INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Constituent power of Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the basic structure.
- Power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 also includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
In the Shankari Prasad Case (1951), the constitutional validity of the First Amendment Act (1951), which curtailed the right to property, was challenged.
The Supreme Court ruled that the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 also includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights.
The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
In the Shankari Prasad Case (1951), the constitutional validity of the First Amendment Act (1951), which curtailed the right to property, was challenged.
The Supreme Court ruled that the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 also includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights.
The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the features of Parliamentary form of government?
- Majority Party Rule
- Dissolution of the Lower House
- Political Homogeneity
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
Features of Parliamentary Government
Majority Party Rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President.
Dissolution of the Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections.
Political Homogeneity: Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the minister are bound by consensus.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
Features of Parliamentary Government
Majority Party Rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President.
Dissolution of the Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections.
Political Homogeneity: Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the minister are bound by consensus.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are demerits of the Parliamentary System?
- Unstable Government
- Separation of Powers
- Government by Amateurs
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: C
Parliamentary System is not conductive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers.
Against Separation of Powers In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Government by Amateurs the parliamentary system is not conductive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers; his choice is restricted to the members of Parliament alone and does not extend to external talent.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Parliamentary System is not conductive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers.
Against Separation of Powers In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Government by Amateurs the parliamentary system is not conductive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers; his choice is restricted to the members of Parliament alone and does not extend to external talent.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The state legislature has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List.
- The residuary power of taxation is vested in the State Legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The state legislature has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List. Both the Parliament and the state legislature can levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The residuary power of taxation (that is, the power to impose taxes not enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament. Under this provision, the Parliament has imposed gift tax, wealth tax and expenditure tax. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The state legislature has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List. Both the Parliament and the state legislature can levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The residuary power of taxation (that is, the power to impose taxes not enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament. Under this provision, the Parliament has imposed gift tax, wealth tax and expenditure tax. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The Preamble has been amended only twice till date.
- It is justiciable and its provisions are enforceable in courts of law
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity—to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.
The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity—to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.
The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised.
- The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency would exist until repealed by State Legislature or Parliament.
- When a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal times, the Centre can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters.
The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Notably, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can issue ordinances on the state subjects also, if the Parliament is not in session. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
According to Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate order for their suspension is required.
Incorrect
Solution: B
During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal times, the Centre can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters.
The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Notably, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can issue ordinances on the state subjects also, if the Parliament is not in session. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
According to Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate order for their suspension is required.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Article 359 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 358 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.
- Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Councils Act, 1861
- It initiated the process of decentralization by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
- It provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Mysore.
- It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council during an emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It thus reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833.
It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.
Incorrect
Solution: A
It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It thus reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833.
It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Fundamental rights are negative as they prohibit the state from doing certain things whereas directive principles are positive as they require the State to do certain things
- Fundamental rights do not require any legislation for their implementation whereas directive principles require legislation for their implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Incorrect
Solution: D
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1919
- It introduced bicameralism for the first time in the country.
- It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
- It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Features of Government of India Act of 1919
- It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
- It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
- It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Features of Government of India Act of 1919
- It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
- It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
- It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following sites of Indus Valley civilization:
- Harappa
- Kalibangan
- Mohenjodaro
- Lothal
Arrange the above cities from North to South using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Incorrect
Solution: A
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of multi-purpose irrigation projects and associated rivers:
Projects: River:
- The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project Krishna
- The Polavaram Project Godavari
- Sardar sarovar project Narmada
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in the state of Telangana. Currently the world’s largest multi-stage lift irrigation project, its farthest upstream influence is at the confluence of the Pranhita and Godavari rivers.
The Polavaram Project is an under construction multi-purpose irrigation National project on the Godavari River in the West Godavari District and East Godavari District in Andhra Pradesh.
The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada river in Gujarat. Four states, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan, receive water and electricity supply from the dam.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in the state of Telangana. Currently the world’s largest multi-stage lift irrigation project, its farthest upstream influence is at the confluence of the Pranhita and Godavari rivers.
