICS summit. The declaration commits BRICS to setup a $100 billion reserve fund to be used by its members as a cooperative venture.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation: The declaration was one of the outcomes of 6th BRICS summit. The declaration commits BRICS to setup a $100 billion reserve fund to be used by its members as a cooperative venture.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsSolution: A
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct.
What is Tax-to-GDP ratio?
A tax-to-GDP ratio is a gauge of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy as measured by gross domestic product (GDP). The ratio provides a useful look at a country’s tax revenue because it reveals potential taxation relative to the economy. It also enables a view of the overall direction of a nation’s tax policy as well as international comparisons.
About Statement 1: It is correct since slowing economic growth is one of the main reasons behind decrease in tax-to-GDP ratio. In India, this trend was observed at various instances. Ex: India’s gross tax-to-GDP ratio fell to 10.9 per cent in 2018-19 on account of lower than estimated GST collection. This resulted in lower tax-to-GDP ratio (https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/budget-faqs/what-is-tax-to-gdp-ratio-where-does-india-fare-on-this-indicator/articleshow/73222499.cms?from=mdr)
About Statement 2: It is incorrect since, less/greater equitable distribution of national income happens over a long period of time. If the distribution of national income is not equitable, it may mean a perennial LOW TAX-GDP ratio, but not a DECREASE in TAX-GDP ratio over the years. A decrease in tax- GDP ratio is a short-term phenomenon. It happens for reasons mentioned above.You can refer to the link to understand more about the issue:
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/t/tax-to-gdp-ratio.asphttp://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2014-07-09/news/51248100_1_jahangir-aziz-gdp-ratio-economic-survey
Correct
Solution: A
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct.
What is Tax-to-GDP ratio?
A tax-to-GDP ratio is a gauge of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy as measured by gross domestic product (GDP). The ratio provides a useful look at a country’s tax revenue because it reveals potential taxation relative to the economy. It also enables a view of the overall direction of a nation’s tax policy as well as international comparisons.
About Statement 1: It is correct since slowing economic growth is one of the main reasons behind decrease in tax-to-GDP ratio. In India, this trend was observed at various instances. Ex: India’s gross tax-to-GDP ratio fell to 10.9 per cent in 2018-19 on account of lower than estimated GST collection. This resulted in lower tax-to-GDP ratio (https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/budget-faqs/what-is-tax-to-gdp-ratio-where-does-india-fare-on-this-indicator/articleshow/73222499.cms?from=mdr)
About Statement 2: It is incorrect since, less/greater equitable distribution of national income happens over a long period of time. If the distribution of national income is not equitable, it may mean a perennial LOW TAX-GDP ratio, but not a DECREASE in TAX-GDP ratio over the years. A decrease in tax- GDP ratio is a short-term phenomenon. It happens for reasons mentioned above.You can refer to the link to understand more about the issue:
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/t/tax-to-gdp-ratio.asphttp://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2014-07-09/news/51248100_1_jahangir-aziz-gdp-ratio-economic-survey
Incorrect
Solution: d)
There is some dispute about the correct answer. As per some websites, second statement should be correct. But, here is a catch.
About Statement 1: Slowing economic growth rates may result in lower tax collection. But whether the fall in tax collection is proportionate to the fall in GDP cannot be known without knowing the on-ground statistics. It depends on the structural characteristics of the economy. So, slowing economic growth rates does not necessarily mean decrease in tax- GDP ratio.
About Statement 2: Change in collection of taxes with the change in GDP shows the tax buoyancy. Tax buoyancy can be affected by a number of reasons including tax evasion, tax avoidance, less efficient methods of tax collection etc. These are the short-term reasons which affect the tax collection. Long term reasons are structural reasons. Distribution of income is one such factor.
Generally, less/greater equitable distribution of national income happens over a long period of time. If the distribution of national income is not equitable, it may mean a perennial LOW TAX-GDP ratio, but not a DECREASE in TAX-GDP ratio over the years. A decrease in tax- GDP ratio is a short-term phenomenon. It happens for reasons mentioned above.
You can refer to the link to understand more about the issue:
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/t/tax-to-gdp-ratio.asp http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2014-07-09/news/51248100_1_jahangir-aziz- gdp-ratio-economic-survey
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsIn the South Atlantic and South Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation: ITCZ stays at or near the equator and does not shift southward over the south Atlantic or south Pacific region. Therefore, these regions do not have the ITCZ over them which is a major cause of lack of cyclone in this region.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Explanation: ITCZ stays at or near the equator and does not shift southward over the south Atlantic or south Pacific region. Therefore, these regions do not have the ITCZ over them which is a major cause of lack of cyclone in this region.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and Westernmost State?
Correct
Explanation:
Standard NCERT question! In the diagram, west of the line falls in Gujarat, while the east falls in Arunachal Pradesh.
Incorrect
Explanation:
Standard NCERT question! In the diagram, west of the line falls in Gujarat, while the east falls in Arunachal Pradesh.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
- The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
- The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any
Which of the statements given below are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation: Both the statements are correct since:
- Socio-economic democracy is spelt out because it provides for the idea of a welfare state. For e.g. consider Article 39 (b) and (c) which provide for minimizing inequalities in income and wealth; and ensuring that the wealth is not concentrated in the hands of few. While other article provide for the health of children, rights of working women etc.
- DPSP is not enforceable by courts. Only Fundamental rights can be enforced by the courts.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation: Both the statements are correct since:
- Socio-economic democracy is spelt out because it provides for the idea of a welfare state. For e.g. consider Article 39 (b) and (c) which provide for minimizing inequalities in income and wealth; and ensuring that the wealth is not concentrated in the hands of few. While other article provide for the health of children, rights of working women etc.
- DPSP is not enforceable by courts. Only Fundamental rights can be enforced by the courts.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsIn the Index of Eight Core Industries, which one of the following is given the highest weight?
