INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsEmissions Gap report, sometime seen in the news, is released by which of the following organization?
Correct
Solution: B
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released ‘Emissions Gap Report’, according to which India is the fourth-largest emitter of Green House Gases (GHGs).
According to the report, unless global greenhouse gas emissions fall by 7.6 per cent each year, the world will fail to meet the 1.5°C temperature goal of the Paris Agreement.
The top four emitters (China, USA, EU and India) contribute to over 55 per cent of the total emissions over the last decade, excluding emissions from land-use change such as deforestation, the report states.
If land-use change emissions were included, the rankings would change, with Brazil likely to be the largest emitter.
Largest emitting sectors are Energy >Industry> Forestry> Transport> Agriculture.
Incorrect
Solution: B
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released ‘Emissions Gap Report’, according to which India is the fourth-largest emitter of Green House Gases (GHGs).
According to the report, unless global greenhouse gas emissions fall by 7.6 per cent each year, the world will fail to meet the 1.5°C temperature goal of the Paris Agreement.
The top four emitters (China, USA, EU and India) contribute to over 55 per cent of the total emissions over the last decade, excluding emissions from land-use change such as deforestation, the report states.
If land-use change emissions were included, the rankings would change, with Brazil likely to be the largest emitter.
Largest emitting sectors are Energy >Industry> Forestry> Transport> Agriculture.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF)
- The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established on the eve of Rio Climate summit, 1992.
- The SCCF is the adaptation fund open to vulnerable developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established in response to guidance from the Conference of the Parties (COP7) in Marrakech in 2001. The SCCF complements the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF). Unlike the LDCF, the SCCF is open to all vulnerable developing countries. In addition, it funds a wider range of activities related to climate change. To date the SCCF has a portfolio of more than $350 million supporting 85 projects globally.
Adaptation is the top priority. But the SCCF also funds, through separate financing windows, technology transfer, mitigation in selected sectors including: energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification.
Through the GEF, and with guidance from the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the SCCF targets key sectors for adaptation and technology transfer.
The SCCF is the adaptation fund open to all vulnerable developing countries.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established in response to guidance from the Conference of the Parties (COP7) in Marrakech in 2001. The SCCF complements the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF). Unlike the LDCF, the SCCF is open to all vulnerable developing countries. In addition, it funds a wider range of activities related to climate change. To date the SCCF has a portfolio of more than $350 million supporting 85 projects globally.
Adaptation is the top priority. But the SCCF also funds, through separate financing windows, technology transfer, mitigation in selected sectors including: energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification.
Through the GEF, and with guidance from the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the SCCF targets key sectors for adaptation and technology transfer.
The SCCF is the adaptation fund open to all vulnerable developing countries.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Underground coal gasification
- It is a process which converts coal into product gas.
- The process decomposes coal and generates carbon dioxide, hydrogen, carbon monoxide and methane.
- It causes more pollution compared to traditional coal mining
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Underground coal gasification converts coal to gas while still in the coal seam (in-situ). Gas is produced and extracted through wells drilled into the unmined coal seam. Injection wells are used to supply the oxidants (air, oxygen) and steam to ignite and fuel the underground combustion process. Separate production wells are used to bring the product gas to the surface.
The process decomposes coal and generates carbon dioxide, hydrogen, carbon monoxide and methane.
It causes less pollution compared to traditional coal mining
Incorrect
Solution: A
Underground coal gasification converts coal to gas while still in the coal seam (in-situ). Gas is produced and extracted through wells drilled into the unmined coal seam. Injection wells are used to supply the oxidants (air, oxygen) and steam to ignite and fuel the underground combustion process. Separate production wells are used to bring the product gas to the surface.
The process decomposes coal and generates carbon dioxide, hydrogen, carbon monoxide and methane.
It causes less pollution compared to traditional coal mining
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsMatters related to which of the following act can be adjudicated by the National Green Tribunal (NGT)?
- The Public Liability Insurance act, 1991
- Indian Forest Act, 1927
- Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
The National green tribunal (NGT) came into existence in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal act 2010. The NGT act provides for the establishment of the National green tribunal for the purpose of effective and quick disposal of various cases related to the protection and conservation of forests, environment and other natural resources including the enforcement of any legal right related to the environment.
The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
The jurisdiction of NGT extends over all the civil cases where there is a
substantial question of environment, and such questions arising out of the
implementation of enactments under schedule 1 of NGT act 2010. The schedule 1 of NGT includes the following acts.-
The Water (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1974.