The Polavaram Project is an under construction multi-purpose irrigation National project on the Godavari River in the West Godavari District and East Godavari District in Andhra Pradesh.
The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada river in Gujarat. Four states, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan, receive water and electricity supply from the dam.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Skill Development Fund:
- It was set up in 2009 by the Government of India for raising funds both from Government and Non-Government sectors for skill development in the country.
- National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) set up by the Government of India is the custodian of the Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The National Skill Development Fund was set up in 2009 by the Government of India for raising funds both from Government and Non Government sectors for skill development in the country. The Fund is contributed by various Government sources, and other donors/ contributors to enhance, stimulate and develop the skills of Indian youth by various sector specific programs.
A public Trust set up by the Government of India is the custodian of the Fund. The Trust accepts donation, contribution in cash or kind from the Contributors for furtherance of objectives of the Fund. The Fund is operated and managed by the Board of Trustees. The Chief Executive Officer of the Trust is responsible for day-to-day administration and management of the Trust.
https://msde.gov.in/en/organizations/nsdf
Source: Kurukshetra, Feb 2020
Incorrect
Solution: A
The National Skill Development Fund was set up in 2009 by the Government of India for raising funds both from Government and Non Government sectors for skill development in the country. The Fund is contributed by various Government sources, and other donors/ contributors to enhance, stimulate and develop the skills of Indian youth by various sector specific programs.
A public Trust set up by the Government of India is the custodian of the Fund. The Trust accepts donation, contribution in cash or kind from the Contributors for furtherance of objectives of the Fund. The Fund is operated and managed by the Board of Trustees. The Chief Executive Officer of the Trust is responsible for day-to-day administration and management of the Trust.
https://msde.gov.in/en/organizations/nsdf
Source: Kurukshetra, Feb 2020
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), is the ratio of the number of persons in the labour force and total working age population (18-59 years)
- Worker Population Ratio (WPR) is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services in the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR):
The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), obtained by dividing the number of persons in the labour force by total population, is an important parameter in employment projections and formulation of employment strategies.
NSSO defines Labour force participation rate (LFPR) as the number of persons/person days in labour force per thousand persons/person days.
Worker population ratio:
The employment-to-population ratio is defined as the proportion of an economy’s working-age population that is employed. As an indicator, the employment-to-population ratio provides information on the ability of an economy to create jobs.
Worker population ratio is defined as the number of persons employed per thousand persons.
WPR= No. of employed persons x 1000
/Total populationWorker Population Ratio is an indicator used for analyzing the employment situation in the country. This is also useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services in the economy.
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Worker_Population_Ratio
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Labour_Force_Participation_Rate
Source: Kurukshetra, Feb 2020
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR):
The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), obtained by dividing the number of persons in the labour force by total population, is an important parameter in employment projections and formulation of employment strategies.
NSSO defines Labour force participation rate (LFPR) as the number of persons/person days in labour force per thousand persons/person days.
Worker population ratio:
The employment-to-population ratio is defined as the proportion of an economy’s working-age population that is employed. As an indicator, the employment-to-population ratio provides information on the ability of an economy to create jobs.
Worker population ratio is defined as the number of persons employed per thousand persons.
WPR= No. of employed persons x 1000
/Total populationWorker Population Ratio is an indicator used for analyzing the employment situation in the country. This is also useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services in the economy.
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Worker_Population_Ratio
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Labour_Force_Participation_Rate
Source: Kurukshetra, Feb 2020
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), 2019:
- It provided the distribution of educated and unemployed people.
- Both urban and rural unemployment rates have increased in 2018-19 when compared to previous year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is PLFS?
PLFS is India’s first computer-based survey which gives estimates of key employment and unemployment indicators like the labour force participation rate, worker population ratio, proportion unemployed and unemployment rate in rural households annually and on a quarterly basis for the urban households.
- The PLFS also gives the distribution of educated and unemployed people, which in turn can be used as a basis for skilling of youth to make them more employable by industry.
