INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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- Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Community
- It is a group of organisms usually of the same species, occupying a defined area during a specific time.
- Communities in most instances are named after the dominant plant form (species).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Population is a group of organisms usually of the same species, occupying a defined area during a specific time.
Community
Communities in most instances are named after the dominant plant form (species).
In a community the number of species and size of their population vary greatly. A community may have one or several species.
The environmental factors determine the characteristic of the community as well as the pattern of organization of the members in the community.
IncorrectSolution: B
Population is a group of organisms usually of the same species, occupying a defined area during a specific time.
Community
Communities in most instances are named after the dominant plant form (species).
In a community the number of species and size of their population vary greatly. A community may have one or several species.
The environmental factors determine the characteristic of the community as well as the pattern of organization of the members in the community.
- Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Coniferous forest (boreal forest)
- It is characterized by evergreen plant species such as Spruce, fir and pine trees, etc.
- The productivity and community stability of a boreal forest are lower than those of any other forest ecosystem.
- Boreal forest soils are characterized by thick podzols but poor nutrients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Coniferous forest (boreal forest):
Cold regions with high rainfall, strong seasonal climates with long winters and short summers are characterized by boreal coniferous forest
This is characterized by evergreen plant species such as Spruce, fir and pine trees, etc. and by animals such as the lynx, wolf, bear, red fox, porcupine, squirrel, and amphibians like Hyla, Rana, etc
Boreal forest soils are characterized by thin podzols and are rather poor. Both because, the weathering of rocks proceeds slowly in cold environments and because the litter derived from conifer needle (leaf) is decomposed very slowly and is not rich in nutrients.
These soils are acidic and are mineral deficient. This is due to movement of large amount of water through the soil, without a significant counter-upward movement of evaporation, essential soluble nutrients like calcium,
nitrogen and potassium which are leached sometimes beyond the reach of roots. This process leaves no alkaline oriented cations to encounter the organic acids of the accumulating litter.
The productivity and community stability of a boreal forest are lower than those of any other forest ecosystem.
IncorrectSolution: C
Coniferous forest (boreal forest):
Cold regions with high rainfall, strong seasonal climates with long winters and short summers are characterized by boreal coniferous forest
This is characterized by evergreen plant species such as Spruce, fir and pine trees, etc. and by animals such as the lynx, wolf, bear, red fox, porcupine, squirrel, and amphibians like Hyla, Rana, etc
Boreal forest soils are characterized by thin podzols and are rather poor. Both because, the weathering of rocks proceeds slowly in cold environments and because the litter derived from conifer needle (leaf) is decomposed very slowly and is not rich in nutrients.
These soils are acidic and are mineral deficient. This is due to movement of large amount of water through the soil, without a significant counter-upward movement of evaporation, essential soluble nutrients like calcium,
nitrogen and potassium which are leached sometimes beyond the reach of roots. This process leaves no alkaline oriented cations to encounter the organic acids of the accumulating litter.
The productivity and community stability of a boreal forest are lower than those of any other forest ecosystem.
- Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following elements/compounds is/are Indoor air pollutants?
- Volatile organic compounds
- Radon
- Formaldehyde
- Tobacco
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
Indoor air pollution
Pollutants
- i) Volatile organic compounds
- The main indoor sources are perfumes, hair sprays, furniture polish, glues, air fresheners, moth repellents, wood preservatives, and other products.
- ii) Tobacco
- Smoke generates a wide range of harmful chemicals and is carcinogenic.
iii) Biological pollutants
- It includes pollen from plants, mite, and hair from pets, fungi, parasites, and some bacteria. Most of them are allergens and can cause asthma, hay fever, and other allergic diseases.
- iv) Formaldehyde
- Mainly from carpets, particle boards, and insulation foam. It causes irritation to the eyes and nose and allergies.
- v) Radon
- It is a gas that is emitted naturally by the soil. Due to modern houses having poor ventilation, it is confined inside the house and causes lung cancers.
IncorrectSolution: D
Indoor air pollution
Pollutants
- i) Volatile organic compounds
- The main indoor sources are perfumes, hair sprays, furniture polish, glues, air fresheners, moth repellents, wood preservatives, and other products.
- ii) Tobacco
- Smoke generates a wide range of harmful chemicals and is carcinogenic.
iii) Biological pollutants
- It includes pollen from plants, mite, and hair from pets, fungi, parasites, and some bacteria. Most of them are allergens and can cause asthma, hay fever, and other allergic diseases.