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation: Electricity has 10.32% weightage; steel 4.9%; coal 4.38%; fertilizers 1.25%.
Source: https://in.finance.yahoo.com/news/eight-core-industries-index-growth- 135803773.html
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation: Electricity has 10.32% weightage; steel 4.9%; coal 4.38%; fertilizers 1.25%.
Source: https://in.finance.yahoo.com/news/eight-core-industries-index-growth- 135803773.html
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation:
- It is the only floating park in the world, located in Manipur, North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.
- The national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called Phumdis.
- The park is a swamp established by Mann Sharma with floating mass of vegetation (created by accrual of organic garbage and biomass with soil particles that has been thickened into a solid form called Phumdis, at the south–eastern side of the Loktak Lake, which has been declared a Ramsar site. Two third’s to three fourth’s of the total park area is formed by Phumdis.
Source: http://www.north-east-india.com/manipur/keibul-lamjao-national-park.html
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation:
- It is the only floating park in the world, located in Manipur, North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.
- The national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called Phumdis.
- The park is a swamp established by Mann Sharma with floating mass of vegetation (created by accrual of organic garbage and biomass with soil particles that has been thickened into a solid form called Phumdis, at the south–eastern side of the Loktak Lake, which has been declared a Ramsar site. Two third’s to three fourth’s of the total park area is formed by Phumdis.
Source: http://www.north-east-india.com/manipur/keibul-lamjao-national-park.html
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)?
- NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government
- NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct.
- National Innovation Foundation – India (NIF) is an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology (India), Government of India. It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad, Gujarat, India to provide institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country.
- NIF conducts a biennial national competition for grassroots green technologies (not highly advanced) developed by farmers, mechanics, artisans and others through their own genius without any recourse to professional help. NIF validates these innovations with the help of experts, and, ascertains the novelty in these innovations by doing prior art search. If the innovation is deemed novel, NIF files a patent on behalf of the innovator. NIF also funds value addition initiatives in these innovations to upscale them and make them more useful for a larger segment of people.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct.
- National Innovation Foundation – India (NIF) is an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology (India), Government of India. It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad, Gujarat, India to provide institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country.
- NIF conducts a biennial national competition for grassroots green technologies (not highly advanced) developed by farmers, mechanics, artisans and others through their own genius without any recourse to professional help. NIF validates these innovations with the help of experts, and, ascertains the novelty in these innovations by doing prior art search. If the innovation is deemed novel, NIF files a patent on behalf of the innovator. NIF also funds value addition initiatives in these innovations to upscale them and make them more useful for a larger segment of people.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsWhat can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?
- Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
- Increase in the acidity of soil can take place
Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation: Only statement 2 and 3 are correct.
- Statement 1 is absurd. Increasing the amount of nitrogen based fertilizer does not lead to more micro-organisms in the field. If it did, just one dose of fertilizer would make farm nitrogen rich for years together.
- Statement 2: Excessive use of nitrogen fertilizers resulting in soil acidity is a well-known fact.
- Statement 3: Nitrogen fertilizers break down into nitrates and travel easily through the soil. Because it is water-soluble and can remain in groundwater for decades, the addition of more nitrogen over the years has an accumulative effect.
Source: http://www.epa.gov/safewater/sourcewater/pubs/fs_swpp_fertilizer.pdf
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation: Only statement 2 and 3 are correct.
- Statement 1 is absurd. Increasing the amount of nitrogen based fertilizer does not lead to more micro-organisms in the field. If it did, just one dose of fertilizer would make farm nitrogen rich for years together.
- Statement 2: Excessive use of nitrogen fertilizers resulting in soil acidity is a well-known fact.
- Statement 3: Nitrogen fertilizers break down into nitrates and travel easily through the soil. Because it is water-soluble and can remain in groundwater for decades, the addition of more nitrogen over the years has an accumulative effect.
Source: http://www.epa.gov/safewater/sourcewater/pubs/fs_swpp_fertilizer.pdf
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments
- IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
- CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 2 and 3 are correct.
IUCN is a voluntary organization, not an agency of United Nations. Even if you knew this much, you could eliminate all other options to select B. Some facts about IUCN:
- Founded in 1948 as the world’s first global environmental organisation
- Today the largest professional global conservation network
- A leading authority on the environment and sustainable development
- More than 1,200 member organizations including 200+ government and 900+ non- government organizations
- A neutral forum for governments, NGOs, scientists, business and local communities to find practical solutions to conservation and development challenges
- Thousands of field projects and activities around the world
CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). States (countries) adhere voluntarily to the agreement.
States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention (‘joined’ CITES) are known as Parties.
Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.
Sources: https://www.iucn.org/about/ https://cites.org/eng/disc/what.php
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 2 and 3 are correct.
IUCN is a voluntary organization, not an agency of United Nations. Even if you knew this much, you could eliminate all other options to select B. Some facts about IUCN:
- Founded in 1948 as the world’s first global environmental organisation
- Today the largest professional global conservation network
- A leading authority on the environment and sustainable development
- More than 1,200 member organizations including 200+ government and 900+ non- government organizations
- A neutral forum for governments, NGOs, scientists, business and local communities to find practical solutions to conservation and development challenges
- Thousands of field projects and activities around the world
CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). States (countries) adhere voluntarily to the agreement.
States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention (‘joined’ CITES) are known as Parties.
Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.
Sources: https://www.iucn.org/about/ https://cites.org/eng/disc/what.php
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsThe Fair and Remunerative Price of Sugarcane is approved by the
Correct
Solution: a)
Explanation:
- CACP recommends the fair and remunerative prices based on inter-crop price parity, inflation considerations, fair return to farmers and a host of other factors.
- It is the cabinet Committee on Economic affairs that finally approves it.