- The survey was launched in 2017 and the first annual report was released (July 2017-June 2018), covering both rural and urban areas, in May 2019.
Key findings:
- India’s unemployment rate fell between July 2018 and June 2019 to 5.8% from 6.1% during the same period of 2017-18, even as the labour force participation rate rose to 37.5% from 36.9%.
- The worker population ratio also increased, to 35.3% as against 34.7% in the 2017-18.
- Urban unemployment rate reduced to 7.7% in 2018-19 from 7.8% and in rural India to 5% from 5.3%.
- Female participation rate improved in both urban and rural India during the period under review, going up to 18.6% in 2018-19 from 17.5% the year before.
Challenges ahead:
To retain the falling trend in unemployment rate in 2019-20, which has witnessed a long nationwide lockdown between March and June to prevent the spread of Covid-19, resulting in job losses across sectors.
According to monthly data from the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy, unemployment rate in India shot up significantly from 7.87% in June 2019 to 23.48% in May 2020.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/05/periodic-labour-force-survey-plfs-2/
Source: Kurukshetra, Feb 2020
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is PLFS?
PLFS is India’s first computer-based survey which gives estimates of key employment and unemployment indicators like the labour force participation rate, worker population ratio, proportion unemployed and unemployment rate in rural households annually and on a quarterly basis for the urban households.
- The PLFS also gives the distribution of educated and unemployed people, which in turn can be used as a basis for skilling of youth to make them more employable by industry.
- The survey was launched in 2017 and the first annual report was released (July 2017-June 2018), covering both rural and urban areas, in May 2019.
Key findings:
- India’s unemployment rate fell between July 2018 and June 2019 to 5.8% from 6.1% during the same period of 2017-18, even as the labour force participation rate rose to 37.5% from 36.9%.
- The worker population ratio also increased, to 35.3% as against 34.7% in the 2017-18.
- Urban unemployment rate reduced to 7.7% in 2018-19 from 7.8% and in rural India to 5% from 5.3%.
- Female participation rate improved in both urban and rural India during the period under review, going up to 18.6% in 2018-19 from 17.5% the year before.
Challenges ahead:
To retain the falling trend in unemployment rate in 2019-20, which has witnessed a long nationwide lockdown between March and June to prevent the spread of Covid-19, resulting in job losses across sectors.
According to monthly data from the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy, unemployment rate in India shot up significantly from 7.87% in June 2019 to 23.48% in May 2020.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/06/05/periodic-labour-force-survey-plfs-2/
Source: Kurukshetra, Feb 2020
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organization publishes the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness index?
Correct
Solution: D
The Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) of World Economic Forum (WEF), that covers 140 economies, measures the set of factors and policies that enable sustainable development of travel and tourism sector which contributes to the development and competitiveness of a country.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) of World Economic Forum (WEF), that covers 140 economies, measures the set of factors and policies that enable sustainable development of travel and tourism sector which contributes to the development and competitiveness of a country.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Healthcare Sector Skill Council (HSSC):
- It is a Not-for-Profit Organization, registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
- It works under the ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- One of the aims of the council is to develop National Occupational Standards & Qualification Packs for various job-roles in paramedics and allied healthcare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Healthcare Sector Skill Council (HSSC) is a Not-for-Profit Organization, registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. The Council has been promoted by Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and leading Healthcare Industry Members representing both public and private sector, financially supported by NSDC.
The key objective of the Council is to create a robust and vibrant eco-system for quality education and skill development in paramedics and allied healthcare space in the country. In addition, the Healthcare Sector Skill Council serves as a single source of information on healthcare sector with specific reference to Skill and Human Resource Development in India.
The Council is aimed to develop National Occupational Standards & Qualification Packs for various job-roles in paramedics and allied healthcare, Identify skill-gaps, Design Courses and Training Content, Set Standards, Put-in place an Assessment & Certification Mechanism, Accredit Training Institutes, Provide Placement Support and Help Institutes Build & Upgrade their Capacity through train-the-trainer program.