- iv) Formaldehyde
- Mainly from carpets, particle boards, and insulation foam. It causes irritation to the eyes and nose and allergies.
- v) Radon
- It is a gas that is emitted naturally by the soil. Due to modern houses having poor ventilation, it is confined inside the house and causes lung cancers.
- Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding standing crop
- Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop.
- The biomass of a species varies with abiotic factors of the ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
CorrectSolution: D
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.
The biomass of a species varies with abiotic factors of the ecosystem.
IncorrectSolution: D
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.
The biomass of a species varies with abiotic factors of the ecosystem.
- Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Global Warming Potential (GWP)
- The GWP for a gas is a measure of the total energy that a gas absorbs over a particular period of time (usually 100 years), compared to carbon dioxide.
- Carbon dioxide has a GWP of 1 and serves as a baseline for other GWP values.
- Hydrofluorocarbons have highest GWP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The Global Warming Potential (GWP) for a gas is a measure of the total energy that a gas absorbs over a particular period of time (usually 100 years), compared to carbon dioxide.
Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy, per pound, than gases with a lower GWP, and thus contribute more to warming Earth.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) has a GWP of 1 and serves as a baseline for other GWP values.
IncorrectSolution: A
The Global Warming Potential (GWP) for a gas is a measure of the total energy that a gas absorbs over a particular period of time (usually 100 years), compared to carbon dioxide.
Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy, per pound, than gases with a lower GWP, and thus contribute more to warming Earth.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) has a GWP of 1 and serves as a baseline for other GWP values.
- Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following methods is/are Geo-Engineering technique?
- Copy a Volcano
- Shoot Mirrors Into Space
- Whiten the clouds with wind-powered ships
- Build fake trees
Select the correct answer using the code given below
CorrectSolution: D
GEO-ENGINEERING:
Geo-engineering primarily aims at modifying and cooling Earth’s environment, defeating the environmental damage and ensuing climate changes to make the planet more inhabitable. Geoengineering, at this point,
is still only a theoretical Concept
Hoisting parasols, placing mirrors in space, whitening the stratosphere with sulfate aerosols, whitewashing building roofs to reflect sunlight or flinging iron filings into the ocean to promote carbon-gulping algae are
some of the modes.
5 Big Plans to Stop Global Warming
- Copy a Volcano
- Shoot Mirrors Into Space
- Seed the Sea with Iron
- Whiten the Clouds with Wind-Powered Ships
- Build Fake Trees
IncorrectSolution: D
GEO-ENGINEERING:
Geo-engineering primarily aims at modifying and cooling Earth’s environment, defeating the environmental damage and ensuing climate changes to make the planet more inhabitable. Geoengineering, at this point,
is still only a theoretical Concept
Hoisting parasols, placing mirrors in space, whitening the stratosphere with sulfate aerosols, whitewashing building roofs to reflect sunlight or flinging iron filings into the ocean to promote carbon-gulping algae are
some of the modes.
5 Big Plans to Stop Global Warming
- Copy a Volcano
- Shoot Mirrors Into Space
- Seed the Sea with Iron
- Whiten the Clouds with Wind-Powered Ships
- Build Fake Trees
- Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY)
- VKY aims at creating enabling environment for need based and outcome oriented holistic development of the tribal people.
- It is implemented at schedule areas present in different states.
- It is implemented by Ministry for Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
The Government of India, Ministry of Tribal Affairs has launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY) for welfare of Tribals.
VKY aims at creating enabling environment for need based and outcome oriented holistic development of the tribal people. This process envisages to ensure that all the intended benefits of goods and services under various programmes/schemes of Central as well as State Governments actually reach the target groups by convergence of resources through appropriate institutional mechanism.
It covers all tribal people and all areas with tribal population across the country.
IncorrectSolution: D
The Government of India, Ministry of Tribal Affairs has launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY) for welfare of Tribals.
VKY aims at creating enabling environment for need based and outcome oriented holistic development of the tribal people. This process envisages to ensure that all the intended benefits of goods and services under various programmes/schemes of Central as well as State Governments actually reach the target groups by convergence of resources through appropriate institutional mechanism.
It covers all tribal people and all areas with tribal population across the country.
- Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Van Dhan Scheme
- The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED.
- Scheme is implemented by constituting 10 Self Help Groups of 30 Tribal gatherers.
- It aims at build upon the traditional knowledge and skill sets of tribals by adding technology and IT for value addition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
All the statements given above is/are correct.
The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. It was launched on 14th April, 2018 and seeks to improve tribal incomes through value addition of tribal products.
