INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organisms do breed only once in lifetime?
- Killer Whale
- Bamboo
- Pacific Salmon fish
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Breeding is sexual reproduction that produces offspring, usually animals or plants. It can only occur between a male and a female animal or plant. Breeding may refer to: Breeding in the wild, the natural process of reproduction in the animal kingdom.
Under a particular set of selection pressures, organisms evolve towards the most efficient reproductive strategy. Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime (Pacific salmon fish, bamboo) while others breed many times during their lifetime (most birds and mammals). Some produce a large number of small-sized offspring (Oysters, pelagic fishes) while others produce a small number of large-sized offspring (birds, mammals).
Unlike the bigger, more abundant savannah elephants – which start breeding from the age of 12 – female forest elephants begin breeding only at 23. They then only give birth only once every five to six years.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Breeding is sexual reproduction that produces offspring, usually animals or plants. It can only occur between a male and a female animal or plant. Breeding may refer to: Breeding in the wild, the natural process of reproduction in the animal kingdom.
Under a particular set of selection pressures, organisms evolve towards the most efficient reproductive strategy. Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime (Pacific salmon fish, bamboo) while others breed many times during their lifetime (most birds and mammals). Some produce a large number of small-sized offspring (Oysters, pelagic fishes) while others produce a small number of large-sized offspring (birds, mammals).
Unlike the bigger, more abundant savannah elephants – which start breeding from the age of 12 – female forest elephants begin breeding only at 23. They then only give birth only once every five to six years.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species.
- Hydrarch succession takes place in dryer areas.
- Xerarch succession takes place in wetter areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Ecological Succession is the gradual process by which ecosystems change and develop over time
Based on the nature of the habitat – whether it is water (or very wet areas)
or it is on very dry areas – succession of plants is called hydrach or xerarch,
respectively.Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerach successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A keystone species is a species that has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance. Without keystone species, the ecosystem would be dramatically different or cease to exist altogether. Some keystone species, such as the wolf, tiger, lion etc, are also apex predators.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Ecological Succession is the gradual process by which ecosystems change and develop over time
Based on the nature of the habitat – whether it is water (or very wet areas)
or it is on very dry areas – succession of plants is called hydrach or xerarch,
respectively.Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerach successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A keystone species is a species that has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance. Without keystone species, the ecosystem would be dramatically different or cease to exist altogether. Some keystone species, such as the wolf, tiger, lion etc, are also apex predators.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following species:
- Spider Monkey
- Lion tailed macaque
- Sarus Crane
Which of the species given above is/are not endemic to India?
Correct
Solution: C
Spider monkeys are New World monkeys belonging to the genus Ateles, part of the subfamily Atelinae, family Atelidae. Like other atelines, they are found in tropical forests of Central and South America, from southern Mexico to Brazil.
The sarus crane (Antigone antigone) is a large nonmigratory crane found in parts of the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and Australia. The tallest of the flying birds, standing at a height up to 1.8 m (5 ft 11 in), they are a conspicuous species of open wetlands in South Asia, seasonally flooded Dipterocarpus forests in Southeast Asia, and Eucalyptus-dominated woodlands and grasslands in Australia.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Spider monkeys are New World monkeys belonging to the genus Ateles, part of the subfamily Atelinae, family Atelidae. Like other atelines, they are found in tropical forests of Central and South America, from southern Mexico to Brazil.
The sarus crane (Antigone antigone) is a large nonmigratory crane found in parts of the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and Australia. The tallest of the flying birds, standing at a height up to 1.8 m (5 ft 11 in), they are a conspicuous species of open wetlands in South Asia, seasonally flooded Dipterocarpus forests in Southeast Asia, and Eucalyptus-dominated woodlands and grasslands in Australia.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- High concentrations of DDT result in the increase of thickness of eggshell.
- Eutrophication results in depletion of dissolved oxygen in water.
- Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels. This happens because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is well-known for mercury and DDT. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of eggshell and their premature breaking, eventual
ly causing decline in bird populations. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by biological enrichment of its water.