2. The Water (prevention and control of pollution) Cess Act, 1977.
3. The Forest (conservation) Act, 1980.
4. The Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981.
5. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
6. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
7. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The National green tribunal (NGT) came into existence in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal act 2010. The NGT act provides for the establishment of the National green tribunal for the purpose of effective and quick disposal of various cases related to the protection and conservation of forests, environment and other natural resources including the enforcement of any legal right related to the environment.
The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
The jurisdiction of NGT extends over all the civil cases where there is a
substantial question of environment, and such questions arising out of the
implementation of enactments under schedule 1 of NGT act 2010. The schedule 1 of NGT includes the following acts.-
The Water (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1974.
2. The Water (prevention and control of pollution) Cess Act, 1977.
3. The Forest (conservation) Act, 1980.
4. The Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981.
5. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
6. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
7. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, consider the following statements.
- The Act makes provisions for the establishing of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) at the apex level and State Pollution Control Boards at the state level.
- It covers noise pollution.
- The act say that no person shall, without the previous consent of the State Board, establish or operate any industrial plant in an air pollution control area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 an Act of the Parliament of India to control and prevent air pollution in India. It was amended in 1987. The Act makes provisions for the establishing of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) at the apex level and State Pollution Control Boards at the state level. Hence, statement 1 is correct
According to this act, the “air pollutant” means any solid, liquid or gaseous substance (including noise) present in the atmosphere in such concentration as may be or tend to be injurious to human beings or other living creatures or plants or property or environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The further provisions of the act say that no person shall, without the previous consent of the State Board, establish or operate any industrial plant in an air pollution control area. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Every person to whom consent has been granted by the State Board, shall comply with the conditions and norms prescribed by the board such as prevention and control of the air pollution. Failure to do so brings penalty including jail term of at least 1.5 years.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 an Act of the Parliament of India to control and prevent air pollution in India. It was amended in 1987. The Act makes provisions for the establishing of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) at the apex level and State Pollution Control Boards at the state level. Hence, statement 1 is correct
According to this act, the “air pollutant” means any solid, liquid or gaseous substance (including noise) present in the atmosphere in such concentration as may be or tend to be injurious to human beings or other living creatures or plants or property or environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The further provisions of the act say that no person shall, without the previous consent of the State Board, establish or operate any industrial plant in an air pollution control area. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Every person to whom consent has been granted by the State Board, shall comply with the conditions and norms prescribed by the board such as prevention and control of the air pollution. Failure to do so brings penalty including jail term of at least 1.5 years.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Environment Pollution Control Authority (EPCA):
- It is Supreme Court mandated body tasked with taking various measures to tackle air pollution near Taj Mahal.
- It was notified under the Water (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1974.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Environment Pollution Control Authority (EPCA) is Supreme Court mandated body tasked with taking various measures to tackle air pollution in the National Capital Region (NCR). It was notified in 1998 by Environment Ministry under Environment Protection Act, 1986.
The EPCA is also mandated to enforce Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in the city as per the pollution levels.
The EPCA had enforced several measures, including closure of the Badarpur thermal power plant, ban on brick kilns, hot mix plants and stone crushers, and construction activities.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Environment Pollution Control Authority (EPCA) is Supreme Court mandated body tasked with taking various measures to tackle air pollution in the National Capital Region (NCR). It was notified in 1998 by Environment Ministry under Environment Protection Act, 1986.
The EPCA is also mandated to enforce Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in the city as per the pollution levels.
The EPCA had enforced several measures, including closure of the Badarpur thermal power plant, ban on brick kilns, hot mix plants and stone crushers, and construction activities.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Smog
- Photochemical smog (smog) is a term used to describe air pollution that is a result of the interaction of sunlight with certain chemicals in the atmosphere.
- One of the primary components of photochemical smog is ozone.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Smog
Smog has been coined from a combination of the words fog and smoke. Smog is a condition of fog that had soot or smoke in it.
The Formation of Smog
Photochemical smog (smog) is a term used to describe air pollution that is a result of the interaction of sunlight with certain chemicals in the atmosphere.
One of the primary components of photochemical smog is ozone. While ozone in the stratosphere protects earth from harmful UV radiation, ozone on the ground is hazardous to human health.
Ground-level ozone is formed when vehicle emissions containing nitrogen oxides (primarily from vehicle exhaust) and volatile organic compounds (from paints, solvents, printing inks, petroleum products, vehicles, etc.) interact in the presence of sunlight.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Smog
Smog has been coined from a combination of the words fog and smoke. Smog is a condition of fog that had soot or smoke in it.