Under Van Dhan, 10 Self Help Groups of 30 Tribal gatherers is constituted. The establishment of “Van Dhan Vikas Kendra” is for providing skill upgradation and capacity building training and setting up of primary processing and value addition facility.
They are then trained and provided with working capital to add value to the products, which they collect from the jungle. Working under the leadership of Collector these groups can then market their products not only within the States but also outside the States. Training and technical support is provided by TRIFED. It is proposed to develop 3,000 such centres in the country.
The scheme will be implemented through Ministry of Tribal Affairs as Nodal Department at the Central Level and TRIFED as Nodal Agency at the National Level. At State level, the State Nodal Agency for MFPs and the District collectors are envisaged to play a pivot role in scheme implementation at grassroot level. Locally the Kendras are proposed to be managed by a Managing Committee (an SHG) consisting of representatives of Van Dhan SHGs in the cluster.
http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/scheduled-tribes-welfare/van-dhan-scheme?content=small
IncorrectSolution: D
All the statements given above is/are correct.
The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. It was launched on 14th April, 2018 and seeks to improve tribal incomes through value addition of tribal products.
Under Van Dhan, 10 Self Help Groups of 30 Tribal gatherers is constituted. The establishment of “Van Dhan Vikas Kendra” is for providing skill upgradation and capacity building training and setting up of primary processing and value addition facility.
They are then trained and provided with working capital to add value to the products, which they collect from the jungle. Working under the leadership of Collector these groups can then market their products not only within the States but also outside the States. Training and technical support is provided by TRIFED. It is proposed to develop 3,000 such centres in the country.
The scheme will be implemented through Ministry of Tribal Affairs as Nodal Department at the Central Level and TRIFED as Nodal Agency at the National Level. At State level, the State Nodal Agency for MFPs and the District collectors are envisaged to play a pivot role in scheme implementation at grassroot level. Locally the Kendras are proposed to be managed by a Managing Committee (an SHG) consisting of representatives of Van Dhan SHGs in the cluster.
http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/scheduled-tribes-welfare/van-dhan-scheme?content=small
- Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
CorrectSolution: C
Mangroves are one of the high productive regions in the world whereas ocean has least productivity. (PYQ)
IncorrectSolution: C
Mangroves are one of the high productive regions in the world whereas ocean has least productivity. (PYQ)
- Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following constitutional articles/schedules have bearing upon environment and wildlife?
1. Article 21
2. Article 48 A
3. Article 51 A
4. 10th Schedule
5. 12th ScheduleSelect the correct answer using the code given below.
CorrectSolution: B
All have bearing on environment. Art 21, 48A, 51A – Right to Life and Liberty, DPSP and Fundamental duties and local governance (12th Schedule).
The 10th Schedule of Indian Constitution that is popularly referred to as the ‘Anti-Defection Law’. It doesn’t have any bearing upon environment.
IncorrectSolution: B
All have bearing on environment. Art 21, 48A, 51A – Right to Life and Liberty, DPSP and Fundamental duties and local governance (12th Schedule).
The 10th Schedule of Indian Constitution that is popularly referred to as the ‘Anti-Defection Law’. It doesn’t have any bearing upon environment.
- Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
- It was set under the mandate of Disaster Management Act, 2005.
- It is headed by the Union Home Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister of India, is the apex body for Disaster Management in India. Setting up of NDMA and the creation of an enabling environment for institutional mechanisms at the State and District levels is mandated by the Disaster Management Act, 2005. NDMA is mandated to lay down the policies, plans and guidelines for Disaster Management. India envisions the development of an ethos of Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness and Response.
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
IncorrectSolution: A
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister of India, is the apex body for Disaster Management in India. Setting up of NDMA and the creation of an enabling environment for institutional mechanisms at the State and District levels is mandated by the Disaster Management Act, 2005. NDMA is mandated to lay down the policies, plans and guidelines for Disaster Management. India envisions the development of an ethos of Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness and Response.
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
- Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsRed Line campaign, that was launched in India in 2016, was related to:
CorrectSolution: C
To promote appropriate use of antibiotics in humans, the Red Line campaign was launched in India in February 2016 to curb over-thecounter sale of antibiotics. Under this campaign, a red line is printed on antibiotic packages as warning
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
IncorrectSolution: C
To promote appropriate use of antibiotics in humans, the Red Line campaign was launched in India in February 2016 to curb over-thecounter sale of antibiotics. Under this campaign, a red line is printed on antibiotic packages as warning
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
- Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries is/are part of the Horn of Africa region?