Sources: http://www.indiainfoline.com/article/news-top-story/cabinet-approves-fair-and- remunerative-price-of-sugarcane-payable-by-sugar-mills-113110712710_1.html http://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/?tag=fair-and-remunerative-price
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Explanation:
- CACP recommends the fair and remunerative prices based on inter-crop price parity, inflation considerations, fair return to farmers and a host of other factors.
- It is the cabinet Committee on Economic affairs that finally approves it.
Sources: http://www.indiainfoline.com/article/news-top-story/cabinet-approves-fair-and- remunerative-price-of-sugarcane-payable-by-sugar-mills-113110712710_1.html http://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/?tag=fair-and-remunerative-price
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsWhat explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation:
- The equatorial countercurrents are driven by a distinct surface wind pattern in the tropics. Strong westward trade winds result in westward surface flow in most of the tropical Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. However, several hundred mi. (km.) north of the equator the winds are much weaker, in comparison.
- The stronger winds to the south pile up water where the winds are weak. As a result, the surface of the ocean can be up to 6 in. (15 cm.) higher and the thermocline (region of strongest decrease of temperature with increasing depth) as much as 328 ft. (100 m.) deeper than it is directly to the north. The excess water flows eastward under the influence of the Earth’s rotation, giving rise to the equatorial counter-currents.
Source: Old NCERT – Class XIth – Principles ofGeography
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation:
- The equatorial countercurrents are driven by a distinct surface wind pattern in the tropics. Strong westward trade winds result in westward surface flow in most of the tropical Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. However, several hundred mi. (km.) north of the equator the winds are much weaker, in comparison.
- The stronger winds to the south pile up water where the winds are weak. As a result, the surface of the ocean can be up to 6 in. (15 cm.) higher and the thermocline (region of strongest decrease of temperature with increasing depth) as much as 328 ft. (100 m.) deeper than it is directly to the north. The excess water flows eastward under the influence of the Earth’s rotation, giving rise to the equatorial counter-currents.
Source: Old NCERT – Class XIth – Principles ofGeography
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Place of Pilgrimage: Location
- Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
- Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
- Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: a)
Explanation: Only 1 is correctly matched
- The town (as well as the mandal) of Srisailam is reputed for the shrine of Lord Mallikarjuna on the flat top of Nallamala Hills.
- Omkareshwar is situated on the Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh, known in ancient times as Shivpuri. The temple dates back to the Krita River Narmada flows here around the Mandhata hill in the form of an Om (Omkaram).
- The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. But, Pushkar lies in Ajmer, Rajasthan.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Explanation: Only 1 is correctly matched
- The town (as well as the mandal) of Srisailam is reputed for the shrine of Lord Mallikarjuna on the flat top of Nallamala Hills.
- Omkareshwar is situated on the Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh, known in ancient times as Shivpuri. The temple dates back to the Krita River Narmada flows here around the Mandhata hill in the form of an Om (Omkaram).
- The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. But, Pushkar lies in Ajmer, Rajasthan.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’
- In Rowlatt Satyagraha Gandhiji tried to use the Home Rule League
Demonstrations against the Simon Commission coincided with the Rowlatt Satyagraha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 2 are correct
Excerpt from Sumit Sarkar’s Modern India
Incorrect
Solution: B
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 2 are correct
Excerpt from Sumit Sarkar’s Modern India
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsAmong the following which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation:
· Ebola is a viral hemorrhagic fever of humans and other primates caused by Ebola viruses. Signs and symptoms typically start between two days and three weeks after contracting the virus with a fever, sore throat, muscular pain, and headaches.
· On March 23, 2014, the World Health Organization (WHO) reported cases of Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) in the forested rural region of southeastern Guinea, Liberia and Sierra Leone.
Source: http://www.e-ir.info/2014/07/26/the-ebola-outbreak-in-guinea-liberia-and-sierra-leone/
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation:
· Ebola is a viral hemorrhagic fever of humans and other primates caused by Ebola viruses. Signs and symptoms typically start between two days and three weeks after contracting the virus with a fever, sore throat, muscular pain, and headaches.
· On March 23, 2014, the World Health Organization (WHO) reported cases of Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) in the forested rural region of southeastern Guinea, Liberia and Sierra Leone.
Source: http://www.e-ir.info/2014/07/26/the-ebola-outbreak-in-guinea-liberia-and-sierra-leone/
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 points67. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using the coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction
- Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete
- Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: a)
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 2 are correct.
- Fly ash from coal-fired thermal power stations is an excellent potential raw material for the manufacture of construction material like blended cement, fly ash bricks, mosaic tiles and hollow blocks. It also has other, high volume applications and can be used for paving roads, building embankments, and mine fills.
- Fly ash contains trace concentrations of heavy metals and other substances that are known to be detrimental to health in sufficient quantities. Potentially toxic trace elements in coal include arsenic, beryllium, cadmium, barium, chromium, copper, lead, mercury, molybdenum, nickel, radium, selenium, thorium, uranium, vanadium, and zinc.
Source: http://construction.about.com/od/Innovations/a/Fly-Ash-Applications.htm https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fly_ash#Environmental_problems
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 2 are correct.
- Fly ash from coal-fired thermal power stations is an excellent potential raw material for the manufacture of construction material like blended cement, fly ash bricks, mosaic tiles and hollow blocks. It also has other, high volume applications and can be used for paving roads, building embankments, and mine fills.
- Fly ash contains trace concentrations of heavy metals and other substances that are known to be detrimental to health in sufficient quantities. Potentially toxic trace elements in coal include arsenic, beryllium, cadmium, barium, chromium, copper, lead, mercury, molybdenum, nickel, radium, selenium, thorium, uranium, vanadium, and zinc.
Source: http://construction.about.com/od/Innovations/a/Fly-Ash-Applications.htm https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fly_ash#Environmental_problems
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a herbivorous marine animal.
- It is found along the entire coast of India
It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,1972.Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 3 are correct.