The Formation of Smog
Photochemical smog (smog) is a term used to describe air pollution that is a result of the interaction of sunlight with certain chemicals in the atmosphere.
One of the primary components of photochemical smog is ozone. While ozone in the stratosphere protects earth from harmful UV radiation, ozone on the ground is hazardous to human health.
Ground-level ozone is formed when vehicle emissions containing nitrogen oxides (primarily from vehicle exhaust) and volatile organic compounds (from paints, solvents, printing inks, petroleum products, vehicles, etc.) interact in the presence of sunlight.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sulphur dioxide emissions
- The main SO2 hotspots in India include Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, Korba in Chhattisgarh, Talcher and Jharsuguda in Odisha.
- India has over 50 percent of all anthropogenic Sulphur dioxide (SO2) hotspots in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
India is the largest emitter of anthropogenic sulphur dioxide in the world.
Anthropogenic sulphur dioxide is produced from burning of coal and it is known to largely contribute to air pollution.
Key Findings:
SO2 hotspots across the world have been mapped.
The SO2 hotspots were detected by the OMI (Ozone Monitoring Instrument) satellite.
India has over 15 percent of all anthropogenic sulphur dioxide (SO2) hotspots in the world.
The main SO2 hotspots in India include Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, Korba in Chhattisgarh, Talcher and Jharsuguda in Odisha, Neyveli and Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Kutch in Gujarat, Ramagundam in Telangana and Chandrapur and Koradi in Maharashtra.
Norilsk smelter complex in Russia is the largest SO2 emission hotspot in the world.
Incorrect
Solution: A
India is the largest emitter of anthropogenic sulphur dioxide in the world.
Anthropogenic sulphur dioxide is produced from burning of coal and it is known to largely contribute to air pollution.
Key Findings:
SO2 hotspots across the world have been mapped.
The SO2 hotspots were detected by the OMI (Ozone Monitoring Instrument) satellite.
India has over 15 percent of all anthropogenic sulphur dioxide (SO2) hotspots in the world.
The main SO2 hotspots in India include Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, Korba in Chhattisgarh, Talcher and Jharsuguda in Odisha, Neyveli and Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Kutch in Gujarat, Ramagundam in Telangana and Chandrapur and Koradi in Maharashtra.
Norilsk smelter complex in Russia is the largest SO2 emission hotspot in the world.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Particulate pollutants
- Particulate pollutants are matter suspended in air such as dust and soot.
- Their size ranges from 0.001 to 500 micrometres (µm) in diameter.
- According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 10 µm or less in diameter (PM 10) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Particulate pollutants
- Particulate pollutants are matter suspended in air such as dust and soot.
- Major source of SPM (suspended particulate matter) are industries, vehicles, power plants, construction activities, oil refinery, railway yard, market place, industries, etc.
- Their size ranges from 001 to 500 micrometres (µm) in diameter.
- Particles less than 10 µm float and move freely with the air current.
- Particles which are more than 10 µm in diameter settle down.
- Particles less than 0.02 µm form persistent aerosols.
- According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 5 µm or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
- These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and pneumoconiosis (disease of the lungs caused due to inhalation of dust. It is characterized by inflammation, coughing, and fibrosis – excess deposition of fibrous tissue).
Incorrect
Solution: A
Particulate pollutants
- Particulate pollutants are matter suspended in air such as dust and soot.
- Major source of SPM (suspended particulate matter) are industries, vehicles, power plants, construction activities, oil refinery, railway yard, market place, industries, etc.
- Their size ranges from 001 to 500 micrometres (µm) in diameter.
- Particles less than 10 µm float and move freely with the air current.
- Particles which are more than 10 µm in diameter settle down.
- Particles less than 0.02 µm form persistent aerosols.
- According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 5 µm or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
- These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and pneumoconiosis (disease of the lungs caused due to inhalation of dust. It is characterized by inflammation, coughing, and fibrosis – excess deposition of fibrous tissue).
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsThe Sources for acid rain are
- Volcanic eruptions
- Petroleum products
- Biological processes such as Decomposition of organic matter.
- Burning of coal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The sources for acid rains are
Natural sources
- seas and oceans,
- volcanic eruptions,
- Biological processes in the soil e.g., Decomposition of organic matter.