- Eritrea
- Somalia
- Egypt
- South Africa
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: A
Horn of Africa, region of eastern Africa. It is the easternmost extension of African land and for the purposes of this article is defined as the region that is home to the countries of Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, and Somalia, whose cultures have been linked throughout their long history.
There are also broader definitions, the most common of which include all the countries mentioned above, as well as parts or all of Kenya, Sudan, South Sudan, and Uganda. Part of the Horn of Africa region is also known as the Somali peninsula; this term is typically used when referring to lands of Somalia and eastern Ethiopia.
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
IncorrectSolution: A
Horn of Africa, region of eastern Africa. It is the easternmost extension of African land and for the purposes of this article is defined as the region that is home to the countries of Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, and Somalia, whose cultures have been linked throughout their long history.
There are also broader definitions, the most common of which include all the countries mentioned above, as well as parts or all of Kenya, Sudan, South Sudan, and Uganda. Part of the Horn of Africa region is also known as the Somali peninsula; this term is typically used when referring to lands of Somalia and eastern Ethiopia.
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
- Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES):
- It is a United Nations body.
- The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
- All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.
It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 Governments. It is not a United Nations body.
However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of the UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
IPBES was established in 2012 by more than 100 governments, and its membership has continued to grow as IPBES’ impact has increased.
All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership.
https://www.ipbes.net/members-observers
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
IncorrectSolution: B
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.
It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 Governments. It is not a United Nations body.
However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of the UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
IPBES was established in 2012 by more than 100 governments, and its membership has continued to grow as IPBES’ impact has increased.
All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership.
https://www.ipbes.net/members-observers
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
- Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the minor minerals in India:
- The power to frame policy and legislation relating to minor minerals is entirely delegated to the State Governments.
- Minor mineral mines do not require to undergo the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process under the Environment Protection Act of 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
In India, the minerals are classified as minor minerals and major minerals.
According to section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 “Minor Minerals” means building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes, and any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral
The power to frame policy and legislation relating to minor minerals is entirely delegated to the State Governments while policy and legislation relating to the major minerals are dealt by the Ministry of Mines under Union /Central Government. Various State Governments have indeed prescribed rules for the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minerals classified as minor minerals under the MMDR Act, 1957. Minor Minerals get specified in the schedule appended in Minor Mineral concession Rules issued by States.
Thus, as opposed to major minerals, the regulatory and administrative jurisdiction of minor minerals falls under the purview of State governments. These include the powers to frame rules, prescribe rates of royalty, contribution to District Mineral Foundation, the procedure for grant of mineral concessions, regulation of their mining, control of illegal mining etc.
In the case of major minerals, States substantially regulate and develop minerals subject to provisions of the MMDR Act, and after prior permissions from the central government.
To put the brakes on illegal sand extraction, the Supreme Court, on February 27, 2012 made environmental clearance mandatory for all mining sites. Minor mineral mines will now have to undergo the Environmental Impact Assessment (eia) process under the Environment Protection Act of 1986, the court said. Till then, eia was conducted only for mining major minerals like bauxite, coal and iron ore and for minor minerals mined in more than 5 hectare.
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
IncorrectSolution: A
In India, the minerals are classified as minor minerals and major minerals.
According to section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 “Minor Minerals” means building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes, and any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral
The power to frame policy and legislation relating to minor minerals is entirely delegated to the State Governments while policy and legislation relating to the major minerals are dealt by the Ministry of Mines under Union /Central Government. Various State Governments have indeed prescribed rules for the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minerals classified as minor minerals under the MMDR Act, 1957. Minor Minerals get specified in the schedule appended in Minor Mineral concession Rules issued by States.
Thus, as opposed to major minerals, the regulatory and administrative jurisdiction of minor minerals falls under the purview of State governments. These include the powers to frame rules, prescribe rates of royalty, contribution to District Mineral Foundation, the procedure for grant of mineral concessions, regulation of their mining, control of illegal mining etc.
In the case of major minerals, States substantially regulate and develop minerals subject to provisions of the MMDR Act, and after prior permissions from the central government.
To put the brakes on illegal sand extraction, the Supreme Court, on February 27, 2012 made environmental clearance mandatory for all mining sites. Minor mineral mines will now have to undergo the Environmental Impact Assessment (eia) process under the Environment Protection Act of 1986, the court said. Till then, eia was conducted only for mining major minerals like bauxite, coal and iron ore and for minor minerals mined in more than 5 hectare.