It works under the ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
https://www.pmkvyofficial.org/Healthcare_Sector_Skill_Council.aspx
Source: Kurukshetra, Feb 2020
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Healthcare Sector Skill Council (HSSC) is a Not-for-Profit Organization, registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. The Council has been promoted by Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and leading Healthcare Industry Members representing both public and private sector, financially supported by NSDC.
The key objective of the Council is to create a robust and vibrant eco-system for quality education and skill development in paramedics and allied healthcare space in the country. In addition, the Healthcare Sector Skill Council serves as a single source of information on healthcare sector with specific reference to Skill and Human Resource Development in India.
The Council is aimed to develop National Occupational Standards & Qualification Packs for various job-roles in paramedics and allied healthcare, Identify skill-gaps, Design Courses and Training Content, Set Standards, Put-in place an Assessment & Certification Mechanism, Accredit Training Institutes, Provide Placement Support and Help Institutes Build & Upgrade their Capacity through train-the-trainer program.
It works under the ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
https://www.pmkvyofficial.org/Healthcare_Sector_Skill_Council.aspx
Source: Kurukshetra, Feb 2020
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following oceanic currents is/are cold ocean currents?
- Gulf stream
- California current
- Benguela current
- Kuroshio current
Select the current answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Ocean currents, abiotic features of the environment, are continuous and directed movements of ocean water. These currents are on the ocean’s surface and in its depths, flowing both locally and globally.
Currents affect the Earth’s climate by driving warm water from the Equator and cold water from the poles around the Earth.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Ocean currents, abiotic features of the environment, are continuous and directed movements of ocean water. These currents are on the ocean’s surface and in its depths, flowing both locally and globally.
Currents affect the Earth’s climate by driving warm water from the Equator and cold water from the poles around the Earth.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the River Moyar:
- It is a tributary of Tunghabhadra River.
- It flows through the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Mayar River is one of the tributaries of the Bhavani in Tamil Nadu. The Mayar river originates from a small town called Mayar off the Masinagudi–Ooty road.
It flows through the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR).
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Mayar River is one of the tributaries of the Bhavani in Tamil Nadu. The Mayar river originates from a small town called Mayar off the Masinagudi–Ooty road.
It flows through the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR).
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the shadow zones of Earthquake waves:
- The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves
- A zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for P- wave and not for S-wave.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’.
It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the arrival
of P-waves, but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves.Incorrect
Solution: A
Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’.
It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the arrival
of P-waves, but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pair
Community/Tribe : State/Region
- Asur Tribe : Jharkhand
- Tiwa Tribe : Andaman and Nicobar Islands
- Galo Tribe : Arunachal Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
Asur people are a very small Austroasiatic ethnic group living primarily in the Indian state of Jharkhand, mostly in the Gumla, Lohardaga, Palamu and Latehar districts. A small minority live in the western part of West Bengal.
Tiwa (Lalung) is an ethnic group mainly inhabiting the states of Assam and Meghalaya in north-eastern India. They are also found in some areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland. They are recognized as a Scheduled tribe within the State of Assam.
The Galo are a central Eastern Himalayan tribe, who are descendants of Abotani and speak the Tani Galo language. The Galo people primarily inhabit West Siang, Lepa Rada, and Lower Siang districts of modern-day Arunachal Pradesh state in northeastern India,
Incorrect
Solution: C
Asur people are a very small Austroasiatic ethnic group living primarily in the Indian state of Jharkhand, mostly in the Gumla, Lohardaga, Palamu and Latehar districts. A small minority live in the western part of West Bengal.
Tiwa (Lalung) is an ethnic group mainly inhabiting the states of Assam and Meghalaya in north-eastern India. They are also found in some areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland. They are recognized as a Scheduled tribe within the State of Assam.
The Galo are a central Eastern Himalayan tribe, who are descendants of Abotani and speak the Tani Galo language. The Galo people primarily inhabit West Siang, Lepa Rada, and Lower Siang districts of modern-day Arunachal Pradesh state in northeastern India,
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWith reference to African Elephants, consider the following statements
- They are slightly larger than Asian elephants.
