INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhat are the advantages of using Bioindicators
- Biological impacts can be determined.
- Early stage diagnosis as well as harmful effects of toxins to plants and human beings, can be monitored.
- Economically viable alternative
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The advantages associated with using Bioindicators are as follows:
- Biological impacts can be determined.
- To monitor synergetic and antagonistic impacts of various pollutants on a creature.
- Early stage diagnosis as well as harmful effects of toxins to plants, as well as human beings, can be monitored.
- Can be easily counted, due to their prevalence.
- Economically viable alternative when compared with other specialized measuring systems.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The advantages associated with using Bioindicators are as follows:
- Biological impacts can be determined.
- To monitor synergetic and antagonistic impacts of various pollutants on a creature.
- Early stage diagnosis as well as harmful effects of toxins to plants, as well as human beings, can be monitored.
- Can be easily counted, due to their prevalence.
- Economically viable alternative when compared with other specialized measuring systems.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following regarding Environmental Impact Assessment
- In India, it is governed under Environment (Protection) Act,1986
- Espoo convention is a convention in which states have to assess the transboundary impact of Environmental projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Ministry of Environment & Forests has issued Notification on Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) of developmental projects, 1994 under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act,1986.
The Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in a Transboundary Context (informally called the Espoo Convention) is a United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE) convention signed in Espoo, Finland, in 1991 that entered into force in 1997. The Convention sets out the obligations of Parties—that is States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention—to carry out an environmental impact assessment of certain activities at an early stage of planning. It also lays down the general obligation of States to notify and consult each other on all major projects under consideration that are likely to have a significant adverse environmental impact across boundaries.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Ministry of Environment & Forests has issued Notification on Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) of developmental projects, 1994 under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act,1986.
The Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in a Transboundary Context (informally called the Espoo Convention) is a United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE) convention signed in Espoo, Finland, in 1991 that entered into force in 1997. The Convention sets out the obligations of Parties—that is States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention—to carry out an environmental impact assessment of certain activities at an early stage of planning. It also lays down the general obligation of States to notify and consult each other on all major projects under consideration that are likely to have a significant adverse environmental impact across boundaries.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsThe largest contributor of Greenhouse effect is
Correct
Solution: D
Water vapor is the largest contributor to the Earth’s greenhouse effect. On average, it probably accounts for about 60% of the warming effect.
Water vapor accounts for the largest percentage of the greenhouse effect, between 36% and 66% for clear sky conditions and between 66% and 85% when including clouds. Water vapor concentrations fluctuate regionally, but human activity does not directly affect water vapor concentrations except at local scales, such as near irrigated fields. Indirectly, human activity that increases global temperatures will increase water vapor concentrations, a process known as water vapor feedback.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Water vapor is the largest contributor to the Earth’s greenhouse effect. On average, it probably accounts for about 60% of the warming effect.
Water vapor accounts for the largest percentage of the greenhouse effect, between 36% and 66% for clear sky conditions and between 66% and 85% when including clouds. Water vapor concentrations fluctuate regionally, but human activity does not directly affect water vapor concentrations except at local scales, such as near irrigated fields. Indirectly, human activity that increases global temperatures will increase water vapor concentrations, a process known as water vapor feedback.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling
- It is an international environmental agreement signed in 1946 for regulation of whaling
- United States and Japan are parties to this convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling is an international environmental agreement signed in 1946 in order to “provide for the proper conservation of whale stocks and thus make possible the orderly development of the whaling industry”. It governs the commercial, scientific, and aboriginal subsistence whaling practices of eighty-nine member nations.
Japan withdrew from the convention in January 2019.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling is an international environmental agreement signed in 1946 in order to “provide for the proper conservation of whale stocks and thus make possible the orderly development of the whaling industry”. It governs the commercial, scientific, and aboriginal subsistence whaling practices of eighty-nine member nations.
Japan withdrew from the convention in January 2019.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are outcome of the Earth Summit, 1992?
- Kyoto Protocol
- Agenda 21
- Forest Principles
Select the correct answer using the given below:
Correct
Solution: C
United Nations Conference On Environment And Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio Summit, Rio Conference, Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992.
The Earth Summit resulted in the following documents:
• Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
• Agenda 21
• Forest PrinciplesIncorrect
Solution: C
United Nations Conference On Environment And Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio Summit, Rio Conference, Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992.