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
- Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries is/are members of the Arctic council?
- Canada
- Sweden
- India
- The United Kingdom
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: A
The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic Indigenous peoples and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic. It was formally established in 1996.
The Ottawa Declaration defines these states as Members of the Arctic Council.
- Canada
- The Kingdom of Denmark
- Finland
- Iceland
- Norway
- The Russian Federation
- Sweden
- The United States
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
IncorrectSolution: A
The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic Indigenous peoples and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic. It was formally established in 1996.
The Ottawa Declaration defines these states as Members of the Arctic Council.
- Canada
- The Kingdom of Denmark
- Finland
- Iceland
- Norway
- The Russian Federation
- Sweden
- The United States
Source: Down to Earth, Jan 2020
- Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Coffee production in India
- China is the top coffee producing country in the world
- Coffee is largely grown in the Western ghats compare to the Eastern ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Brazil is the top coffee producing country in the world.
Coffee is largely grown in Western ghats compare to Eastern ghats
IncorrectSolution: B
Brazil is the top coffee producing country in the world.
Coffee is largely grown in Western ghats compare to Eastern ghats
- Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following diseases is/are covered for providing vaccination under the Mission Indradhanush?
- Diphtheria
- Tetanus
- Polio
- Malaria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: A
The Mission Indradhanush aims to cover all those children who are either unvaccinated, or are partially vaccinated against vaccine preventable diseases. India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) provide free vaccines against 12 life threatening diseases, to 26 million children annually. The Universal Immunization Programme provides life-saving vaccines to all children across the country free of cost to protect them against Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Hepatitis B, Pneumonia and Meningitis due to Haemophilus Influenzae type b (Hib), Measles, Rubella, Japanese Encephalitis (JE) and Rotavirus diarrhoea. (Rubella, JE and Rotavirus vaccine in select states and districts).
https://vikaspedia.in/health/nrhm/national-health-programmes-1/mission-indhradhanush
Source: Kurukshetra, January 2021
IncorrectSolution: A
The Mission Indradhanush aims to cover all those children who are either unvaccinated, or are partially vaccinated against vaccine preventable diseases. India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) provide free vaccines against 12 life threatening diseases, to 26 million children annually. The Universal Immunization Programme provides life-saving vaccines to all children across the country free of cost to protect them against Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Hepatitis B, Pneumonia and Meningitis due to Haemophilus Influenzae type b (Hib), Measles, Rubella, Japanese Encephalitis (JE) and Rotavirus diarrhoea. (Rubella, JE and Rotavirus vaccine in select states and districts).
https://vikaspedia.in/health/nrhm/national-health-programmes-1/mission-indhradhanush
Source: Kurukshetra, January 2021
- Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the goals of the India Newborn Action Plan (INAP)?
- Ending Preventable Newborn Deaths to achieve “Single Digit NMR” by 2025, with all the states to individually achieve this target by 2030.
- Ending Preventable Stillbirths to achieve “Single Digit SBR” by 2030, with all the states to individually achieve this target by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
India Newborn Action Plan (INAP) was launched in September 2014, for accelerating the reduction of preventable newborn deaths and stillbirths in the country – with the goal of attaining ‘Single Digit Neo-natal Mortality Rate (NMR) by 2030’ and ‘Single Digit Still Birth Rate (SBR) by 2030’. Currently, there are estimated 7.47 lakh neonatal deaths annually.The neo-natal deaths are expected to reduce to below 2.28 lakh annually by 2030, once the goal is achieved.
The India Newborn Action Plan (INAP) is India’s committed response to the Global Every Newborn Action Plan (ENAP), launched in June 2014 at the 67th World Health Assembly, to advance the Global Strategy for Women’s and Children’s Health.
Goals
- Ending Preventable Newborn Deaths to achieve “Single Digit NMR” by 2030, with all the states to individually achieve this target by 2035.
- Ending Preventable Stillbirths to achieve “Single Digit SBR” by 2030, with all the states to individually achieve this target by 2035
https://vikaspedia.in/health/nrhm/national-health-mission/india-newborn-action-plan
Source: Kurukshetra, January 2021
IncorrectSolution: B
India Newborn Action Plan (INAP) was launched in September 2014, for accelerating the reduction of preventable newborn deaths and stillbirths in the country – with the goal of attaining ‘Single Digit Neo-natal Mortality Rate (NMR) by 2030’ and ‘Single Digit Still Birth Rate (SBR) by 2030’. Currently, there are estimated 7.47 lakh neonatal deaths annually.The neo-natal deaths are expected to reduce to below 2.28 lakh annually by 2030, once the goal is achieved.