- The dugong is the only living representative of the once-diverse family Dugongidae; its closest modern relative, Steller’s sea cow (Hydrodamalisgigas), was hunted to extinction in the 18th century. The dugong is the only strictly marine herbivorous mammal, as all species of manatee use fresh water to some degree.
- In India, it is found off the Gujarat Coast (Gulf of Kutch), Tamil Nadu coast (Gulf of Mannar), Palk Bay and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dugong#Northern_Indian_Ocean http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/flora-fauna/task-force-on-dugong- soon/articleshow/21790491.cms
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 3 are correct.
- The dugong is the only living representative of the once-diverse family Dugongidae; its closest modern relative, Steller’s sea cow (Hydrodamalisgigas), was hunted to extinction in the 18th century. The dugong is the only strictly marine herbivorous mammal, as all species of manatee use fresh water to some degree.
- In India, it is found off the Gujarat Coast (Gulf of Kutch), Tamil Nadu coast (Gulf of Mannar), Palk Bay and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dugong#Northern_Indian_Ocean http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/flora-fauna/task-force-on-dugong- soon/articleshow/21790491.cms
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsWho of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?
- DadabhaiNaoroji
- SubramaniaIyer
- C. Dutt
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Explanation: All are correct.
- DadabhaiNaoroji, R. C. Dutt, Ranade, Gokhale, G. SubramaniaIyer, were among those who grounded Indian nationalism firmly on the foundation of anti-imperialism by fashioning the world’s first economic critique of colonialism, before Hobson and Lenin. The drain theory was established by DadabhaiNaoroji. Increased poverty and lower wages were among the indirect products of colonial rule according to Dutt.
- Insights also asked a question on this in March Secure-2015. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2015/03/07/1-which-names-stand-out-among-the-large- number-of-indians-who-initiated-and-carried-out-the-economic-analysis-of-british-rule- during-the-years-1870-1905-analyse-how-they-interpreted-colonialism-and/
Source: Bipan Chandra – Struggle for India’s Independence, Chapter – 7
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Explanation: All are correct.
- DadabhaiNaoroji, R. C. Dutt, Ranade, Gokhale, G. SubramaniaIyer, were among those who grounded Indian nationalism firmly on the foundation of anti-imperialism by fashioning the world’s first economic critique of colonialism, before Hobson and Lenin. The drain theory was established by DadabhaiNaoroji. Increased poverty and lower wages were among the indirect products of colonial rule according to Dutt.
- Insights also asked a question on this in March Secure-2015. https://www.insightsonindia.com/2015/03/07/1-which-names-stand-out-among-the-large- number-of-indians-who-initiated-and-carried-out-the-economic-analysis-of-british-rule- during-the-years-1870-1905-analyse-how-they-interpreted-colonialism-and/
Source: Bipan Chandra – Struggle for India’s Independence, Chapter – 7
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following issues the “Global Economic Prospects” report periodically?
Correct
Solution: d)
Explanation:
Global Economic Prospects is a World Bank Group flagship report that examines global economic developments and prospects, with a special focus on emerging market and developing economies. It is issued twice a year, in January and June.
Source: http://www.worldbank.org/en/publication/global-economic-prospects
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Explanation:
Global Economic Prospects is a World Bank Group flagship report that examines global economic developments and prospects, with a special focus on emerging market and developing economies. It is issued twice a year, in January and June.
Source: http://www.worldbank.org/en/publication/global-economic-prospects
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsWhen the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation: If SLR is reduced, banks have to park lesser money with RBI in form of securities, cash etc. So, they have more money to lend and the return on lending is also greater than what they get in SLR. Hence, the scheduled commercial banks may cut their lending rates.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation: If SLR is reduced, banks have to park lesser money with RBI in form of securities, cash etc. So, they have more money to lend and the return on lending is also greater than what they get in SLR. Hence, the scheduled commercial banks may cut their lending rates.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the use of nanotechnology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology
- Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation: Both the statements are correct.
- Nano-systems have significantly different biological properties from large-sized systems (e.g. implants or micro-particles) that could be used effectively to overcome problems in drug and gene therapy. In drug therapy, we face the problems of inefficacy or nonspecific effects; hence, nano-systems are being developed for targeted drug therapy.
- In gene therapy using non-viral systems, the main issues are relatively transient gene expression and lower efficiency than viral vectors. Research efforts have focused on understanding the barriers in gene delivery so that non-viral systems can be developed that are as effective as viral systems in gene transfection.
Source: http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0958166905001709http://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/wilmer/research/lutty/nano.html
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation: Both the statements are correct.
- Nano-systems have significantly different biological properties from large-sized systems (e.g. implants or micro-particles) that could be used effectively to overcome problems in drug and gene therapy. In drug therapy, we face the problems of inefficacy or nonspecific effects; hence, nano-systems are being developed for targeted drug therapy.
- In gene therapy using non-viral systems, the main issues are relatively transient gene expression and lower efficiency than viral vectors. Research efforts have focused on understanding the barriers in gene delivery so that non-viral systems can be developed that are as effective as viral systems in gene transfection.
Source: http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0958166905001709http://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/wilmer/research/lutty/nano.html
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsIn India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation:
Agricultural Markets in most parts of the Country are established and regulated under the State APMC Acts. The whole geographical area in the State is divided and declared as a market area wherein the markets are managed by the Market Committees constituted by the State Governments. Once a particular area is declared a market area and falls under the jurisdiction of a Market Committee, no person or agency is allowed freely to carry on wholesale marketing activities.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation:
Agricultural Markets in most parts of the Country are established and regulated under the State APMC Acts. The whole geographical area in the State is divided and declared as a market area wherein the markets are managed by the Market Committees constituted by the State Governments. Once a particular area is declared a market area and falls under the jurisdiction of a Market Committee, no person or agency is allowed freely to carry on wholesale marketing activities.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- River Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India. This mammal is also said to represent the purity of the holy Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water.