The prime contaminants are nitrates and phosphates, which act as plant nutrients. They over stimulate the growth of algae, causing unsightly scum and unpleasant odors, and robbing the water of dissolved oxygen vital to other aquatic life. At the same time, other pollutants flowing into a lake may poison whole populations of fish, whose decomposing remains further deplete the water’s dissolved oxygen content. In such fashion, a lake can literally choke to death. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels. This happens because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is well-known for mercury and DDT. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of eggshell and their premature breaking, eventual
ly causing decline in bird populations. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by biological enrichment of its water.
The prime contaminants are nitrates and phosphates, which act as plant nutrients. They over stimulate the growth of algae, causing unsightly scum and unpleasant odors, and robbing the water of dissolved oxygen vital to other aquatic life. At the same time, other pollutants flowing into a lake may poison whole populations of fish, whose decomposing remains further deplete the water’s dissolved oxygen content. In such fashion, a lake can literally choke to death. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ecological Niche
- It is the role and position a species has in its environment.
2. Each species have a unique niche.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Ecological Niche, in ecology, all of the interactions of a species with the other members of its community, including competition, predation,
parasitism, and mutualism.A variety of abiotic factors, such as soil type and climate, also define a
species’ niche. Each of the various species that constitute a community
occupies its own ecological niche. Each species have a distinct niche. Informally, a niche is considered the “job” or “role” that a species performs within nature.Incorrect
Solution: C
Ecological Niche, in ecology, all of the interactions of a species with the other members of its community, including competition, predation,
parasitism, and mutualism.A variety of abiotic factors, such as soil type and climate, also define a
species’ niche. Each of the various species that constitute a community
occupies its own ecological niche. Each species have a distinct niche. Informally, a niche is considered the “job” or “role” that a species performs within nature. - It is the role and position a species has in its environment.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following ecosystem can be considered as example for Ecotone?
- Marshes
2. Mangroves
3. Estuaries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
An Ecotone describes an area that acts as a transition or boundary between two ecosystems. This could be, for example, an area of marshland between a river and the riverbank, a clearing within a forest or a much larger area such as the transition between Arctic Tundra and Forest biomes in Northern Siberia.
As this area is inevitably influenced by the two bordering ecosystems, it is
therefore a consequence of this that a higher density of organisms and variety of species can be found within an Ecotone. This increase in biodiversity is referred to as the “edge effect”.
An Ecotone can be formed naturally – through abiotic factors such as changes in soil composition – but can also be created through the result of human interaction. Clearing of forest areas or irrigation are examples of this. Examples of Ecotone ecosystem are Mangroves, Estuaries and Marshes etc.Incorrect
Solution: C
An Ecotone describes an area that acts as a transition or boundary between two ecosystems. This could be, for example, an area of marshland between a river and the riverbank, a clearing within a forest or a much larger area such as the transition between Arctic Tundra and Forest biomes in Northern Siberia.
As this area is inevitably influenced by the two bordering ecosystems, it is
therefore a consequence of this that a higher density of organisms and variety of species can be found within an Ecotone. This increase in biodiversity is referred to as the “edge effect”.
An Ecotone can be formed naturally – through abiotic factors such as changes in soil composition – but can also be created through the result of human interaction. Clearing of forest areas or irrigation are examples of this. Examples of Ecotone ecosystem are Mangroves, Estuaries and Marshes etc. - Marshes
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Keystone species
- They have a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance.
- Sea Star is considered as one of the examples for keystone species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
A keystone species—which can be any organism, from animals and plants to bacteria and fungi—is the glue that holds a habitat together. It may not be the largest or most plentiful species in an ecological community, but if a keystone is removed, it sets off a chain of events that turns the structure and biodiversity of its habitat into something very different. Although all of an ecosystem’s many components are intricately linked, these are the living things that play a pivotal role in how their ecosystem functions.What Effect Do Keystones Have on an Ecosystem?
Keystone species maintain the local biodiversity of an ecosystem, influencing the abundance and type of other species in a habitat. They are nearly always a critical component of the local food web. One of the defining characteristics of a keystone species is that it fills a critical ecological role that no other species can. Without its keystone species, an entire ecosystem would radically change—or cease to exist altogether. It’s important to note that a species’ role can change from one ecosystem to the next, and a species that is considered a keystone in one environment may not be considered the same in another.