- Forest fires
Man-made sources:
- burning of coal (60% of SO2) and
- petroleum products (30% of SO2), and
- The smelting of metal sulfide ores to obtain the pure metals.
- Industrial production of Sulfuric acid in metallurgical, chemical and fertilizer industries.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The sources for acid rains are
Natural sources
- seas and oceans,
- volcanic eruptions,
- Biological processes in the soil e.g., Decomposition of organic matter.
- Forest fires
Man-made sources:
- burning of coal (60% of SO2) and
- petroleum products (30% of SO2), and
- The smelting of metal sulfide ores to obtain the pure metals.
- Industrial production of Sulfuric acid in metallurgical, chemical and fertilizer industries.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Atal Bhujal Yojana:
- It is a central sector scheme to improve ground water management through community participation.
- It is supported by the New Development Bank (NDB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL) is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Jal Shakti to improve ground water management through community participation. The scheme has a total outlay of Rs.6000 crore and is to be implemented over a period of 5 years (2020-21 to 2024-25).
Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL) is an initiative for ensuring long term sustainability of ground water resources in the country. The Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti is adopting a mix of ‘top down’ and ‘bottom up’ approaches in identified ground water stressed blocks in seven states, representing a range of geomorphic, climatic and hydrogeologic and cultural settings.
The scheme aims to improve ground water management through community participation in identified priority areas in seven States, viz. Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
The Government of India and the World Bank has signed a $450 million loan agreement to support the national programme to arrest the country’s depleting groundwater levels and strengthen groundwater institutions.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/water/atal-bhujal-yojana
Source: Yojana, April 2021
Incorrect
Solution: A
Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL) is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Jal Shakti to improve ground water management through community participation. The scheme has a total outlay of Rs.6000 crore and is to be implemented over a period of 5 years (2020-21 to 2024-25).
Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL) is an initiative for ensuring long term sustainability of ground water resources in the country. The Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti is adopting a mix of ‘top down’ and ‘bottom up’ approaches in identified ground water stressed blocks in seven states, representing a range of geomorphic, climatic and hydrogeologic and cultural settings.
The scheme aims to improve ground water management through community participation in identified priority areas in seven States, viz. Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
The Government of India and the World Bank has signed a $450 million loan agreement to support the national programme to arrest the country’s depleting groundwater levels and strengthen groundwater institutions.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/water/atal-bhujal-yojana
Source: Yojana, April 2021
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of traditional water storage systems and the states they are associated with:
Traditional water storage system: States:
- Jal Mandir Tamil Nadu
- Kuhl Himachal Pradesh
- Zabo Nagaland
- Ooranis Gujarat
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Traditional Water Storage System:
Examples of Traditional water storage systems are Jal Mandir (Gujarat); Khatri, Kuhl (H.P.); Zabo (Nagaland); Eri, Ooranis (T.N.); Dongs (Assam); Katas, Bandhas (Odisha and M.P.) etc
Source: Yojana, April 2021
Incorrect
Solution: B
Traditional Water Storage System:
Examples of Traditional water storage systems are Jal Mandir (Gujarat); Khatri, Kuhl (H.P.); Zabo (Nagaland); Eri, Ooranis (T.N.); Dongs (Assam); Katas, Bandhas (Odisha and M.P.) etc
Source: Yojana, April 2021
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are considered as advantages of the Mulching?
- It helps in conserving soil moisture.
- It acts as temperature regulator in hot summers and cold winters.
- Growth of unwanted weeds can be controlled.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Any material, usually organic, that is spread on the ground to protect the soil and the roots of plants from the effects of soil crusting, erosion, or freezing is known as a Mulch. A mulch may be made of materials such as straw, sawdust, grass clippings, peat moss, leaves, or paper etc.
Advantages:
- Mulching helps soil fertility.
- Mulching helps in conserving soil moisture
- It also acts as temperature regulator in hot summers and cold winters.
- Live mulching technique is very good for nitrogen fixation.
- Organic waste generated from field can fruitfully be utilised to reap significant benefits.
- Mulching can save the farmer time and labour. A mulched garden will have very few weeds, especially if the mulch is applied before the weeds get a start. The mulch also keeps the soil loose, and thus reduces the need for cultivation.
Source: Yojana, April 2021
Incorrect
Solution: D
Any material, usually organic, that is spread on the ground to protect the soil and the roots of plants from the effects of soil crusting, erosion, or freezing is known as a Mulch. A mulch may be made of materials such as straw, sawdust, grass clippings, peat moss, leaves, or paper etc.