- They are vulnerable as per the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- The average life span of African elephant is greater than Asian elephant
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
African Elephants:
- African elephants are the largest land animals on Earth. They are slightly larger than Asian elephants.
- African elephants are keystone species, meaning they play a critical role in their ecosystem. Also known as “ecosystem engineers,” elephants shape their habitat in many ways.
- There are two subspecies of African elephants, the Savanna (or bush) elephant and the Forest elephant. Savanna elephants are the larger of two.
- They are vulnerable as per the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- Asian elephants can live up to 48 years whereas African elephants can live up to 70 years.
Incorrect
Solution: D
African Elephants:
- African elephants are the largest land animals on Earth. They are slightly larger than Asian elephants.
- African elephants are keystone species, meaning they play a critical role in their ecosystem. Also known as “ecosystem engineers,” elephants shape their habitat in many ways.
- There are two subspecies of African elephants, the Savanna (or bush) elephant and the Forest elephant. Savanna elephants are the larger of two.
- They are vulnerable as per the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- Asian elephants can live up to 48 years whereas African elephants can live up to 70 years.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsLiquidity trap exists during which of the following situation
- When the nominal interest rate is zero.
- When the economy is in a recession or an economic depression.
- When the Monetary policy is ineffective and is unable to reduce the rate of interest any further.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: D
Liquidity Trap:
A liquidity trap is a situation where an expansionary monetary policy (an increase in the money supply) is not able to increase interest rates and hence does not result in economic growth (increase in output). In the case of deflation or recession, individuals hold on to the money in their possession at the given interest rates because they fear such negative events.
The concept of liquidity trap was first developed by economists J.M Keynes and J.H. Hicks in 1937, as an economic condition first observed after the Great Depression of the 1930s.
A liquidity trap exists in three main situations:
- When the nominal interest rate is zero
- The economy is currently in a recession or an economic depression
- Monetary policy is ineffective and is unable to reduce the rate of interest any further
Incorrect
Solution: D
Liquidity Trap:
A liquidity trap is a situation where an expansionary monetary policy (an increase in the money supply) is not able to increase interest rates and hence does not result in economic growth (increase in output). In the case of deflation or recession, individuals hold on to the money in their possession at the given interest rates because they fear such negative events.
The concept of liquidity trap was first developed by economists J.M Keynes and J.H. Hicks in 1937, as an economic condition first observed after the Great Depression of the 1930s.
A liquidity trap exists in three main situations:
- When the nominal interest rate is zero
- The economy is currently in a recession or an economic depression
- Monetary policy is ineffective and is unable to reduce the rate of interest any further
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Attorney General of India, consider the following statements
-
- He has the right of audience in all courts in the Territory of India
- He is part of the Union Executive so he is debarred from private legal practice
- He enjoys all immunities and privileges available to the Member of Parliament
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Attorney General of India:
- The Attorney General for India is the central government’s chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
- He is a part of the Union Executive.
- He is not considered as a government servant and he can practise privately too as he is not debarred from private legal practice.
Appointment and eligibility:
He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
- He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
- He should be an Indian Citizen.
- He must have either completed 5 years in High Court of any Indian state as a judge or 10 years in High Court as an advocate.
- He may be an eminent jurist too, in the eye of the President.
Powers and Functions:
- The Attorney General is necessary for giving advice to the Government of India in legal matters referred to him. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President.
- The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.
- The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned.
- He also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
- The Attorney General can accept briefs but cannot appear against the Government.
- He cannot defend an accused in the criminal proceedings and accept the directorship of a company without the permission of the Government.
- The Attorney General is assisted by two Solicitor General and four Additional Solicitor Generals.
- He enjoys all immunities and privileges available to the Member of Parliament
Incorrect
Solution: C
Attorney General of India:
- The Attorney General for India is the central government’s chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
- He is a part of the Union Executive.