The sea star, Pisaster ochraceus, is a keystone predator found in the tidal pools of northwestern North America and was the species that launched Robert Paine’s keystone species concept. When comparing two stretches of shoreline—one from which he physically removed the sea stars and hurled them out to sea—Paine observed the huge influence on biodiversity that the starfish had on the landscape where they remained, despite being relatively uncommon. On tidal outcrops lacking the predatory sea star, mussels soon crowded out many of the 15 original species, including algae, limpets, anemones, and sponges. Within a single year, the biodiversity of Paine’s starfish-free ecosystem was nearly halved.
Incorrect
Solution: C
A keystone species—which can be any organism, from animals and plants to bacteria and fungi—is the glue that holds a habitat together. It may not be the largest or most plentiful species in an ecological community, but if a keystone is removed, it sets off a chain of events that turns the structure and biodiversity of its habitat into something very different. Although all of an ecosystem’s many components are intricately linked, these are the living things that play a pivotal role in how their ecosystem functions.What Effect Do Keystones Have on an Ecosystem?
Keystone species maintain the local biodiversity of an ecosystem, influencing the abundance and type of other species in a habitat. They are nearly always a critical component of the local food web. One of the defining characteristics of a keystone species is that it fills a critical ecological role that no other species can. Without its keystone species, an entire ecosystem would radically change—or cease to exist altogether. It’s important to note that a species’ role can change from one ecosystem to the next, and a species that is considered a keystone in one environment may not be considered the same in another.
The sea star, Pisaster ochraceus, is a keystone predator found in the tidal pools of northwestern North America and was the species that launched Robert Paine’s keystone species concept. When comparing two stretches of shoreline—one from which he physically removed the sea stars and hurled them out to sea—Paine observed the huge influence on biodiversity that the starfish had on the landscape where they remained, despite being relatively uncommon. On tidal outcrops lacking the predatory sea star, mussels soon crowded out many of the 15 original species, including algae, limpets, anemones, and sponges. Within a single year, the biodiversity of Paine’s starfish-free ecosystem was nearly halved.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
- Azospirillum
- Clostridium
- Rhizobium
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: B
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, microorganisms capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into fixed nitrogen (inorganic compounds usable by plants). More than 90 percent of all nitrogen fixation is effected by these organisms, which thus play an important role in the nitrogen cycle.
Two kinds of nitrogen-fixing bacteria are recognized: free-living (non-symbiotic) bacteria, including the cyanobacteria (or blue-green algae) Anabaena and Nostoc and genera such as Azotobacter, Beijerinckia, and Clostridium; and mutualistic (symbiotic) bacteria such as Rhizobium, associated with leguminous plants (e.g., various members of the pea family), and certain Azospirillum species, associated with cereal grasses.
Rhizobium organisms in the soil recognize and invade the root hairs of their specific plant host, enter the plant tissues in return for secretions (food) from their host that encourage their growth and multiplication.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, microorganisms capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into fixed nitrogen (inorganic compounds usable by plants). More than 90 percent of all nitrogen fixation is effected by these organisms, which thus play an important role in the nitrogen cycle.
Two kinds of nitrogen-fixing bacteria are recognized: free-living (non-symbiotic) bacteria, including the cyanobacteria (or blue-green algae) Anabaena and Nostoc and genera such as Azotobacter, Beijerinckia, and Clostridium; and mutualistic (symbiotic) bacteria such as Rhizobium, associated with leguminous plants (e.g., various members of the pea family), and certain Azospirillum species, associated with cereal grasses.
Rhizobium organisms in the soil recognize and invade the root hairs of their specific plant host, enter the plant tissues in return for secretions (food) from their host that encourage their growth and multiplication.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Energy flow in ecosystem, consider the following statements:
- The energy is always flow from higher to lower tropic level.
- Detritus food chain goes from dead organic matter into microorganisms and then to organisms feeding on detritus and their predators.