The India Newborn Action Plan (INAP) is India’s committed response to the Global Every Newborn Action Plan (ENAP), launched in June 2014 at the 67th World Health Assembly, to advance the Global Strategy for Women’s and Children’s Health.
Goals
- Ending Preventable Newborn Deaths to achieve “Single Digit NMR” by 2030, with all the states to individually achieve this target by 2035.
- Ending Preventable Stillbirths to achieve “Single Digit SBR” by 2030, with all the states to individually achieve this target by 2035
https://vikaspedia.in/health/nrhm/national-health-mission/india-newborn-action-plan
Source: Kurukshetra, January 2021
- Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 points6x6x6 AMB strategy, sometimes seen in news, is related to:
CorrectSolution: C
The 6x6x6 strategy under AMB implies six age groups, six interventions and six institutional mechanisms. The strategy focuses on ensuring supply chain, demand generation and strong monitoring using the dashboard for addressing anaemia, both due to nutritional and non-nutritional causes.
Source: Kurukshetra, January 2021
IncorrectSolution: C
The 6x6x6 strategy under AMB implies six age groups, six interventions and six institutional mechanisms. The strategy focuses on ensuring supply chain, demand generation and strong monitoring using the dashboard for addressing anaemia, both due to nutritional and non-nutritional causes.
Source: Kurukshetra, January 2021
- Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWith reference to System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR), consider the following statements
- It aims to provide Real-time air quality index on 24×7 basis with colour coding along with 72-hour advance weather forecast.
- It was indigenously developed by India Meteorological Department (IMD)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.?
CorrectSolution: A
SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting):
- SAFAR was developed indigenously by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune and operationalized by India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- The objective is to provide Real-time air quality index on 24×7 basis with colour coding along with 72-hour advance weather forecast.
- It has been introduced for greater metropolitan cities of India to provide location-specific information on air quality in near real time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance for the first time in India.
- It is integral part of India’s first Air Quality Early Warning System operational in Delhi. It will monitor all weather parameters like temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind speed and wind direction.
- Pollutants monitored: PM1, PM2.5, PM10, Ozone, CO, NOx (NO, NO2), SO2, BC, Methane (CH4), Non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHC), VOC’s, Benzene, Mercury.
- Monitored Meteorological Parameters: UV Radiation, Rainfall, Temperature, Humidity, Wind speed, Wind direction, solar radiation.
Significance of the system:
- It has been introduced for greater metropolitan cities of India to provide location-specific information on air quality in near real time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance for the first time in India.
- The World Meteorological Organization has recognised SAFAR as a prototype activity on the basis of the high-quality control and standards maintained in its implementation.
- The ultimate objective of the project is to increase awareness among general public regarding the air quality in their city well in advance so that appropriate mitigation measures and systematic action can be taken up for betterment of air quality and related health issues.
IncorrectSolution: A
SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting):
- SAFAR was developed indigenously by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune and operationalized by India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- The objective is to provide Real-time air quality index on 24×7 basis with colour coding along with 72-hour advance weather forecast.
- It has been introduced for greater metropolitan cities of India to provide location-specific information on air quality in near real time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance for the first time in India.
- It is integral part of India’s first Air Quality Early Warning System operational in Delhi. It will monitor all weather parameters like temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind speed and wind direction.
- Pollutants monitored: PM1, PM2.5, PM10, Ozone, CO, NOx (NO, NO2), SO2, BC, Methane (CH4), Non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHC), VOC’s, Benzene, Mercury.
- Monitored Meteorological Parameters: UV Radiation, Rainfall, Temperature, Humidity, Wind speed, Wind direction, solar radiation.
Significance of the system:
- It has been introduced for greater metropolitan cities of India to provide location-specific information on air quality in near real time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance for the first time in India.
- The World Meteorological Organization has recognised SAFAR as a prototype activity on the basis of the high-quality control and standards maintained in its implementation.
- The ultimate objective of the project is to increase awareness among general public regarding the air quality in their city well in advance so that appropriate mitigation measures and systematic action can be taken up for betterment of air quality and related health issues.
- Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
River Valley Projects : State
- Malprabha project : Karnataka
- Ranjit Sagar Dam project : Punjab
- Poochampad Project : Maharashtra
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
CorrectSolution: C
The Malaprabha dam is the shortest dam in Karnataka. It was built across the Malaprabha river in Belgaum. It is a tributary of the famous Krishna river. It is located in small town called Saundatti in Belagavi. This dam has been designed to meet the drinking water requirements of the people of Belgaum, Dharwad, Gadag and Bagalkot.