The Earth Summit resulted in the following documents:
• Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
• Agenda 21
• Forest Principles -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety, Consider the following statements:
- It is an additional agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
- The Protocol sets the deadline to prohibit the import and export of Living Modified Organisms (LMO) from one country to another.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Biosafety refers to the need to protect human health and the environment from the possible adverse effects of the products of modern biotechnology.
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is an additional agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. The Protocol establishes procedures for regulating the import and export of LMOs from one country to another.
The Protocol also requires Parties to ensure that LMOs being shipped from one country to another are handled, packaged and transported in a safe manner.
The shipments must be accompanied by documentation that clearly identifies the LMOs, specifies any requirements for the safe handling, storage, transport and use and provides contact details for further information. . Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Biosafety refers to the need to protect human health and the environment from the possible adverse effects of the products of modern biotechnology.
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is an additional agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. The Protocol establishes procedures for regulating the import and export of LMOs from one country to another.
The Protocol also requires Parties to ensure that LMOs being shipped from one country to another are handled, packaged and transported in a safe manner.
The shipments must be accompanied by documentation that clearly identifies the LMOs, specifies any requirements for the safe handling, storage, transport and use and provides contact details for further information. . Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Black Carbon
- Black carbon is the result of incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass.
- It is directly emitted in the atmosphere as fine particles
- Life time of black carbon in the atmosphere is more than 100 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Black carbon (BC) is the result of incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass. It consists of elemental carbon in several forms. Black carbon warms the atmosphere due to its absorption and by reducing albedo when deposited on snow and ice.
It is directly emitted in the atmosphere as fine particles PM5. It is highly effective in absorbing solar energy and can absorb million times more energy than Carbon Dioxide.
Life time of black carbon in the atmosphere is only a few days to weeks, compared to CO2 which has an atmospheric lifetime of more than 100 years. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Black carbon (BC) is the result of incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass. It consists of elemental carbon in several forms. Black carbon warms the atmosphere due to its absorption and by reducing albedo when deposited on snow and ice.
It is directly emitted in the atmosphere as fine particles PM5. It is highly effective in absorbing solar energy and can absorb million times more energy than Carbon Dioxide.
Life time of black carbon in the atmosphere is only a few days to weeks, compared to CO2 which has an atmospheric lifetime of more than 100 years. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsGlobal Climate Risk Index, sometime seen in the news, is published by
Correct
Solution: D
Global Climate Risk Index is annually published by environmental think tank Germanwatch.
Germanwatch, based in Bonn and Berlin (Germany), is an independent development and environmental organisation which works for sustainable global development.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Global Climate Risk Index is annually published by environmental think tank Germanwatch.
Germanwatch, based in Bonn and Berlin (Germany), is an independent development and environmental organisation which works for sustainable global development.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsGlobal Environment Facility, funds which of the following International Environment Conventions
- United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD)
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems. The GEF unites 184 countries in partnership with international institutions, civil society organizations (CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues while supporting national sustainable development initiatives. Since 1992, the GEF has provided close to $20.5 billion in grants and mobilized an additional $112 billion in co-financing for more than 4,800 projects in 170 countries. Through its Small Grants Programme (SGP), the GEF has provided support to nearly 24,000 civil society and community initiatives in 133 countries.
An independently operating financial organization, the GEF provides grants for projects related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, the ozone layer, persistent organic pollutants (POPs), mercury, sustainable forest management, food security, sustainable cities.
The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions:
- Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
- United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
- Minamata Convention on Mercury
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems. The GEF unites 184 countries in partnership with international institutions, civil society organizations (CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues while supporting national sustainable development initiatives. Since 1992, the GEF has provided close to $20.5 billion in grants and mobilized an additional $112 billion in co-financing for more than 4,800 projects in 170 countries. Through its Small Grants Programme (SGP), the GEF has provided support to nearly 24,000 civil society and community initiatives in 133 countries.
An independently operating financial organization, the GEF provides grants for projects related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, the ozone layer, persistent organic pollutants (POPs), mercury, sustainable forest management, food security, sustainable cities.
The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions:
- Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
- United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
- Minamata Convention on Mercury
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS)
- ITLOS is an independent judicial body established by the UNCLOS to adjudicate disputes arising out of the interpretation and application of the UNCLOS Convention.
- The Tribunal is open only to the state’s parties to the convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea is an independent judicial body established by the UNCLOS to adjudicate disputes arising out of the interpretation and application of the UNCLOS Convention.