- The amount of energy passed increases at successive tropic levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Energy is basic force responsible for all metabolic activities. The flow of energy from producers to top consumers called is energy flow.
Energy flows through the tropic levels from producers to subsequent tropic levels. This energy is always flow from lower (producers) to higher tropic (consumer) level. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. It never flows in the reverse direction that is from carnivores to herbivores to producers.
Detritus food chain goes from dead organic matter into microorganisms and then to organisms feeding on detritus and their predators. Such ecosystems are thus less dependent on direct solar energy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The energy is passed through the system in food chains and webs. The flow of energy is unidirectional. The important point is note that the amount of energy decreases at successive tropic levels. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Energy is basic force responsible for all metabolic activities. The flow of energy from producers to top consumers called is energy flow.
Energy flows through the tropic levels from producers to subsequent tropic levels. This energy is always flow from lower (producers) to higher tropic (consumer) level. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. It never flows in the reverse direction that is from carnivores to herbivores to producers.
Detritus food chain goes from dead organic matter into microorganisms and then to organisms feeding on detritus and their predators. Such ecosystems are thus less dependent on direct solar energy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The energy is passed through the system in food chains and webs. The flow of energy is unidirectional. The important point is note that the amount of energy decreases at successive tropic levels. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is an example for in-situ method of conservation of flora and fauna?
Correct
Solution: A
In-situ Conservation:
In-situ conservation is on site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal species, such as forest genetic resources in natural populations of tree species.
It is the process of protecting an endangered plant or animal species in its natural habitat, either by protecting or cleaning up the habitat itself, or by defending the species from predators.
It is applied to conservation of agricultural biodiversity in agro forestry by farmers, especially those using unconventional farming practices. In-situ conservation is being done by declaring area as protected area.
Incorrect
Solution: A
In-situ Conservation:
In-situ conservation is on site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal species, such as forest genetic resources in natural populations of tree species.
It is the process of protecting an endangered plant or animal species in its natural habitat, either by protecting or cleaning up the habitat itself, or by defending the species from predators.
It is applied to conservation of agricultural biodiversity in agro forestry by farmers, especially those using unconventional farming practices. In-situ conservation is being done by declaring area as protected area.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following criteria was/were recommended by the Fifteenth (15th) Finance Commission for horizontal distribution of taxes among the states?
- Income Distance
- Population
- Forest and Ecology
- Literacy levels
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Source: Yojana, March 2021
Incorrect
Solution: B
Source: Yojana, March 2021
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Modernisation Fund for Defence and Internal Security (MFDIS) recommended by the Fifteenth (15th) Finance Commission:
- It is a dedicated non-lapsable fund.
- It has been recommended to constitute under the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266(1))
- The unutilised amount from the normal budgetary allocations to the Ministry of Defence (MoD) and the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) for capital expenditure shall be part of the Fund
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The 15th Finance Commission has recommended constitution of a dedicated non-lapsable Modernisation Fund for Defence and Internal Security (MFDIS) to bridge the gap between projected budgetary requirements and allocation for defence and internal security.
However, the unutilised amount from the normal budgetary allocations to the Ministry of Defence (MoD) and the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) for capital expenditure shall not be part of the Fund.
As per the Commission, the proceeds will be utilised for capital investment for modernisation of defence services, capital investment for the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and modernisation of State police forces as projected by the MHA and a small component as welfare fund for soldiers and para-military personnel.
It has been recommended to place in the Public Account of India.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The 15th Finance Commission has recommended constitution of a dedicated non-lapsable Modernisation Fund for Defence and Internal Security (MFDIS) to bridge the gap between projected budgetary requirements and allocation for defence and internal security.
However, the unutilised amount from the normal budgetary allocations to the Ministry of Defence (MoD) and the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) for capital expenditure shall not be part of the Fund.
As per the Commission, the proceeds will be utilised for capital investment for modernisation of defence services, capital investment for the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and modernisation of State police forces as projected by the MHA and a small component as welfare fund for soldiers and para-military personnel.
It has been recommended to place in the Public Account of India.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are considered as the differences between anti-dumping duty and normal custom duty?