The Ranjit Sagar Dam, also known as the Thein Dam, is part of a hydroelectric project constructed by the Government of Punjab Punjab Irrigation Department on the Ravi River on the Border of two states of India Jammu and Kashmir and Punjab.
Pochampadu dam, also called as Sri Ram Sagar Project is a multipurpose dam structure across Godavari River and considered as a Lifeline for North Telangana. Sri Ram Sagar project serves for irrigational needs in districts such as Warangal, Karimnagar, Adilabad, Nalgonda, and Khammam district and has a capacity of 75 billion cubic feet with 42 floodgates.
IncorrectSolution: C
The Malaprabha dam is the shortest dam in Karnataka. It was built across the Malaprabha river in Belgaum. It is a tributary of the famous Krishna river. It is located in small town called Saundatti in Belagavi. This dam has been designed to meet the drinking water requirements of the people of Belgaum, Dharwad, Gadag and Bagalkot.
The Ranjit Sagar Dam, also known as the Thein Dam, is part of a hydroelectric project constructed by the Government of Punjab Punjab Irrigation Department on the Ravi River on the Border of two states of India Jammu and Kashmir and Punjab.
Pochampadu dam, also called as Sri Ram Sagar Project is a multipurpose dam structure across Godavari River and considered as a Lifeline for North Telangana. Sri Ram Sagar project serves for irrigational needs in districts such as Warangal, Karimnagar, Adilabad, Nalgonda, and Khammam district and has a capacity of 75 billion cubic feet with 42 floodgates.
- Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Biodiversity Heritage Sites
- Biodiversity heritage sites are considered unique and fragile ecosystems that can be marine ecosystems, coastal and inland waters, or terrestrial areas.
- Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 National Biodiversity Authority has the power to declare Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.?
CorrectSolution: A
Biodiversity Heritage Sites:
“Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the following components: richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories, high endemism, presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/ cultivated species or their varieties, past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values and are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long history of human association with them.
Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (BDA) the State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify in the official gazette, areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
“The creation of BHS may not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usages of the local communities, other than those voluntarily decided by them. The purpose of declaring BHS is to enhance the quality of life of the local communities through conservation of such sites.”
IncorrectSolution: A
Biodiversity Heritage Sites:
“Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the following components: richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories, high endemism, presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/ cultivated species or their varieties, past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values and are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long history of human association with them.
Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (BDA) the State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify in the official gazette, areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
“The creation of BHS may not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usages of the local communities, other than those voluntarily decided by them. The purpose of declaring BHS is to enhance the quality of life of the local communities through conservation of such sites.”
- Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsIn which one of the following States is Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary located?
CorrectSolution: C
Netravali wildlife sanctuary:
Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary is located in South-Eastern Goa, India. It constitutes one of the vital corridors of the Western Ghats and covers an area of about 211km. Netravali or Neturli is an important tributary of River Zuari, which originates in the sanctuary.
IncorrectSolution: C
Netravali wildlife sanctuary:
Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary is located in South-Eastern Goa, India. It constitutes one of the vital corridors of the Western Ghats and covers an area of about 211km. Netravali or Neturli is an important tributary of River Zuari, which originates in the sanctuary.
- Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Kaziranga National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
- It is spread over three states
- It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site
- It is the home of the world’s most one-horned rhinos
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
CorrectSolution: C
Kaziranga National Park:
- Kaziranga National Park is a protected area in the northeast Indian state of Assam.
- Spread across the floodplains of the Brahmaputra River, its forests, wetlands and grasslands are home to tigers, elephants and the world’s largest population of Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.
- Ganges River dolphins swim in the park’s waters.
- It’s visited by many rare migratory birds, and gray pelicans roost near Kaziranga village.
- It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.
- It is the home of the world’s most one-horned rhinos. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary has the highest density of one-horned rhinos in the world and second highest number of Rhinos in Assam after Kaziranga National Park.
IncorrectSolution: C
Kaziranga National Park:
- Kaziranga National Park is a protected area in the northeast Indian state of Assam.
- Spread across the floodplains of the Brahmaputra River, its forests, wetlands and grasslands are home to tigers, elephants and the world’s largest population of Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.
- Ganges River dolphins swim in the park’s waters.
- It’s visited by many rare migratory birds, and gray pelicans roost near Kaziranga village.
- It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.