The Tribunal is open to States Parties to the Convention.
It is also open to entities other than States Parties, i.e., States or intergovernmental organisations which are not parties to the Convention and to state enterprises and private entities.
Recently, Dr. Neeru Chadha has become the first Indian woman to be elected as a judge at the International Tribunal for the Law of the Seas (ITLOS).
Incorrect
Solution: A
International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea is an independent judicial body established by the UNCLOS to adjudicate disputes arising out of the interpretation and application of the UNCLOS Convention.
The Tribunal is open to States Parties to the Convention.
It is also open to entities other than States Parties, i.e., States or intergovernmental organisations which are not parties to the Convention and to state enterprises and private entities.
Recently, Dr. Neeru Chadha has become the first Indian woman to be elected as a judge at the International Tribunal for the Law of the Seas (ITLOS).
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following tiger reserves is/are present in the state of Karnataka?
- Bandipur
- Nagarhole
- Melghat
- Bhadra Tiger Reserve
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: C
Incorrect
Solution: C
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Asian Development Bank
- Apart from providing loans, ADB also provides technical assistance to its members and partners
- ADB has members form Asia and Pacific region only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) envisions a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable Asia and the Pacific, while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty in the region. Despite the region’s many successes, it remains home to a large share of the world’s poor: 263 million living on less than $1.90 a day and 1.1 billion on less than $3.20 a day.
ADB assists its members, and partners, by providing loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
ADB maximizes the development impact of its assistance by facilitating policy dialogues, providing advisory services, and mobilizing financial resources through cofinancing operations that tap official, commercial, and export credit sources.
From 31 members at its establishment in 1966, ADB has grown to encompass 68 members—of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) envisions a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable Asia and the Pacific, while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty in the region. Despite the region’s many successes, it remains home to a large share of the world’s poor: 263 million living on less than $1.90 a day and 1.1 billion on less than $3.20 a day.
ADB assists its members, and partners, by providing loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
ADB maximizes the development impact of its assistance by facilitating policy dialogues, providing advisory services, and mobilizing financial resources through cofinancing operations that tap official, commercial, and export credit sources.
From 31 members at its establishment in 1966, ADB has grown to encompass 68 members—of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
Mountain/Peak Location
- Guru Shikar Satpura Ranges
- Mahendragiri Western Ghats
- Doddabetta Nilgiri Hills
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
Incorrect
Solution: C
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhat does the Rahn Curve indicate:
Correct
Solution: C
The Rahn curve is a graph used to illustrate an economic theory, proposed in 1996 by American economist Richard W. Rahn, which indicates that there is a level of government spending that maximizes economic growth. The theory is used by classical liberals to argue for a decrease in overall government spending and taxation. The inverted-U-shaped curve suggests that the optimal level of government spending is 15–25% of GDP.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Rahn curve is a graph used to illustrate an economic theory, proposed in 1996 by American economist Richard W. Rahn, which indicates that there is a level of government spending that maximizes economic growth. The theory is used by classical liberals to argue for a decrease in overall government spending and taxation. The inverted-U-shaped curve suggests that the optimal level of government spending is 15–25% of GDP.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsPetroleum and Explosives Safety Organization (PESO) serves as nodal agency for regulating safety of:
- Explosives
- Compressed gas
- Petroleum
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
PESO’s major work is to administer the responsibilities delegated under the Explosives Act 1884 and Petroleum Act 1934 and the Rules made thereunder related to manufacture, import, export, transport, possession, sale and use of Explosives, Petroleum products and Compressed gases.
The Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organization (PESO), formerly known as Department of Explosives, since its inception on 05/09/1898, has been serving the nation as a nodal agency for regulating safety of hazardous substances such as explosives, compressed gas and petroleum.
Incorrect
Solution: D
PESO’s major work is to administer the responsibilities delegated under the Explosives Act 1884 and Petroleum Act 1934 and the Rules made thereunder related to manufacture, import, export, transport, possession, sale and use of Explosives, Petroleum products and Compressed gases.
The Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organization (PESO), formerly known as Department of Explosives, since its inception on 05/09/1898, has been serving the nation as a nodal agency for regulating safety of hazardous substances such as explosives, compressed gas and petroleum.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs the festivals and associated states
Festivals Predominant States
- Losar Sikkim
- Ambubachi Andhra Pradesh
- Bathukamma Assam
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Bathukamma is floral festival celebrated predominantly in Telangana and some parts of Andhra Pradesh.