- The object of anti-dumping duties is to guard against the situation arising out of unfair trade practices while customs duties are there as a means of raising revenue and for overall development of the economy.
- Anti-dumping duties are levied against exporter / country inasmuch as they are country specific and exporter specific as against the customs duties which are general and universally applicable to all imports irrespective of the country of origin and the exporter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Dumping is said to occur when the goods are exported by a country to another country at a price lower than its normal value. This is an unfair trade practice which can have a distortive effect on international trade. Anti dumping is a measure to rectify the situation arising out of the dumping of goods and its trade distortive effect. Thus, the purpose of anti dumping duty is to rectify the trade distortive effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade.
The use of anti dumping measure as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the WTO. In fact, anti dumping is an instrument for ensuring fair trade and is not a measure of protection per se for the domestic industry. It provides relief to the domestic industry against the injury caused by dumping.
Although anti dumping duty is levied and collected by the Customs Authorities, it is entirely different from the Customs duties not only in concept and substance, but also in purpose and operation.
The following are the main differences between the two: –
Conceptually, anti dumping and the like measures in their essence are linked to the notion of fair trade. The object of these duties is to guard against the situation arising out of unfair trade practices while customs duties are there as a means of raising revenue and for overall development of the economy.
Customs duties fall in the realm of trade and fiscal policies of the Government while anti dumping and anti subsidy measures are there as trade remedial measures.
The object of anti dumping and allied duties is to offset the injurious effect of international price discrimination while customs duties have implications for the government revenue and for overall development of the economy.
Anti dumping duties are not necessarily in the nature of a tax measure inasmuch as the Authority is empowered to suspend these duties in case of an exporter offering a price undertaking. Thus such measures are not always in the form of duties/tax.
Anti dumping and anti subsidy duties are levied against exporter / country inasmuch as they are country specific and exporter specific as against the customs duties which are general and universally applicable to all imports irrespective of the country of origin and the exporter.
Thus, there are basic conceptual and operational differences between the customs duty and the anti dumping duty. The anti dumping duty is levied over and above the normal customs duty chargeable on the import of goods in question.
Source: Yojana, March 2021
Incorrect
Solution: C
Dumping is said to occur when the goods are exported by a country to another country at a price lower than its normal value. This is an unfair trade practice which can have a distortive effect on international trade. Anti dumping is a measure to rectify the situation arising out of the dumping of goods and its trade distortive effect. Thus, the purpose of anti dumping duty is to rectify the trade distortive effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade.
The use of anti dumping measure as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the WTO. In fact, anti dumping is an instrument for ensuring fair trade and is not a measure of protection per se for the domestic industry. It provides relief to the domestic industry against the injury caused by dumping.
Although anti dumping duty is levied and collected by the Customs Authorities, it is entirely different from the Customs duties not only in concept and substance, but also in purpose and operation.
The following are the main differences between the two: –
Conceptually, anti dumping and the like measures in their essence are linked to the notion of fair trade. The object of these duties is to guard against the situation arising out of unfair trade practices while customs duties are there as a means of raising revenue and for overall development of the economy.
Customs duties fall in the realm of trade and fiscal policies of the Government while anti dumping and anti subsidy measures are there as trade remedial measures.
The object of anti dumping and allied duties is to offset the injurious effect of international price discrimination while customs duties have implications for the government revenue and for overall development of the economy.
Anti dumping duties are not necessarily in the nature of a tax measure inasmuch as the Authority is empowered to suspend these duties in case of an exporter offering a price undertaking. Thus such measures are not always in the form of duties/tax.
Anti dumping and anti subsidy duties are levied against exporter / country inasmuch as they are country specific and exporter specific as against the customs duties which are general and universally applicable to all imports irrespective of the country of origin and the exporter.
Thus, there are basic conceptual and operational differences between the customs duty and the anti dumping duty. The anti dumping duty is levied over and above the normal customs duty chargeable on the import of goods in question.
Source: Yojana, March 2021
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsAs per the Union Budget 2021-22, which of the following components constitute the highest central revenue?