Advantages:
- Mulching helps soil fertility.
- Mulching helps in conserving soil moisture
- It also acts as temperature regulator in hot summers and cold winters.
- Live mulching technique is very good for nitrogen fixation.
- Organic waste generated from field can fruitfully be utilised to reap significant benefits.
- Mulching can save the farmer time and labour. A mulched garden will have very few weeds, especially if the mulch is applied before the weeds get a start. The mulch also keeps the soil loose, and thus reduces the need for cultivation.
Source: Yojana, April 2021
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of ground water contaminants and diseases associated
Contaminants: Diseases:
- Nitrates Minamata Disease
- Arsenic Blue baby syndrome
- Mercury Black Foot Disease
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
Blue Baby Syndrome (Methemoglobinemia) – Happens most commonly due to nitrate poisoning.
In some parts of the world exposure to arsenic via drinking-water has been shown to cause a severe disease of the blood vessels, which leads to gangrene, known as ‘black foot disease’.
Minamata disease, sometimes referred to as Chisso-Minamata disease, is a neurological disease caused by severe mercury poisoning.
Source: Yojana, April 2021
Incorrect
Solution: D
Blue Baby Syndrome (Methemoglobinemia) – Happens most commonly due to nitrate poisoning.
In some parts of the world exposure to arsenic via drinking-water has been shown to cause a severe disease of the blood vessels, which leads to gangrene, known as ‘black foot disease’.
Minamata disease, sometimes referred to as Chisso-Minamata disease, is a neurological disease caused by severe mercury poisoning.
Source: Yojana, April 2021
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following states have showed the increase in the Forest areas as per the India State of Forest Report, 2019?
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Karnataka
- Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
The Indian State of Forest Report 2019 presents a gloomy picture for the Northeast as six states out of eight excluding Assam and Tripura witnessed total decrease of around 765 sq km of forest cover.
Source: Yojana, April 2021
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Indian State of Forest Report 2019 presents a gloomy picture for the Northeast as six states out of eight excluding Assam and Tripura witnessed total decrease of around 765 sq km of forest cover.
Source: Yojana, April 2021
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Jal Shakti Abhiyaan:
- The campaign will cover the rural areas only.
- Intense Afforestation is one of the focus activities of the campaign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Source: Yojana, April 2021
Incorrect
Solution: B
Source: Yojana, April 2021
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries is/are the members of G7 organization?
- India
- Russia
- Canada
- France
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
The Group of Seven is an intergovernmental organization consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States. The heads of government of the member states, as well as the representatives of the European Union, meet at the annual G7 Summit.
Source: Yojana, April 2021
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Group of Seven is an intergovernmental organization consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States. The heads of government of the member states, as well as the representatives of the European Union, meet at the annual G7 Summit.
Source: Yojana, April 2021
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Rashtriya Jal Jeevan Kosh:
- It has been set up to achieve the objective of providing Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural household of the country by the year 2024.
- Donations to the fund are eligible for 100% deduction under section 80G of the Income Tax Act, 1961
- The foreign contribution towards the fund are exempted from the operation of FCRA, 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Rashtriya Jal Jeevan Kosh (RJJK) has been set up by the Union Government to mobilize contribution/ donation from individuals/ institutions/ corporates/ foreign donors/ philanthropists, etc. for Jal Jeevan Mission to achieve the objective of providing Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural household of the country by the year 2024.
The audit of RJJK account will be carried out annually by an independent auditor from a panel of auditors empanelled with Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Objectives of the Kosh:
- To enable individuals/ organisations to donate/ contribute in making provision of clean drinking water in village of their choice.
- To join the on-going efforts under Jal Jeevan Mission to provide tap water in rural homes, schools, anganwadi centres, tribal residential schools, health-cum-wellness centres, etc.
- To promote R&D, innovation, use of technology in ensuring tap water in rural households.
Donations to the “Rashtriya Jal Jeevan Kosh”, are eligible for 50% deduction under section 80G of the Income Tax Act, 1961. This is applicable for the assessment year 2021-22 and subsequent years.
The foreign contribution towards the Kosh are also exempted from the operation of FCRA, 2010 as the Trust fulfils the necessary criteria provided by MHA’s Notification.
https://jaljeevankosh.gov.in/#about
Source: Yojana, April 2021
Incorrect
Solution: C
Rashtriya Jal Jeevan Kosh (RJJK) has been set up by the Union Government to mobilize contribution/ donation from individuals/ institutions/ corporates/ foreign donors/ philanthropists, etc. for Jal Jeevan Mission to achieve the objective of providing Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural household of the country by the year 2024.