- They are locally known as susu, because of the noise it makes while breathing. This species inhabits parts of the Ganges, Meghna and Brahmaputra rivers in India, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh, and the Karnaphuli River in Bangladesh.
- River dolphin is a critically endangered species in India and therefore, has been included in the Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The main reasons for decline in population of the species are poaching and habitat degradation due to declining flow, heavy siltation, construction of barrages causing physical barrier for this migratory species.
Source: http://www.knowindia.gov.in/knowindia/national_symbols.php?id=8
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- River Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India. This mammal is also said to represent the purity of the holy Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water.
- They are locally known as susu, because of the noise it makes while breathing. This species inhabits parts of the Ganges, Meghna and Brahmaputra rivers in India, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh, and the Karnaphuli River in Bangladesh.
- River dolphin is a critically endangered species in India and therefore, has been included in the Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The main reasons for decline in population of the species are poaching and habitat degradation due to declining flow, heavy siltation, construction of barrages causing physical barrier for this migratory species.
Source: http://www.knowindia.gov.in/knowindia/national_symbols.php?id=8
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:
- It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
- It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
- It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Explanation: None of the statements are correct.
The CSP advocated decentralized socialism in which co-operatives, trade unions, independent farmers, and local authorities would hold a substantial share of the economic power. As secularists, they hoped to transcend communal divisions through class solidarity. Some, such as Narendra Deva or Basawon Singh (Sinha), advocated a democratic socialism distinct from both Marxism and reformist social democracy.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Congress_Socialist_Party
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Explanation: None of the statements are correct.
The CSP advocated decentralized socialism in which co-operatives, trade unions, independent farmers, and local authorities would hold a substantial share of the economic power. As secularists, they hoped to transcend communal divisions through class solidarity. Some, such as Narendra Deva or Basawon Singh (Sinha), advocated a democratic socialism distinct from both Marxism and reformist social democracy.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Congress_Socialist_Party
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The RajyaSabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
- The RajyaSabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
- The RajyaSabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 2 are correct.
- Only the LokSabha can vote on the demand for grants.
- Rajya Sabha can only keep a money bill for not more than 14 days, before which the bill should be either returned to LokSabha with recommendations, or passed by the Rajya Sabha. In case of a disagreement between both the houses, the bill is deemed passed in the form it was passed by LokSabha.
- Every year the budget (annual financial statement as mentioned in the constitution) is discussed by the Rajya Sabha.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 22 (Parliament)
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 2 are correct.
- Only the LokSabha can vote on the demand for grants.
- Rajya Sabha can only keep a money bill for not more than 14 days, before which the bill should be either returned to LokSabha with recommendations, or passed by the Rajya Sabha. In case of a disagreement between both the houses, the bill is deemed passed in the form it was passed by LokSabha.
- Every year the budget (annual financial statement as mentioned in the constitution) is discussed by the Rajya Sabha.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 22 (Parliament)
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsThe Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation:
- It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorized to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralized and unitary.
- It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved which is what we know as diarchy.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 1 (Historical Background)
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation:
- It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorized to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralized and unitary.
- It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved which is what we know as diarchy.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 1 (Historical Background)
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for the Industrial Workers’?
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- The CPI-IW series on scientific lines was first introduced with base 1960=100 which was based on the results of Family Living Survey conducted in 1958-59 at 50 industrially important centres. The series was then, updated on base 1982=100 and a revision in 1999- 2000 has further updated the base on 2001=100. The current series of CPI-IW with base year 2001=100 covers 78 industrially important centers spread across the country.
- It reflects the consumption pattern of the working class population.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- The CPI-IW series on scientific lines was first introduced with base 1960=100 which was based on the results of Family Living Survey conducted in 1958-59 at 50 industrially important centres. The series was then, updated on base 1982=100 and a revision in 1999- 2000 has further updated the base on 2001=100. The current series of CPI-IW with base year 2001=100 covers 78 industrially important centers spread across the country.
- It reflects the consumption pattern of the working class population.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 points78. In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news :
- It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
- It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter
- It is buried deep in the ice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Explanation: All the statements given above are correct.
- IceCube is a particle detector at the South Pole that records the interactions of a nearly massless subatomic particle called the neutrino. IceCube searches for neutrinos from the most violent astrophysical sources: events like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars.
- The IceCube telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter and could reveal the physical processes associated with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy particles in nature. In addition, exploring the background of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere, IceCube studies the neutrinos themselves; their energies far exceed those produced by accelerator beams. IceCube is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice.
- It is buried beneath the surface, extending to a depth of about 2,500 meters. Burying it deep in ice is important to enhance the precision of the detector.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Explanation: All the statements given above are correct.
- IceCube is a particle detector at the South Pole that records the interactions of a nearly massless subatomic particle called the neutrino. IceCube searches for neutrinos from the most violent astrophysical sources: events like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars.
- The IceCube telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter and could reveal the physical processes associated with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy particles in nature. In addition, exploring the background of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere, IceCube studies the neutrinos themselves; their energies far exceed those produced by accelerator beams. IceCube is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice.
- It is buried beneath the surface, extending to a depth of about 2,500 meters. Burying it deep in ice is important to enhance the precision of the detector.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsThe terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the:
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation:
· The Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) is an international treaty of the World Trade Organization. It was negotiated during the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade, and entered into force with the establishment of the WTO on January 1, 1995.
· The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures of the WTO sets out the basic rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards. It allows countries to set their own standards
· Article 13 (“due restraint”) of the Agriculture Agreement protects countries using subsidies which comply with the agreement from being challenged under other WTO agreements.