Correct
Solution: C
Incorrect
Solution: C
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Effective Revenue Deficit:
- It is a new term introduced in the Union Budget 2021-22
- It is the difference between the fiscal deficit and grants for creation of capital assets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Effective Revenue deficit is a new term introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12. While revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure, the present accounting system includes all grants from the Union Government to the state governments/Union territories/other bodies as revenue expenditure, even if they are used to create assets. Such assets created by the sub-national governments/bodies are owned by them and not by the Union Government. Nevertheless they do result in the creation of durable assets.
According to the Finance Ministry, such revenue expenditures contribute to the growth in the economy and therefore, should not be treated as unproductive in nature. In the Union Budget (2011-12) a new methodology has been introduced to capture the ‘effective revenue deficit’, which excludes those revenue expenditures (or transfers) in the form of grants for creation of capital assets.
Grants for creation of capital assets, as a concept, was introduced in the FRBM Act through the amendment in 2012. The Act defines grants for creation of capital assets as grants-in-aid given by the Central Government to state governments, autonomous bodies, local bodies and other scheme implementing agencies for creation of capital assets which are owned by these entities.
In short, Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for creation of capital assets. Effective Revenue Deficit signifies that amount of capital receipts that are being used for actual consumption expenditure of the Government.
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Effective_Revenue_deficit
Source: Yojana, march, 2021
Incorrect
Solution: D
Effective Revenue deficit is a new term introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12. While revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure, the present accounting system includes all grants from the Union Government to the state governments/Union territories/other bodies as revenue expenditure, even if they are used to create assets. Such assets created by the sub-national governments/bodies are owned by them and not by the Union Government. Nevertheless they do result in the creation of durable assets.
According to the Finance Ministry, such revenue expenditures contribute to the growth in the economy and therefore, should not be treated as unproductive in nature. In the Union Budget (2011-12) a new methodology has been introduced to capture the ‘effective revenue deficit’, which excludes those revenue expenditures (or transfers) in the form of grants for creation of capital assets.
Grants for creation of capital assets, as a concept, was introduced in the FRBM Act through the amendment in 2012. The Act defines grants for creation of capital assets as grants-in-aid given by the Central Government to state governments, autonomous bodies, local bodies and other scheme implementing agencies for creation of capital assets which are owned by these entities.
In short, Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for creation of capital assets. Effective Revenue Deficit signifies that amount of capital receipts that are being used for actual consumption expenditure of the Government.
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Effective_Revenue_deficit
Source: Yojana, march, 2021
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Operation Greens scheme:
- It was launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
- NABARD will be the Nodal Agency to implement price stabilisation measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
In the budget speech of 2018-19, a new Scheme “Operation Greens” was announced on the line of “Operation Flood”, with an outlay of Rs. 500 crore to promote Farmer Producers Organizations, agri-logistics, processing facilities and professional management.
Operation Greens seeks to stabilize the supply of Tomato, Onion and Potato (TOP) crops and to ensure availability of TOP crops throughout the country round the year without price volatility.
The scheme was extended during June 2020 to cover all fruits & vegetables (TOTAL) for a period of six months on pilot basis as part of Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
In Budget 2021-22, to boost value addition in agriculture and allied products and their exports, Smt. Sitharaman proposed to increase the scope of ‘Operation Green Scheme’ that is presently applicable to tomatoes, onions, and potatoes (TOPS), to be enlarged to include 22 perishable products.
The Ministry of Food Processing Industries has launched the scheme. NAFED will be the Nodal Agency to implement price stabilisation measures.
Objectives:
- Enhancing value realisation of TOP farmers by targeted interventions to strengthen TOP production clusters and their FPOs, and linking/connecting them with the market.
- Price stabilisation for producers and consumers by proper production planning in the TOP clusters and introduction of dual use varieties.
- Reduction in post-harvest losses by creation of farm gate infrastructure, development of suitable agro-logistics, creation of appropriate storage capacity linking consumption centres.
- Increase in food processing capacities and value addition in TOP value chain with firm linkages with production clusters.