The audit of RJJK account will be carried out annually by an independent auditor from a panel of auditors empanelled with Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Objectives of the Kosh:
- To enable individuals/ organisations to donate/ contribute in making provision of clean drinking water in village of their choice.
- To join the on-going efforts under Jal Jeevan Mission to provide tap water in rural homes, schools, anganwadi centres, tribal residential schools, health-cum-wellness centres, etc.
- To promote R&D, innovation, use of technology in ensuring tap water in rural households.
Donations to the “Rashtriya Jal Jeevan Kosh”, are eligible for 50% deduction under section 80G of the Income Tax Act, 1961. This is applicable for the assessment year 2021-22 and subsequent years.
The foreign contribution towards the Kosh are also exempted from the operation of FCRA, 2010 as the Trust fulfils the necessary criteria provided by MHA’s Notification.
https://jaljeevankosh.gov.in/#about
Source: Yojana, April 2021
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Village Water & sanitation committee:
- It is a sub-committee of Gram Panchayat
- It consists at least 50% women as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Source: Yojana, April 2021
Incorrect
Solution: C
Source: Yojana, April 2021
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organization/institution publishes the ‘Living Planet Report’?
Correct
Solution: C
The Living Planet Report, WWF’s flagship publication released every two years, is a comprehensive study of trends in global biodiversity and the health of the planet.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Living Planet Report, WWF’s flagship publication released every two years, is a comprehensive study of trends in global biodiversity and the health of the planet.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Trade unions/ labour unions during freedom struggle consider the following pairs
Trade unions/ labour unions : Founder
- Bombay Mill hands’ Association : N.M. Lokhande
- Madras Labour Union : Bahman Pestonji Wadia
- Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association: Puran Chand Joshi
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
Trade unions/ labour unions during freedom struggle:
Bombay Mill hands’ Association:
The credit for the first association of Indian workers is generally given to the Bombay Mill-Hands Association founded by N.M. Lokhande in 1890. This was in the period just after the passing of the ‘First’ Factories Act in 1881 by the British Government of the time.
Madras Labour Union:
Bahman Pestonji Wadia or Bomanji Pestonji Wadia (BP Wadia, B.P. Wadia or BPW) was an Indian theosophist and labour activist. He was first a member of the TS Adyar, later of the United Lodge of Theosophists. On 13 April 1918, along with V. Kalyanasundaram Mudaliar, Wadia founded the Madras Labour Union, one of India’s first organised labour unions.
Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association:
Anasuya or Anusyabehn Sarabhai was a pioneer of the women’s labour movement in India. She founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association (Majoor Mahajan Sangh), India’s oldest union of textile workers, in 1920.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Trade unions/ labour unions during freedom struggle:
Bombay Mill hands’ Association:
The credit for the first association of Indian workers is generally given to the Bombay Mill-Hands Association founded by N.M. Lokhande in 1890. This was in the period just after the passing of the ‘First’ Factories Act in 1881 by the British Government of the time.
Madras Labour Union:
Bahman Pestonji Wadia or Bomanji Pestonji Wadia (BP Wadia, B.P. Wadia or BPW) was an Indian theosophist and labour activist. He was first a member of the TS Adyar, later of the United Lodge of Theosophists. On 13 April 1918, along with V. Kalyanasundaram Mudaliar, Wadia founded the Madras Labour Union, one of India’s first organised labour unions.
Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association:
Anasuya or Anusyabehn Sarabhai was a pioneer of the women’s labour movement in India. She founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association (Majoor Mahajan Sangh), India’s oldest union of textile workers, in 1920.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile system (QRSAM), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is fuelled by both solid and liquid propellant.
- It has been developed to replace the ‘Akash’ missile defence system
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: B
Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air missiles (QRSAM):
- DRDO has successfully test-fired indigenously developed Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air missiles (QRSAM) from a test range off the Odisha coast
- It has been developed to replace the ‘Akash’ missile defence system, and has 360-degree coverage.
- It uses solid fuel propellant and has a strike range of 25-30 km with capability of hitting multiple targets.
- It is capable of hitting the low flying objects.
- It has been designed for induction into the Army and has a range of 25 to 30 km.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air missiles (QRSAM):
- DRDO has successfully test-fired indigenously developed Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air missiles (QRSAM) from a test range off the Odisha coast
- It has been developed to replace the ‘Akash’ missile defence system, and has 360-degree coverage.