Source: http://www.wto.org/english/docs_e/legal_e/14-ag_01_e.htmhttp://www.wto.org/english/tratop_e/sps_e/spsagr_e.htmhttp://www.wto.org/english/tratop_e/agric_e/negs_bkgrnd13_peace_e.htm
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation:
· The Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) is an international treaty of the World Trade Organization. It was negotiated during the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade, and entered into force with the establishment of the WTO on January 1, 1995.
· The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures of the WTO sets out the basic rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards. It allows countries to set their own standards
· Article 13 (“due restraint”) of the Agriculture Agreement protects countries using subsidies which comply with the agreement from being challenged under other WTO agreements.
Source: http://www.wto.org/english/docs_e/legal_e/14-ag_01_e.htmhttp://www.wto.org/english/tratop_e/sps_e/spsagr_e.htmhttp://www.wto.org/english/tratop_e/agric_e/negs_bkgrnd13_peace_e.htm
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields
- NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other
- NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 3 are correct.
- Near field communication, abbreviated NFC, is a form of contactless communication based on electromagnetic radio fields between devices like smartphones or tablets. Contactless communication allows a user to wave the smartphone over a NFC compatible device to send information without needing to touch the devices together or go through multiple steps setting up a connection.
- Bluetooth can connect to devices up to 32 feet away, yet near field communication can connect to devices at a maximum distance of 4 centimeters on average.
- Both businesses and individuals benefit from near field communication technology. By integrating credit cards, subway tickets, and paper coupons all into one device, a customer can board a train, pay for groceries, redeem coupons or store loyalty points, and even exchange contact information all with the wave of a smartphone.
Source: http://www.nearfieldcommunication.org/about-nfc.htmlhttp://www.in.techradar.com/news/phone-and-communications/What-is-NFCand-why-is-it- in-your-phone/articleshow/38919446.cms
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation: Only statement 1 and 3 are correct.
- Near field communication, abbreviated NFC, is a form of contactless communication based on electromagnetic radio fields between devices like smartphones or tablets. Contactless communication allows a user to wave the smartphone over a NFC compatible device to send information without needing to touch the devices together or go through multiple steps setting up a connection.
- Bluetooth can connect to devices up to 32 feet away, yet near field communication can connect to devices at a maximum distance of 4 centimeters on average.
- Both businesses and individuals benefit from near field communication technology. By integrating credit cards, subway tickets, and paper coupons all into one device, a customer can board a train, pay for groceries, redeem coupons or store loyalty points, and even exchange contact information all with the wave of a smartphone.
Source: http://www.nearfieldcommunication.org/about-nfc.htmlhttp://www.in.techradar.com/news/phone-and-communications/What-is-NFCand-why-is-it- in-your-phone/articleshow/38919446.cms
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsThe area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to:
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation: The Golan Heights are a rocky plateau in Western Asia that was captured by Israel from Syria in the 1967 Six-Day War. The international community recognizes the Golan Heights to be official Syrian territory and widely rejects Israeli military occupation.
Source: http://edition.cnn.com/2015/08/21/middleeast/israel-golan-heights-attacks-syria/index.html
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation: The Golan Heights are a rocky plateau in Western Asia that was captured by Israel from Syria in the 1967 Six-Day War. The international community recognizes the Golan Heights to be official Syrian territory and widely rejects Israeli military occupation.
Source: http://edition.cnn.com/2015/08/21/middleeast/israel-golan-heights-attacks-syria/index.html
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsConvertibility of rupee implies:
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- Rupee convertibility means the system where any amount of rupee can be converted into any other currency without any question asked about the purpose for which the foreign exchange is to be used.
- Non-convertibility can generally be defined with reference to transaction for which foreign exchange cannot be legally purchased (e.g. import of consumer goods etc), or transactions which are controlled and approved on a case by case basis (like regulated imports etc). A move towards free convertibility implies a reduction in the number / volume of the above types of transaction.
Source: http://www.caclubindia.com/articles/convertibility-of-indian-rupee-1945.asp
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- Rupee convertibility means the system where any amount of rupee can be converted into any other currency without any question asked about the purpose for which the foreign exchange is to be used.
- Non-convertibility can generally be defined with reference to transaction for which foreign exchange cannot be legally purchased (e.g. import of consumer goods etc), or transactions which are controlled and approved on a case by case basis (like regulated imports etc). A move towards free convertibility implies a reduction in the number / volume of the above types of transaction.
Source: http://www.caclubindia.com/articles/convertibility-of-indian-rupee-1945.asp
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Medieval Indian State: Present Region
- Champaka : Central India
- Durgara : Jammu
- Kuluta : Malabar
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct matched.
The ninth century saw the rise of a number of hill states in the Himalayas, some of which maintained their identity until recent years, despite their wars with each other and the frequent raids from the men of the plains. States such as Champaka (Chamba – Himachal Pradesh), Durgara (Jammu), Trigarta (jalandhar), Kuluta (Kulu – Himachal pradesh), Kumaon and Garhwal managed to remain outside the main areas of conflict in the northern plains.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct matched.
The ninth century saw the rise of a number of hill states in the Himalayas, some of which maintained their identity until recent years, despite their wars with each other and the frequent raids from the men of the plains. States such as Champaka (Chamba – Himachal Pradesh), Durgara (Jammu), Trigarta (jalandhar), Kuluta (Kulu – Himachal pradesh), Kumaon and Garhwal managed to remain outside the main areas of conflict in the northern plains.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsConsider the following rivers :
- Vamsadhara
- Indravati
- Pranahita
- Pennar
Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
Correct
Solution: d)
Explanation: Only 2 and 3 are tributaries of Godavari
- Left tributaries: Purna, Pranahita, Indravati, Sabari, Taliperu, Wainganga, Penganga, Wardha, Dudhana
- Right tributaries: Pravara, Manjira, PeddaVagu, Manair, Kinnerasani
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Explanation: Only 2 and 3 are tributaries of Godavari
- Left tributaries: Purna, Pranahita, Indravati, Sabari, Taliperu, Wainganga, Penganga, Wardha, Dudhana
- Right tributaries: Pravara, Manjira, PeddaVagu, Manair, Kinnerasani
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsWhen a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by
Correct
Solution: a)
Explanation: Such a sitting is summoned by the President to settle a deadlock between the two Houses on a bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority i.e. majority of the number of members present and voting.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 22 (Parliament)
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Explanation: Such a sitting is summoned by the President to settle a deadlock between the two Houses on a bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority i.e. majority of the number of members present and voting.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 22 (Parliament)
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?