- Setting up of a market intelligence network to collect and collate real time data on demand and supply and price of TOP crops
https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/operation-greens
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1693891
Source: Yojana, March 2021
Incorrect
Solution: D
In the budget speech of 2018-19, a new Scheme “Operation Greens” was announced on the line of “Operation Flood”, with an outlay of Rs. 500 crore to promote Farmer Producers Organizations, agri-logistics, processing facilities and professional management.
Operation Greens seeks to stabilize the supply of Tomato, Onion and Potato (TOP) crops and to ensure availability of TOP crops throughout the country round the year without price volatility.
The scheme was extended during June 2020 to cover all fruits & vegetables (TOTAL) for a period of six months on pilot basis as part of Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
In Budget 2021-22, to boost value addition in agriculture and allied products and their exports, Smt. Sitharaman proposed to increase the scope of ‘Operation Green Scheme’ that is presently applicable to tomatoes, onions, and potatoes (TOPS), to be enlarged to include 22 perishable products.
The Ministry of Food Processing Industries has launched the scheme. NAFED will be the Nodal Agency to implement price stabilisation measures.
Objectives:
- Enhancing value realisation of TOP farmers by targeted interventions to strengthen TOP production clusters and their FPOs, and linking/connecting them with the market.
- Price stabilisation for producers and consumers by proper production planning in the TOP clusters and introduction of dual use varieties.
- Reduction in post-harvest losses by creation of farm gate infrastructure, development of suitable agro-logistics, creation of appropriate storage capacity linking consumption centres.
- Increase in food processing capacities and value addition in TOP value chain with firm linkages with production clusters.
- Setting up of a market intelligence network to collect and collate real time data on demand and supply and price of TOP crops
https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/operation-greens
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1693891
Source: Yojana, March 2021
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP):
- It is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra.
- Recommendation made by the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) are binding on the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. It came into existence in January 1965. It is a statutory body.
It is mandated to recommend minimum support prices (MSPs) to incentivize the cultivators to adopt modern technology, and raise productivity and overall grain production in line with the emerging demand patterns in the country.
As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra.
Recommendation made by the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) are not binding on the government
https://cacp.dacnet.nic.in/content.aspx?pid=32
Source: Yojana, March 2021
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. It came into existence in January 1965. It is a statutory body.
It is mandated to recommend minimum support prices (MSPs) to incentivize the cultivators to adopt modern technology, and raise productivity and overall grain production in line with the emerging demand patterns in the country.
As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra.
Recommendation made by the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) are not binding on the government
https://cacp.dacnet.nic.in/content.aspx?pid=32
Source: Yojana, March 2021
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsLocust Hub is an initiative of which of the following organization?
Correct
Solution: B
One of the mandates of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations is to provide information on the general locust situation to all interested countries and to give timely warnings and forecasts to those countries in danger of invasion. Therefore, FAO operates a centralized Desert Locust information service within the Locust Group at FAO Headquarters, Rome, Italy. All locust affected countries transmit locust data to FAO who in turn analyze this information in conjunction with weather and habitat data and satellite imagery in order to assess the current locust situation, provide forecasts up to six weeks in advance and issue warnings on an ad-hoc basis.
Locust Hub is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations. It provides information, maps and resources about the state of the locust upsurge and UN’s ongoing response efforts.
Incorrect
Solution: B
One of the mandates of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations is to provide information on the general locust situation to all interested countries and to give timely warnings and forecasts to those countries in danger of invasion. Therefore, FAO operates a centralized Desert Locust information service within the Locust Group at FAO Headquarters, Rome, Italy. All locust affected countries transmit locust data to FAO who in turn analyze this information in conjunction with weather and habitat data and satellite imagery in order to assess the current locust situation, provide forecasts up to six weeks in advance and issue warnings on an ad-hoc basis.
Locust Hub is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations. It provides information, maps and resources about the state of the locust upsurge and UN’s ongoing response efforts.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsThe term Geofencing is often seen in the news, can be used for
- Telematics.
- Targeted advertisements on social media.
- Tracking on vehicle fleets.
- Smart appliances.