- It uses solid fuel propellant and has a strike range of 25-30 km with capability of hitting multiple targets.
- It is capable of hitting the low flying objects.
- It has been designed for induction into the Army and has a range of 25 to 30 km.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the followings
-
- Nathu La Pass
- Jelep La Pass
- Kumjawng Pass
Which of the above mountain pass is/are located in the state of Sikkim?
Correct
Solution: C
Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in East Sikkim district. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.
Jelep La or Jelep Pass, elevation 4,267 m or 13,999 ft, is a high mountain pass between East Sikkim District, Sikkim, India and Tibet Autonomous Region, China. It is on a route that connects Lhasa to India.
Kumjawng Pass is located in Arunachal Pradesh
Incorrect
Solution: C
Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in East Sikkim district. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.
Jelep La or Jelep Pass, elevation 4,267 m or 13,999 ft, is a high mountain pass between East Sikkim District, Sikkim, India and Tibet Autonomous Region, China. It is on a route that connects Lhasa to India.
Kumjawng Pass is located in Arunachal Pradesh
-
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Crew-1 mission, consider the following statements
- The mission is part of European Space Agency’s first commercial human spacecraft system with a crew of four astronauts to the International Space Station (ISS)
- Until now only the USA, Russia and China have managed to send manned missions to outer space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Crew-1 mission:
- The mission is part of NASA’s Commercial Crew Program, whose objective is to make access to space easier in terms of its cost, so that cargo and crew can be easily transported to and from the ISS, enabling greater scientific research.
- Significantly, Crew-1 will be the first operational flight of the SpaceX Crew Dragon spacecraft on a Falcon 9 rocket to the ISS and is the first of the three scheduled flights scheduled over the course of 2020-2021.
What will members of Crew-1 do at the ISS?
- The Crew-1 team will conduct microgravity studies.
- Some of the research that the crew is carrying with themselves includes materials to investigate food physiology, which will study the effects of dietary improvements on immune function and the gut microbiome and how those improvements can help crews adapt to spaceflight.
- Once in orbit, astronauts will collect samples to provide data to scientists back on Earth so that they can continue to study how dietary changes affect his body.
- Another experiment aboard is a student-designed experiment titled, “Genes in Space-7” that aims to understand how spaceflight affects brain function.
To date, Russia, the United States, and China are the only countries with public or commercial human spaceflight-capable programs.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Crew-1 mission:
- The mission is part of NASA’s Commercial Crew Program, whose objective is to make access to space easier in terms of its cost, so that cargo and crew can be easily transported to and from the ISS, enabling greater scientific research.
- Significantly, Crew-1 will be the first operational flight of the SpaceX Crew Dragon spacecraft on a Falcon 9 rocket to the ISS and is the first of the three scheduled flights scheduled over the course of 2020-2021.
What will members of Crew-1 do at the ISS?
- The Crew-1 team will conduct microgravity studies.
- Some of the research that the crew is carrying with themselves includes materials to investigate food physiology, which will study the effects of dietary improvements on immune function and the gut microbiome and how those improvements can help crews adapt to spaceflight.
- Once in orbit, astronauts will collect samples to provide data to scientists back on Earth so that they can continue to study how dietary changes affect his body.
- Another experiment aboard is a student-designed experiment titled, “Genes in Space-7” that aims to understand how spaceflight affects brain function.
To date, Russia, the United States, and China are the only countries with public or commercial human spaceflight-capable programs.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWater Risk Filter Report has been released by
Correct
Solution: D
Water Risk Filter Report:
This is an online tool, co-developed by the Worldwide Fund for Nature that helps evaluate the severity of risk places faced by graphically illustrating various factors that can contribute to water risk. It reported 30 Indian cities that would face a ‘grave water risk’ by 2050 due to a dramatic increase in their population percentage to 51 per cent by 2050, from 17 per cent in 2020.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Water Risk Filter Report:
This is an online tool, co-developed by the Worldwide Fund for Nature that helps evaluate the severity of risk places faced by graphically illustrating various factors that can contribute to water risk. It reported 30 Indian cities that would face a ‘grave water risk’ by 2050 due to a dramatic increase in their population percentage to 51 per cent by 2050, from 17 per cent in 2020.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsOn giving a discount of 25% on the Maximum retail price (MRP) of an article, the trader earns a profit of 20%. If the difference between the MRP and Cost Price (CP) of the article is Rs 180. What is the MRP of the article? (in Rs)
Correct
Solution: B
Let selling price be SP.