Correct
Solution: d)
Explanation:
- The South Andaman forests have a profuse growth of epiphytic vegetation, mostly ferns and orchids. The Middle Andaman harbors mostly moist deciduous forests. North Andamans is characterized by the wet evergreen type, with plenty of woody climbers.
- The North Nicobar Islands (including Car Nicobar and Battimalv) are marked by the complete absence of evergreen forests, while such forests form the dominant vegetation in the central and southern islands of the Nicobar group.
- Grasslands occur only in the Nicobars, and while deciduous forests are common in the Andamans, they are almost absent in the Nicobars. The present forest coverage is claimed to be 86.2% of the total land area.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Andaman_and_Nicobar_Islands#Flora
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Explanation:
- The South Andaman forests have a profuse growth of epiphytic vegetation, mostly ferns and orchids. The Middle Andaman harbors mostly moist deciduous forests. North Andamans is characterized by the wet evergreen type, with plenty of woody climbers.
- The North Nicobar Islands (including Car Nicobar and Battimalv) are marked by the complete absence of evergreen forests, while such forests form the dominant vegetation in the central and southern islands of the Nicobar group.
- Grasslands occur only in the Nicobars, and while deciduous forests are common in the Andamans, they are almost absent in the Nicobars. The present forest coverage is claimed to be 86.2% of the total land area.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Andaman_and_Nicobar_Islands#Flora
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of Buddha?
- Avanti
- Gandhara
- Kosala
- Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: d)
Explanation: Only 3 and 4 were associated with Buddha.
- Magadha, Kosala, Vaishali, Vajjietc were the kingdoms and regions that the wandering Buddha covered relentlessly.
- Jetavana (Jeta garden) was perhaps the best known amongst the beautiful gardens provided to Buddha’s entourage and it was close to Sravasthi, capital of the Kosala kingdom.
- Perhaps the second-most important monastic resort of Buddha was the “bamboo grove” in Rajgriha, capital of Magadha, provided by king Bimbisara.
Source:
- http://www.buddhanet.net/e-learning/buddhism/lifebuddha/2_14lbud.htmhttp://creative.sulekha.com/the-beautiful-courtesan-amrapali-in-the-life-of- buddha_595970_blog
- The question was a repeat from the year 2014. The solution is as per UPSC Official answer key of 2014 GS Prelims.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Explanation: Only 3 and 4 were associated with Buddha.
- Magadha, Kosala, Vaishali, Vajjietc were the kingdoms and regions that the wandering Buddha covered relentlessly.
- Jetavana (Jeta garden) was perhaps the best known amongst the beautiful gardens provided to Buddha’s entourage and it was close to Sravasthi, capital of the Kosala kingdom.
- Perhaps the second-most important monastic resort of Buddha was the “bamboo grove” in Rajgriha, capital of Magadha, provided by king Bimbisara.
Source:
- http://www.buddhanet.net/e-learning/buddhism/lifebuddha/2_14lbud.htmhttp://creative.sulekha.com/the-beautiful-courtesan-amrapali-in-the-life-of- buddha_595970_blog
- The question was a repeat from the year 2014. The solution is as per UPSC Official answer key of 2014 GS Prelims.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation:
- The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (a protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
- Bretton Woods conference relates to IMF and World Bank. Kyoto Protocol is about cutting emissions of greenhouse gases.
- Nagoya protocol is about benefit sharing from the gains by genetic resources.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation:
- The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (a protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
- Bretton Woods conference relates to IMF and World Bank. Kyoto Protocol is about cutting emissions of greenhouse gases.
- Nagoya protocol is about benefit sharing from the gains by genetic resources.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsConsider the following:
The arrival of Babur into India led to the
- introduction of gunpowder
- introduction of the arch and dome in the region’s architecture
- establishment of Timurid dynasty
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct.
- Statement 1: Chinese gunpowder technology is believed to have arrived in India by the mid- 14th century, but could have been introduced much earlier by the Mongols, who had conquered both China and some borderlands of India, perhaps as early as the mid-13th century. The unification of a large single Mongol Empire resulted in the free transmission of previously top-secret Chinese technology into Mongol conquered parts of India. Regardless, it is believed that the Mongols used Chinese gunpowder weapons during their invasions of India.
- If statement 1 is wrong, the only possible option is B.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_gunpowder#India
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct.
- Statement 1: Chinese gunpowder technology is believed to have arrived in India by the mid- 14th century, but could have been introduced much earlier by the Mongols, who had conquered both China and some borderlands of India, perhaps as early as the mid-13th century. The unification of a large single Mongol Empire resulted in the free transmission of previously top-secret Chinese technology into Mongol conquered parts of India. Regardless, it is believed that the Mongols used Chinese gunpowder weapons during their invasions of India.
- If statement 1 is wrong, the only possible option is B.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_gunpowder#India
-
Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsThe Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
Correct
Solution: d)
Explanation:
The NITI Aayog is a public policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach. It was established to replace Planning Commission in 2015.
Source: http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/NITI-Aayog-to-replace-Planning- Commission/articleshow/45713957.cms
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Explanation:
The NITI Aayog is a public policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach. It was established to replace Planning Commission in 2015.