- He is not considered as a government servant and he can practise privately too as he is not debarred from private legal practice.
Appointment and eligibility:
He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
- He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
- He should be an Indian Citizen.
- He must have either completed 5 years in High Court of any Indian state as a judge or 10 years in High Court as an advocate.
- He may be an eminent jurist too, in the eye of the President.
Powers and Functions:
- The Attorney General is necessary for giving advice to the Government of India in legal matters referred to him. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President.
- The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.
- The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned.
- He also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
- The Attorney General can accept briefs but cannot appear against the Government.
- He cannot defend an accused in the criminal proceedings and accept the directorship of a company without the permission of the Government.
- The Attorney General is assisted by two Solicitor General and four Additional Solicitor Generals.
- He enjoys all immunities and privileges available to the Member of Parliament
-
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsGlobal Wage Report is published by
Correct
Solution: D
Global Wage Report
- It is published by The International Labour Organization (ILO).
- It looks at recent trends in wages, the global economic and labour market context, and the impact that the pandemic has had on wages.
- The report also includes a number of policy recommendations to mitigate the negative impact of the crisis.
- The Average wages in two-third countries fell or grew more slowly in the first six months of 2020 due to Covid-19 pandemic.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Global Wage Report
- It is published by The International Labour Organization (ILO).
- It looks at recent trends in wages, the global economic and labour market context, and the impact that the pandemic has had on wages.
- The report also includes a number of policy recommendations to mitigate the negative impact of the crisis.
- The Average wages in two-third countries fell or grew more slowly in the first six months of 2020 due to Covid-19 pandemic.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThere are two trains. The first train crosses a pole in 24 sec, The second train of same length as that of the first train crosses a bridge in 30 sec but the speed of the second train is 20% more than the first train. Find out the ratio of length of train and length of bridge?
Correct
Solution: A
Let us assume that length of both trains= x meters
Length of the bridge = y meters.
If the speed of the first train is s meters/sec then the speed of the second train is (1+20/100) *s =1.2* s meters/sec.
Now, the first train crosses a pole in 24 sec. So, it covers x meter distance in 24 sec.
Time taken = Distance/ Speed
Thus, (x)/s = 24 —-(1)
Again, the second train crosses the bridge in 30 sec. So, it covers (x+y) meters in 30 sec.
Hence, (x+y)/ 1.2s = 30 …….. (2)
Now dividing (2) with (1), we get,
((x+y)/ 1.2s)/(x/s) = 30/24
(x+y)/x = (30/24) * 1.2
(x+y)/x =30/20 =3/2
Or 2x + 2y = 3x
2y = x
x/y = 2
Therefore, the ratio of the lengths of the train and the bridge is 2:1
Incorrect
Solution: A
Let us assume that length of both trains= x meters
Length of the bridge = y meters.
If the speed of the first train is s meters/sec then the speed of the second train is (1+20/100) *s =1.2* s meters/sec.
Now, the first train crosses a pole in 24 sec. So, it covers x meter distance in 24 sec.
Time taken = Distance/ Speed
Thus, (x)/s = 24 —-(1)
Again, the second train crosses the bridge in 30 sec. So, it covers (x+y) meters in 30 sec.
Hence, (x+y)/ 1.2s = 30 …….. (2)
Now dividing (2) with (1), we get,
((x+y)/ 1.2s)/(x/s) = 30/24
(x+y)/x = (30/24) * 1.2
(x+y)/x =30/20 =3/2
Or 2x + 2y = 3x
2y = x
x/y = 2
Therefore, the ratio of the lengths of the train and the bridge is 2:1
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThere are 5 routes to travel from city DELHI to city BANGALORE and six routes from city BANGALORE to city CHENNAI. How many routes are possible to travel from the city DELHI to city CHENNAI?
Correct
Solution: C
For every one route, you will have six routes to take.
So, total number of routes is 6 X 5 = 30
Incorrect
Solution: C
For every one route, you will have six routes to take.