- It is the home of the world’s most one-horned rhinos. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary has the highest density of one-horned rhinos in the world and second highest number of Rhinos in Assam after Kaziranga National Park.
- Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIn a city, 68% population is literate in which the ratio of the number of males and the number of females is 11: 6. And if the number of illiterate males to the number of illiterate females ratio is 3:1, then what is ratio of literate male to illiterate male?
CorrectAnswer: B
Literate population % is given as 68% of the population.
It is given that, ratio of male literates and female literates = 11:6
Total male literates = (11/17) * 68 = 44 % of population
Total female literates (6/17) * 68 = 24 % of population
Now , illiterate % of population = 100-68=32%
It is given that, ratio of male illiterates and female illiterates = 3:1
Total male illiterates = (3/4) * 32 = 24 % of total population
Required ratio literate male to illiterate male= 44 : 24= 11:6
IncorrectAnswer: B
Literate population % is given as 68% of the population.
It is given that, ratio of male literates and female literates = 11:6
Total male literates = (11/17) * 68 = 44 % of population
Total female literates (6/17) * 68 = 24 % of population
Now , illiterate % of population = 100-68=32%
It is given that, ratio of male illiterates and female illiterates = 3:1
Total male illiterates = (3/4) * 32 = 24 % of total population
Required ratio literate male to illiterate male= 44 : 24= 11:6
- Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThree persons start walking together and their steps measure 14 cm, 28 cm and 70 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps ?
CorrectAnswer: C
Take the LCM of 14, 28 and 70 to know at what point will they find a common multiple.
LCM of 14, 14*2, 14*5 = 14* 2 * 5 = 140
Required distance is 140 cm
IncorrectAnswer: C
Take the LCM of 14, 28 and 70 to know at what point will they find a common multiple.
LCM of 14, 14*2, 14*5 = 14* 2 * 5 = 140
Required distance is 140 cm
- Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA student on her first five tests receives on an average score of N points. If she exceeds her previous average score by 48 points on her sixth test, then what is the average score for the first six tests?
CorrectAnswer: C
The average score of student in 5 tests is N points. So, the total score = 5N points.
Given the score in sixth test = N + 48,
Total score after 6 tests = 5N + N + 48 = 6N + 48
Thus, average after six tests = (6N+48)/6 = N+8
IncorrectAnswer: C
The average score of student in 5 tests is N points. So, the total score = 5N points.
Given the score in sixth test = N + 48,
Total score after 6 tests = 5N + N + 48 = 6N + 48
Thus, average after six tests = (6N+48)/6 = N+8
- Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsExamine the following statements:
- Either Abhishek and Bharat are of same age or Abhishek is older than Bharat
- Either Chirag and Daniel are of same age or Daniel is older than Chirag
- Bharat is older than Daniel
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
CorrectAnswer: D
From statement 1, it is clear that age of Abhishek = Age of Bharat OR Abhishek is older than Bharat i.e A >= B
From statement 3, it is clear that Bharat is older than Daniel i.e B>D
From statement 2, Either Chirag and Daniel are of same age or Daniel is older than Chirag i.e D>=C
Thus, A>=B>D>=C
Thus, Abhishek is older than Chirag for sure.
IncorrectAnswer: D
From statement 1, it is clear that age of Abhishek = Age of Bharat OR Abhishek is older than Bharat i.e A >= B
From statement 3, it is clear that Bharat is older than Daniel i.e B>D
From statement 2, Either Chirag and Daniel are of same age or Daniel is older than Chirag i.e D>=C
Thus, A>=B>D>=C
Thus, Abhishek is older than Chirag for sure.
- Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsFor some, it is the most nauseating thing to do; for others, it’s the only way to make a living. From drains and sewers to septic tanks and railway tracks, more than half a million manual scavengers across the country are cleaning, carrying and disposing of human excreta and everything else that we flush down the toilet.
Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following is a valid conclusion that can be made from the passage?
I. Economic inequality is stark in India
II. Caste system has created several divisions in the society
III. Manual scavengers have no rights and live a pitiable lifeCorrectAns. A.
I is correct as the passage contrasts the life style of two different classes of people. II is wrong as the passage does not talk about caste system. III is wrong as the passage does not talk about the rights of manual scavengers but highlights that such a practice still there in India. Hence A.
IncorrectAns. A.
I is correct as the passage contrasts the life style of two different classes of people. II is wrong as the passage does not talk about caste system. III is wrong as the passage does not talk about the rights of manual scavengers but highlights that such a practice still there in India. Hence A.
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