Source: http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/NITI-Aayog-to-replace-Planning- Commission/articleshow/45713957.cms
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsWhat is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in thenews?
Correct
Solution: a)
Explanation:
- The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD), also known as Rio 2012, Rio+20, or Earth Summit 2012 was the third international conference on sustainable development aimed at reconciling the economic and environmental goals of the global community.
- Hosted by Brazil in Rio de Janeiro from 13 to 22 June 2012, Rio+20 was a 20- year follow-up to the 1992 Earth Summit / United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED).
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Explanation:
- The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD), also known as Rio 2012, Rio+20, or Earth Summit 2012 was the third international conference on sustainable development aimed at reconciling the economic and environmental goals of the global community.
- Hosted by Brazil in Rio de Janeiro from 13 to 22 June 2012, Rio+20 was a 20- year follow-up to the 1992 Earth Summit / United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED).
-
Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Executive Power of the union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Explanation: Neither statement 1 and 2 are correct.
- Executive power of the Union of India is vested in the President of India.
- Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cabinet_Secretary_of_India
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Explanation: Neither statement 1 and 2 are correct.
- Executive power of the Union of India is vested in the President of India.
- Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cabinet_Secretary_of_India
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsThe term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- In astronomy and astrobiology, the circumstellar habitable zone (CHZ), or simply the habitable zone (Goldilocks Zone), is the region around a star within which planetary-mass objects with sufficient atmospheric pressure can support liquid water at their surfaces.
- Researchers are finding that life can thrive in some unexpected places.
Source: http://science.nasa.gov/science-news/science-at-nasa/2003/02oct_goldilocks/
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- In astronomy and astrobiology, the circumstellar habitable zone (CHZ), or simply the habitable zone (Goldilocks Zone), is the region around a star within which planetary-mass objects with sufficient atmospheric pressure can support liquid water at their surfaces.
- Researchers are finding that life can thrive in some unexpected places.
Source: http://science.nasa.gov/science-news/science-at-nasa/2003/02oct_goldilocks/
-
Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsWho of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation: C Rajagopalchari was arrested in April 1930 for leading a salt march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyamon the Tanjore coast.
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-tamilnadu/salt-march-team- gets-warm-reception/article1208348.ece http://www.preservearticles.com/201104235858/short-biography-of-chhakrabrati- rajagopalachari.html
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation: C Rajagopalchari was arrested in April 1930 for leading a salt march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyamon the Tanjore coast.
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-tamilnadu/salt-march-team- gets-warm-reception/article1208348.ece http://www.preservearticles.com/201104235858/short-biography-of-chhakrabrati- rajagopalachari.html
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsWho of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong?
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- Harihara I was the founder of Vijayanagar Empire.
- His initial military exploits established his control over the valley of Tungabhadra River (a tributary of Krishna), and gradually he expanded his control to certain regions of Konkan and Malabar Coast. By that time Hoysalas had lost its last ruler VeeraBallala III who died fighting the Sultan of Madurai, and the vacuum so created facilitated Harihara I to emerge as a sovereign power. The entire Hoysala territories came under his rule directly.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- Harihara I was the founder of Vijayanagar Empire.
- His initial military exploits established his control over the valley of Tungabhadra River (a tributary of Krishna), and gradually he expanded his control to certain regions of Konkan and Malabar Coast. By that time Hoysalas had lost its last ruler VeeraBallala III who died fighting the Sultan of Madurai, and the vacuum so created facilitated Harihara I to emerge as a sovereign power. The entire Hoysala territories came under his rule directly.
-
Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
- The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
- The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was BadruddinTyabji
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct.
- First woman President of INC was Annie Besant.
- First male President was W.C. Banerjee. First Muslim male President was BadruddinTyabji.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Muslim_presidents_of_Indian_National_Congress
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct.
- First woman President of INC was Annie Besant.
- First male President was W.C. Banerjee. First Muslim male President was BadruddinTyabji.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Muslim_presidents_of_Indian_National_Congress
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
- It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
- It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct.
- The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCCC founded as a mechanism to redistribute money from the developed to the developing world, in order to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
- The Green Climate Fund was designated as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the UNFCCC, in accordance with Article 11 of the Convention. Arrangements will be concluded between the Conference of the Parties (COP) and the Fund to ensure that it is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.
- The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the COP.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct.
- The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCCC founded as a mechanism to redistribute money from the developed to the developing world, in order to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
- The Green Climate Fund was designated as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the UNFCCC, in accordance with Article 11 of the Convention. Arrangements will be concluded between the Conference of the Parties (COP) and the Fund to ensure that it is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.
- The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the COP.
-
Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 points100. Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which of the following?
Correct
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- The Indira Gandhi Prize or the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize or the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is the prestigious award accorded annually by India to individuals or organizations in recognition of creative efforts toward promoting international peace, development and a new international economic order; ensuring that scientific discoveries are used for the larger good of humanity, and enlarging the scope of freedom.
- The prize carries a cash award of 2.5 million Indian rupees and a citation. The recipients are chosen from a pool of national and international nominees.
- Angel Merkel (2013) and ISRO (2014) were the recipients of the award.
Source: http://www.ibtimes.co.in/after-success-mangalyaan-isro-wins-indira-gandhi-peace- prize-2014-614677
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Explanation:
- The Indira Gandhi Prize or the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize or the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is the prestigious award accorded annually by India to individuals or organizations in recognition of creative efforts toward promoting international peace, development and a new international economic order; ensuring that scientific discoveries are used for the larger good of humanity, and enlarging the scope of freedom.
- The prize carries a cash award of 2.5 million Indian rupees and a citation. The recipients are chosen from a pool of national and international nominees.
- Angel Merkel (2013) and ISRO (2014) were the recipients of the award.
Source: http://www.ibtimes.co.in/after-success-mangalyaan-isro-wins-indira-gandhi-peace- prize-2014-614677
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