The Tibetan word “Losar”, which translates to “New Year” in English is the most popular and significant festival of Ladakh region, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim state.
Ambubachi Mela is one of the biggest congregations of eastern India. It is the most important festival of the Kamakhya temple (Assam) and is celebrated in the month of June every year. It is more of a ritual of austerities, a festival celebrated with Shakti rites
Incorrect
Solution: B
Bathukamma is floral festival celebrated predominantly in Telangana and some parts of Andhra Pradesh.
The Tibetan word “Losar”, which translates to “New Year” in English is the most popular and significant festival of Ladakh region, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim state.
Ambubachi Mela is one of the biggest congregations of eastern India. It is the most important festival of the Kamakhya temple (Assam) and is celebrated in the month of June every year. It is more of a ritual of austerities, a festival celebrated with Shakti rites
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsThe bordering countries of Aral sea are
Correct
Solution: A
Incorrect
Solution: A
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
- It is a statutory body
- It got responsibilities to discharge under POCSO Act, 2012.
- It can inquire into complaints and take suo‐motu notice of matters relating child right violations
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) emphasises the principle of universality and inviolability of child rights and recognises the tone of urgency in all the child related policies of the country. For the Commission, protection of all children in the 0 to 18 years age group is of equal importance.
- It was set up in March 2007 under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005.
- The commission works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child development.
- The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
- It also has responsibilities under POCSO Act,2012 and RTE Act,2009.
- It is the responsibility of NCPCR to establish Children’s Courts for speedy trial of offences against children or of violation of child rights and get State governments and UT administrations to appoint a Special Public Prosecutor for every Children’s Court
- It can inquire into complaints and take suo‐motu notice of matters relating child right violations.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) emphasises the principle of universality and inviolability of child rights and recognises the tone of urgency in all the child related policies of the country. For the Commission, protection of all children in the 0 to 18 years age group is of equal importance.
- It was set up in March 2007 under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005.
- The commission works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child development.
- The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
- It also has responsibilities under POCSO Act,2012 and RTE Act,2009.
- It is the responsibility of NCPCR to establish Children’s Courts for speedy trial of offences against children or of violation of child rights and get State governments and UT administrations to appoint a Special Public Prosecutor for every Children’s Court
- It can inquire into complaints and take suo‐motu notice of matters relating child right violations.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following vector diseases is/are transmitted by mosquitos?
- Dengue fever
- Malaria
- Japanese encephalitis
- West Nile fever
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: C
Main vectors and diseases they transmit:
Mosquitoes Aedes : Chikungunya, Dengue fever, Lymphatic filariasis, Rift Valley fever, Yellow fever, Zika
Anopheles : Malaria, Lymphatic filariasis,
Culex : Japanese encephalitis, Lymphatic filariasis , West Nile feverSandflies Leishmaniasis, Sandfly fever (phelebotomus fever) Ticks Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever, Lyme disease, Relapsing fever (borreliosis), Rickettsial diseases (spotted fever and Q fever), Tick-borne encephalitis Tularaemia Triatomine bugs Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) Tsetse flies Sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis) Fleas Plague (transmitted by fleas from rats to humans), Rickettsiosis Black flies Onchocerciasis (river blindness) Aquatic snails Schistosomiasis (bilharziasis) Lice Typhus and louse-borne relapsing fever Incorrect
Solution: C
Main vectors and diseases they transmit:
Mosquitoes Aedes : Chikungunya, Dengue fever, Lymphatic filariasis, Rift Valley fever, Yellow fever, Zika
Anopheles : Malaria, Lymphatic filariasis,
Culex : Japanese encephalitis, Lymphatic filariasis , West Nile feverSandflies Leishmaniasis, Sandfly fever (phelebotomus fever) Ticks Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever, Lyme disease, Relapsing fever (borreliosis), Rickettsial diseases (spotted fever and Q fever), Tick-borne encephalitis Tularaemia Triatomine bugs Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) Tsetse flies Sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis) Fleas Plague (transmitted by fleas from rats to humans), Rickettsiosis Black flies Onchocerciasis (river blindness) Aquatic snails Schistosomiasis (bilharziasis) Lice Typhus and louse-borne relapsing fever -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following report/reports is/are published by International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
- Global Gender Gap Report
- Global Financial Stability Report
- Fiscal monitor
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Key Publications of IMF
Publications
- World economic outlook
- Global financial stability report
- Fiscal monitor
- Regional economic prospects
- Finance and Development
The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2020 report covers 153 countries. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Key Publications of IMF
Publications
- World economic outlook
- Global financial stability report
- Fiscal monitor
- Regional economic prospects
- Finance and Development
The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2020 report covers 153 countries. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following act ensure that “No company in India shall carry on banking business, unless it holds a license issued in that behalf by the Reserve Bank of India”?