SP = 120 % of CP
SP= CP * 6/5—(1)
By giving discount of 25 % on MRP,
Selling Price (SP) = 75% of MRP = MRP * ¾ — (2)
By equating (1) and (2), we get
¾ * MRP = (6/5) * CP
Or CP = (¾) * (5/6) * MRP
Or CP = (5/8) * MRP — (3)
Now, it is given that MRP – CP =Rs 180
Using equation (3),
MRP – (5/8) * MRP =180
Or 8 MRP – 5 MRP = 1440
Or 3 MRP = 1440
Or MRP = 1440/3 = 480
Incorrect
Solution: B
Let selling price be SP.
SP = 120 % of CP
SP= CP * 6/5—(1)
By giving discount of 25 % on MRP,
Selling Price (SP) = 75% of MRP = MRP * ¾ — (2)
By equating (1) and (2), we get
¾ * MRP = (6/5) * CP
Or CP = (¾) * (5/6) * MRP
Or CP = (5/8) * MRP — (3)
Now, it is given that MRP – CP =Rs 180
Using equation (3),
MRP – (5/8) * MRP =180
Or 8 MRP – 5 MRP = 1440
Or 3 MRP = 1440
Or MRP = 1440/3 = 480
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of visiters per day in a month of 30 days begining with a Sunday is?
Correct
Solution: C
Since the month begins with a Sunday, so there will be five Sundays in the month
Therefore Required average = ( 510 x 5 +240 x 25)/30
= 8550/30 = 285
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Since the month begins with a Sunday, so there will be five Sundays in the month
Therefore Required average = ( 510 x 5 +240 x 25)/30
= 8550/30 = 285
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsThe average age of 25 students in a group is 18 years. When the teacher’s age is included to it, the average increases by two years. What is the teacher’s age in years?
Correct
Solution: C
Total age of 25 students = 25 * 18 = 450
When the teacher’s age is included to it, the average increases by two years, therefore total age of group including teacher = 26 * 20= 520
Thus, teacher’s age = 520 -450 = 70 years
Incorrect
Solution: C
Total age of 25 students = 25 * 18 = 450
When the teacher’s age is included to it, the average increases by two years, therefore total age of group including teacher = 26 * 20= 520
Thus, teacher’s age = 520 -450 = 70 years
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe average of five consecutive even numbers is 36. What is the sum of the highest and lowest numbers?
Correct
Solution: B
Let the numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6 and x + 8.
Then [x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8) ] / 5 = 36
or 5x + 20 = 180
or x = 32.
Therefore, lowest number is 32 and highest number is 40.
Thus, sum = 40 + 32 = 72
Incorrect
Solution: B
Let the numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6 and x + 8.
Then [x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8) ] / 5 = 36
or 5x + 20 = 180
or x = 32.
Therefore, lowest number is 32 and highest number is 40.
Thus, sum = 40 + 32 = 72
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsChildren’s use of social media and the internet is a problem. That doesn’t mean it should be stopped. The internet is at least as interesting and fun for children as it is for adults, and social media is a fact of life. While younger children should not be on platforms where 13 is the minimum age, it is neither practical nor desirable to imagine a world in which teenagers are prevented from accessing the platforms and messaging systems that the adults around them use to organise their lives.But the pleasure and stimulation that people of all ages find on their screens and smartphones must not blind us to the harm that spending time in this way can cause. The finding that the alarmingly high rate of depression in British teenage girls is closely correlated to time spent on social media is extremely concerning. Children’s charities and clinicians have long highlighted cyberbullying and issues around self-esteem, often linked to anxieties around attractiveness and sexuality. While there is nothing new about teenagers being unkind to each other, there is a world of difference between whispered rumours and Photoshopped images. Feeling excluded or unpopular has always been painful, but it didn’t use to be possible for children to torment themselves – or others – with feeds featuring pictures of their peers having a wonderful time.
Which of the following is the most logical and accurate corollary that can be drawn from the above passage?
Correct
Ans. D.
The passage focusses on outlining the reasons why children’s use of social media is problematic. The passage states that stopping this is impractical and thus the natural corollary is to regulate and monitor this use. Hence D.
Incorrect
Ans. D.
The passage focusses on outlining the reasons why children’s use of social media is problematic. The passage states that stopping this is impractical and thus the natural corollary is to regulate and monitor this use. Hence D.
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates
Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Motivational and New analysis videos