So, total number of routes is 6 X 5 = 30
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsExamine the following statements:
- None but the rich can afford air-travel.
- Some of those who travel by air become sick
- Some of those who become sick require treatment
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
Correct
Solution: D
It is given that, some of those who travel by air become sick, thus option (b) can be eliminated.
It is given that, only rich can afford air travel. But it does not mean that all the rich persons travel by air. Thus, option (a) is eliminated.
It is given that, some of those who travel by air become sick. Thus, some of the rich who travel by air becomes sick. Also, we have already inferred that all the rich persons do not travel by air. Therefore, option (c) is eliminated.
Now, the statement None but the rich can afford air-travel denotes that All those who travel by air are rich.
Incorrect
Solution: D
It is given that, some of those who travel by air become sick, thus option (b) can be eliminated.
It is given that, only rich can afford air travel. But it does not mean that all the rich persons travel by air. Thus, option (a) is eliminated.
It is given that, some of those who travel by air become sick. Thus, some of the rich who travel by air becomes sick. Also, we have already inferred that all the rich persons do not travel by air. Therefore, option (c) is eliminated.
Now, the statement None but the rich can afford air-travel denotes that All those who travel by air are rich.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsIn a class of 55 students, a boy is ranked 25th. When three boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end?
Correct
Solution: C
It is given that, in a class of 55 students, a boy is ranked 25th. Thus, there are 30 students ranked lower than him and 24 students ranked higher than him.
When three boys joined, total number of students became 58.
His, new rank is 26.
Thus, there are 32 students are ranked lower than him.
From the end his rank became 32+1= 33.
Incorrect
Solution: C
It is given that, in a class of 55 students, a boy is ranked 25th. Thus, there are 30 students ranked lower than him and 24 students ranked higher than him.
When three boys joined, total number of students became 58.
His, new rank is 26.
Thus, there are 32 students are ranked lower than him.
From the end his rank became 32+1= 33.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsThe world saw a huge wave of democratisation after World War II. The newly-liberated states in Latin America, Africa and Asia adopted democratic forms of government after centuries of colonial subjugation. Today more people live under various forms of democracy than ever before. More than 120 of the 192 countries in the world have some form of democracy — only 11 parliamentary democracies existed in 1941. This indicates the appeal of democratic ideas and systems.
South Asia is home to 3 per cent of the world’s area and 21 per cent of the world’s population. It’s significant that 50 per cent of the world’s population living under some form of democratic rule resides in this region. Despite the democratic upsurge, there are significant challenges like poverty, inequality, gender injustice, nepotism and corruption. Elected despots and authoritarian leaders are weakening democracies across the world. Political experts have argued that democratic values are on the decline, especially in the West.
The International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (IDEA), an inter-country organisation, tried to evaluate the state of democracy in the world in the light of such worrying claims. The Global State of Democracy Index (GSoD) looks at the trends in democratisation from 1975 to 2017. With the help of a set of 98 indicators, IDEA aims to study the factors which threaten democracy throughout the world and those that make it strong and resilient. The study covers a variety of important indicators such as representative government, fundamental rights, checks on the government, impartial administration and participatory engagement. These have many sub indicators for an in depth indices-based analysis.
When it comes to representative government, India and Sri Lanka have maintained relatively high scores. Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan have had periods of non-elected regimes. The general trend in South Asia in this respect has, however, been positive.
Which of the following is the key message being conveyed by the author?
Correct
Ans. D.
The passage does not give a qualitative assessment of democracy as such, it is more focussed on highlighting that there are threats to it, which needs to be identified and addressed. Statement B is a wrong message which has not been conveyed by the passage. Statement C is a part of the message conveyed by the passage but statement D is more accurate.
Incorrect
Ans. D.
The passage does not give a qualitative assessment of democracy as such, it is more focussed on highlighting that there are threats to it, which needs to be identified and addressed. Statement B is a wrong message which has not been conveyed by the passage. Statement C is a part of the message conveyed by the passage but statement D is more accurate.
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