Correct
Solution: C
Banking Regulation Act, 1949:
The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a legislation in India that regulates all banking firms in India. Passed as the Banking Companies Act 1949, it came into force from 16 March 1949 and changed to Banking Regulation Act 1949 from 1 March 1966.
According to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 “No company shall carry on banking business in India unless it holds a licence issued in that behalf by the Reserve Bank and any such licence may be issued subject to such conditions as the Reserve Bank may think fit to impose”.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Banking Regulation Act, 1949:
The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a legislation in India that regulates all banking firms in India. Passed as the Banking Companies Act 1949, it came into force from 16 March 1949 and changed to Banking Regulation Act 1949 from 1 March 1966.
According to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 “No company shall carry on banking business in India unless it holds a licence issued in that behalf by the Reserve Bank and any such licence may be issued subject to such conditions as the Reserve Bank may think fit to impose”.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsThe Grant of Telecom Licenses in India are primarily governed by which of the following acts?
- The Indian Telegraph Act 1885
- The Indian Wireless Telegraph Act 1933
- The Information Technology Act, 2000
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: B
The grant of telecom licenses in India is primarily governed by the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, and the Indian Wireless Telegraph Act, 1933. These Acts provide an exclusive authority to the Central Government for establishing, maintaining, and working telegraphs, and wireless telegraphy equipment, and to grant licenses for such activities. The 1885 Act defines “Telegraph” as any appliance, instrument, material or apparatus used or capable of use for transmission or reception of signs, signals, writing, images and sounds or intelligence of any nature by wire, visual or other electromagnetic emissions, Radio waves or Hertzian waves, galvanic, electric or magnetic means.
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has been set up under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. Some regulations are also issued by the TRAI including, for example, ‘do not call’ regulations and interconnection rules.
The Information Technology Act, 2000 has indirect application to some telecom and internet related issues, particularly surveillance rights of the Government. The Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995 regulates cable television.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The grant of telecom licenses in India is primarily governed by the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, and the Indian Wireless Telegraph Act, 1933. These Acts provide an exclusive authority to the Central Government for establishing, maintaining, and working telegraphs, and wireless telegraphy equipment, and to grant licenses for such activities. The 1885 Act defines “Telegraph” as any appliance, instrument, material or apparatus used or capable of use for transmission or reception of signs, signals, writing, images and sounds or intelligence of any nature by wire, visual or other electromagnetic emissions, Radio waves or Hertzian waves, galvanic, electric or magnetic means.
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has been set up under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. Some regulations are also issued by the TRAI including, for example, ‘do not call’ regulations and interconnection rules.
The Information Technology Act, 2000 has indirect application to some telecom and internet related issues, particularly surveillance rights of the Government. The Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995 regulates cable television.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Unified Payment Interface (UPI), consider the following statements
- It is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using a smartphone.
- A customer can transfer money to another person through a unique virtual address, or mobile number, or Aadhaar.
- It is developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) under the guidelines of the RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Unified Payments Interface (UPI):
- Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.
- UPI is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using a smartphone.
- It also caters to the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per requirement and convenience.
- A customer can transfer money to another person through a unique virtual address, or mobile number, or Aadhaar. Therefore, customers do not need to know the payee’s IFSC code, bank account details, etc. and this will make the process simpler.
- It is developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) under the guidelines of the RBI
How is it unique?
- Immediate money transfer through mobile device round the clock 24*7 and 365 days.
- Single mobile application for accessing different bank accounts.
- Single Click 2 Factor Authentication – Aligned with the Regulatory guidelines, yet provides for a very strong feature of seamless single click payment.
- Virtual address of the customer for Pull & Push provides for incremental security with the customer not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number; IFSC etc.
- Bill Sharing with friends.
- Best answer to Cash on Delivery hassle, running to an ATM or rendering exact amount.
- Merchant Payment with Single Application or In-App Payments.
- Utility Bill Payments, Over the Counter Payments, Barcode (Scan and Pay) based payments.
- Donations, Collections, Disbursements Scalable.
- Raising Complaint from Mobile App directly.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Unified Payments Interface (UPI):
- Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.
- UPI is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using a smartphone.
- It also caters to the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per requirement and convenience.
- A customer can transfer money to another person through a unique virtual address, or mobile number, or Aadhaar. Therefore, customers do not need to know the payee’s IFSC code, bank account details, etc. and this will make the process simpler.
- It is developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) under the guidelines of the RBI
How is it unique?
- Immediate money transfer through mobile device round the clock 24*7 and 365 days.
- Single mobile application for accessing different bank accounts.
- Single Click 2 Factor Authentication – Aligned with the Regulatory guidelines, yet provides for a very strong feature of seamless single click payment.
- Virtual address of the customer for Pull & Push provides for incremental security with the customer not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number; IFSC etc.
- Bill Sharing with friends.
- Best answer to Cash on Delivery hassle, running to an ATM or rendering exact amount.
- Merchant Payment with Single Application or In-App Payments.
- Utility Bill Payments, Over the Counter Payments, Barcode (Scan and Pay) based payments.
- Donations, Collections, Disbursements Scalable.
- Raising Complaint from Mobile App directly.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is a purpose of ‘SVAMITVA Scheme’, a scheme of the Government?
Correct
Solution: A
SWAMITVA SCHEME:
- The Prime Minister of India launched ‘Swamitva Yojana’ or Ownership Scheme to map residential land ownership in the rural sector using modern technology like the use of drones.
- Aim: To provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India
- The scheme is piloted by the Panchayati Raj ministry.
- The residential land in villages will be measured using drones to create a non-disputable record.
- Property card for every property in the village will be prepared by states using accurate measurements delivered by drone-mapping. These cards will be given to property owners and will be recognised by the land revenue records department.
Benefits of the scheme:
- The delivery of property rights through an official document will enable villagers to access bank finance using their property as collateral.
- The property records for a village will also be maintained at the Panchayat level, allowing for the collection of associated taxes from the owners. The money generated from these local taxes will be used to build rural infrastructure and facilities.
- Freeing the residential properties including land of title disputes and the creation of an official record is likely to result in appreciation in the market value of the properties.
- The accurate property records can be used for facilitating tax collection, new building and structure plan, issuing of permits and for thwarting attempts at property grabbing.
Incorrect
Solution: A
SWAMITVA SCHEME:
- The Prime Minister of India launched ‘Swamitva Yojana’ or Ownership Scheme to map residential land ownership in the rural sector using modern technology like the use of drones.
- Aim: To provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India
- The scheme is piloted by the Panchayati Raj ministry.
- The residential land in villages will be measured using drones to create a non-disputable record.
- Property card for every property in the village will be prepared by states using accurate measurements delivered by drone-mapping. These cards will be given to property owners and will be recognised by the land revenue records department.
Benefits of the scheme:
- The delivery of property rights through an official document will enable villagers to access bank finance using their property as collateral.
- The property records for a village will also be maintained at the Panchayat level, allowing for the collection of associated taxes from the owners. The money generated from these local taxes will be used to build rural infrastructure and facilities.
- Freeing the residential properties including land of title disputes and the creation of an official record is likely to result in appreciation in the market value of the properties.
- The accurate property records can be used for facilitating tax collection, new building and structure plan, issuing of permits and for thwarting attempts at property grabbing.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Conservation of foreign exchange and prevention of smuggling activities act, 1974 (COFEPOSA), consider the following statements
- It provides preventive detention of person.
- It does not empower authority to punish a person without trial.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.?
Correct
Solution: C
Conservation of foreign exchange and prevention of smuggling activities act, 1974 (COFEPOSA):
- An Act to provide for preventive detention in certain cases for the purposes of conservation and augmentation of foreign exchange and prevention of smuggling activities and for matters connected therewith.
- Whereas violating of foreign exchange regulations and smuggling activities are having an increasingly deleterious effect on the national economy and thereby a serious adverse effect on the security of the State.
- And whereas having regard to the persons by whom and the manner in which such activities or violations are organized and carried on, and having regard to the fact that in certain areas which are highly vulnerable to smuggling, smuggling activities of a considerable magnitude are clandestinely organized and carried on, it is necessary for the effective prevention of such activities and violations to provide for detention of persons concerned in any manner therewith.
- COFEPOSA is not a punitive Act. It does not empower authority to punish a person without trial.
- It provides preventive detention of person, before engaging in smuggling activities.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Conservation of foreign exchange and prevention of smuggling activities act, 1974 (COFEPOSA):
- An Act to provide for preventive detention in certain cases for the purposes of conservation and augmentation of foreign exchange and prevention of smuggling activities and for matters connected therewith.
- Whereas violating of foreign exchange regulations and smuggling activities are having an increasingly deleterious effect on the national economy and thereby a serious adverse effect on the security of the State.
- And whereas having regard to the persons by whom and the manner in which such activities or violations are organized and carried on, and having regard to the fact that in certain areas which are highly vulnerable to smuggling, smuggling activities of a considerable magnitude are clandestinely organized and carried on, it is necessary for the effective prevention of such activities and violations to provide for detention of persons concerned in any manner therewith.
- COFEPOSA is not a punitive Act. It does not empower authority to punish a person without trial.
- It provides preventive detention of person, before engaging in smuggling activities.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsToday is Ganesh’s birthday. One year from today he will be twice as old as he was 12 years ago. How old is Ganesh today?
Correct
Solution: C
Let Ganesh’s age today = x years.
Then, Ganesh’s age after 1 year = (x + 1) years.
According to the question, x + 1 = 2 (x – 12)- x + 1 = 2x – 24
- x = 25.
Hence, option (c) is the correct .
Incorrect
Solution: C
Let Ganesh’s age today = x years.
Then, Ganesh’s age after 1 year = (x + 1) years.
According to the question, x + 1 = 2 (x – 12)- x + 1 = 2x – 24
- x = 25.
Hence, option (c) is the correct .
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsIf a person cycled at 10 km/hr to the office from his house, he reaches 6 minutes late. He reached 6 minutes early when he increased his speed by 2 km/hr. What is the distance between his house and office?
Correct
Solution: D
Let the distance between house and office be ‘x’ km.
- Therefore, time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of 10 km/hr = (x/10) hours
- Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of
12 km/hr = (x/12) hours
Thus, time difference = (x/10)-(x/12) = (6x-5x)/ 60 or x/60 — (Eq 1)
Let the actual time the person is supposed to take to reach office be ‘t’ hours.
- Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of
10 km/hr = t+6 min or t+(6/60) hour = ((60t+6)/60) hours
- Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of
12 km/hr = t-6 min or t-(6/60) = ((60t-6)/60) hours.
Thus, time difference= (60t+6-60t+6)/60 = 12/60 hours … (Eq 2)
Equating the equation 1 and equation 2 we get x/60= 12/60
- x=12km
Therefore, distance between the house of the person and his house is 12kms.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Let the distance between house and office be ‘x’ km.
- Therefore, time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of 10 km/hr = (x/10) hours
- Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of
12 km/hr = (x/12) hours
Thus, time difference = (x/10)-(x/12) = (6x-5x)/ 60 or x/60 — (Eq 1)
Let the actual time the person is supposed to take to reach office be ‘t’ hours.
- Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of
10 km/hr = t+6 min or t+(6/60) hour = ((60t+6)/60) hours
- Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of
12 km/hr = t-6 min or t-(6/60) = ((60t-6)/60) hours.
Thus, time difference= (60t+6-60t+6)/60 = 12/60 hours … (Eq 2)
Equating the equation 1 and equation 2 we get x/60= 12/60
- x=12km
Therefore, distance between the house of the person and his house is 12kms.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA train passes two persons walking in opposite direction at a speed of 5 m/s and 10 m/s in 6 seconds and 5 seconds respectively. Find the length of the train?
Correct
Solution: B
Let the speed of the train be ‘s’ m/s.
Let the length of the train be ‘x’ meters.
Relative speed of train and the first person who is moving at the speed of 5 m/s in opposite direction = (s+5) m/s.
Therefore, total distanced travelled (i.e length of train) ‘x’= Relative speed X time
- x = (s+5) * 6 —-( Eq 1)
Relative speed of train and the second person who is moving at the speed of 10 m/s in opposite direction = (s+10) m/s
Therefore, total distanced travelled (i.e length of train) ‘x’ = Relative speed X time
- x = (s+10) * 5 — (Eq 2)
Since length of the train is same in both the cases, if we equate the equation 1 and equation 2 we get
- (s+5) * 6 = (s+10) * 5
- 6s+30= 5s+50
- 6s – 5s = 50 – 30
- s = 20 m/s (i.e speed of the train)
Now, putting the value of speed of the train in equation 1 (we can put the value equation 2 as well) we get
- Length of the train ‘x’ = (20+5) * 6
- x = 25 * 6
- x= 150
Therefore, length of the train is 150 meters.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Let the speed of the train be ‘s’ m/s.
Let the length of the train be ‘x’ meters.
Relative speed of train and the first person who is moving at the speed of 5 m/s in opposite direction = (s+5) m/s.
Therefore, total distanced travelled (i.e length of train) ‘x’= Relative speed X time
- x = (s+5) * 6 —-( Eq 1)
Relative speed of train and the second person who is moving at the speed of 10 m/s in opposite direction = (s+10) m/s
Therefore, total distanced travelled (i.e length of train) ‘x’ = Relative speed X time
- x = (s+10) * 5 — (Eq 2)
Since length of the train is same in both the cases, if we equate the equation 1 and equation 2 we get
- (s+5) * 6 = (s+10) * 5
- 6s+30= 5s+50
- 6s – 5s = 50 – 30
- s = 20 m/s (i.e speed of the train)
Now, putting the value of speed of the train in equation 1 (we can put the value equation 2 as well) we get
- Length of the train ‘x’ = (20+5) * 6
- x = 25 * 6
- x= 150
Therefore, length of the train is 150 meters.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThere are four consecutive numbers in aseries. The product of the first three andthe last three numbers of the series are 504and 720respectively. What is the sum of first and the last numbers?
Correct
Solution: C
Let the consecutive numbers be x, x+1, x+2 and x+3.
It is given that product of the first three numbers= 504.
Therefore, x * (x+1) * (x+2) = 504—-(Eq 1)
Also, it is given that product of the last three numbers= 720
Therefore, (x+1) * (x+2) * (x+3) =720 ….(Eq 2)
Dividing Eq 1 by Eq 2, we get
[x * (x+1) * (x+2)]/[(x+1) * (x+2) * (x+3)] = 504/720
- x/(x+3) = 7/10
- 10x = 7x+21
- 3x = 21 or x = 7 and x+3= 10.
Thus, sum of first and last number = 10+7 =17.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Let the consecutive numbers be x, x+1, x+2 and x+3.
It is given that product of the first three numbers= 504.
Therefore, x * (x+1) * (x+2) = 504—-(Eq 1)
Also, it is given that product of the last three numbers= 720
Therefore, (x+1) * (x+2) * (x+3) =720 ….(Eq 2)
Dividing Eq 1 by Eq 2, we get
[x * (x+1) * (x+2)]/[(x+1) * (x+2) * (x+3)] = 504/720
- x/(x+3) = 7/10
- 10x = 7x+21
- 3x = 21 or x = 7 and x+3= 10.
Thus, sum of first and last number = 10+7 =17.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsThe debate in the media on higher education is often focussed on issues related to governance and autonomy — but these are not the only important issues. There needs to be a debate on the content of higher education in HEIs. Just after Independence, a commission comprising educationists from India, the U.K. and the U.S., and chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, was formed “to report on Indian University Education and suggest improvements and extensions that may be desirable to suit present and future requirements of the country”. Its report filed after its deliberations (December 1948-August 1949) came to be known as the Radhakrishnan Commission Report (RCR). Philosophical deliberations in the report that are related to the content of higher education are still relevant today.
The RCR recommended a well-balanced education with ‘general’, ‘liberal’ and ‘occupational’ components. Without all-round general (including liberal) education, one could not be expected to play roles expected of a citizen outside one’s immediate professional sphere. The report advocated that general education and specialised/professional education should proceed together. The study of languages should be given equal importance as one communicated to the outside world only through the medium of language. Therefore, a lack of communication skills could be a handicap. The RCR drew inspiration from the emphasis on general education in universities in the U.S. It cited a lecture by Einstein (1931) where he said: “The development of general ability for independent thinking and judgement should always be placed foremost, not the acquisition of special knowledge. If a person masters the fundamentals of his subject and has learned to think and work independently, he will surely find his way….”
Which of the following option most accurately captures the essence of the report?
Correct
Ans. C.
The answer becomes clear from the following line in the passage – “”Without all-round general (including liberal) education, one could not be expected to play roles expected of a citizen outside one’s immediate professional sphere.”
Incorrect
Ans. C.
The answer becomes clear from the following line in the passage – “”Without all-round general (including liberal) education, one could not be expected to play roles expected of a citizen outside one’s immediate professional sphere.”
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