- Human Resource management.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Correct
Solution: D
Geofencing:
- It is a location-based service in which an app or other software uses GPS, RFID, Wi-Fi or cellular data to trigger a pre-programmed action when a mobile device or RFID tag enters or exits a virtual boundary set up around a geographical location, known as a geofence.
- Depending on how a geofence is configured it can prompt mobile push notifications, trigger text messages or alerts, send targeted advertisements on social media, allow tracking on vehicle fleets, disable certain technology or deliver location-based marketing data.
How geofencing works?
- To make use of geofencing, an administrator or developer must first establish a virtual boundary around a specified location in GPS- or RFID-enabled software.
- This virtual geofence will then trigger a response when an authorized device enters or exits that area, as specified by the administrator or developer.
Other applications of geofence:
- Social networking.
- Marketing
- Audience engagement.
- Smart appliances.
- Human Resource management.
- Telematics.
- Security
Incorrect
Solution: D
Geofencing:
- It is a location-based service in which an app or other software uses GPS, RFID, Wi-Fi or cellular data to trigger a pre-programmed action when a mobile device or RFID tag enters or exits a virtual boundary set up around a geographical location, known as a geofence.
- Depending on how a geofence is configured it can prompt mobile push notifications, trigger text messages or alerts, send targeted advertisements on social media, allow tracking on vehicle fleets, disable certain technology or deliver location-based marketing data.
How geofencing works?
- To make use of geofencing, an administrator or developer must first establish a virtual boundary around a specified location in GPS- or RFID-enabled software.
- This virtual geofence will then trigger a response when an authorized device enters or exits that area, as specified by the administrator or developer.
Other applications of geofence:
- Social networking.
- Marketing
- Audience engagement.
- Smart appliances.
- Human Resource management.
- Telematics.
- Security
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are potential advantages of Vehicle Scrappage Policy announced in Union Budget 2021-22?
- Encouragement of fuel-efficient and environment friendly vehicles
- Reduction in vehicular pollution.
- Reduction in India’s oil import bill.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Incorrect
Solution: D
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the AT-1 Bonds, consider the following statements
- AT-1 bonds are like any other bonds issued by banks and companies, but pay a slightly higher rate of interest compared to other bonds
- Investors can return these bonds to the issuing bank and get the money after it’s maturity date
- Both institutional investors and individuals can subscribe to AT-1 bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Additional Tier-1 bonds:
- Under the Basel III framework, banks’ regulatory capital is divided into Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital.
- Tier 1 capital is subdivided into Common Equity (CET) and Additional Capital (AT1).
- AT1 bonds are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms.
- AT-1 bonds are like any other bonds issued by banks and companies, but pay a slightly higher rate of interest compared to other bonds.
- These have higher rates than tier II bonds.
- These bonds have no maturity date.
- The issuing bank has the option to call back the bonds or repay the principal after a specified period of time.
- The attraction for investors is higher yield than secured bonds issued by the same entity.
- Given the higher risk, the rating for these bonds is one to four notches lower than the secured bond series of the same bank.
- Investors cannot return these bonds to the issuing bank and get the money. i.e there is no put option available to its holders.
- AT-1 bonds are regulated by RBI. If the RBI feels that a bank needs a rescue, it can simply ask the bank to write off its outstanding AT-1 bonds without consulting its investors.
Changes introduced:
- Banks can issue these bonds only on electronic platform.
- Only institutional investors could subscribe to them.
- There shall be a minimum allotment size and trading lot size of ₹1 crore.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Additional Tier-1 bonds:
- Under the Basel III framework, banks’ regulatory capital is divided into Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital.
- Tier 1 capital is subdivided into Common Equity (CET) and Additional Capital (AT1).
- AT1 bonds are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms.
- AT-1 bonds are like any other bonds issued by banks and companies, but pay a slightly higher rate of interest compared to other bonds.
- These have higher rates than tier II bonds.
- These bonds have no maturity date.
- The issuing bank has the option to call back the bonds or repay the principal after a specified period of time.
- The attraction for investors is higher yield than secured bonds issued by the same entity.
- Given the higher risk, the rating for these bonds is one to four notches lower than the secured bond series of the same bank.
- Investors cannot return these bonds to the issuing bank and get the money. i.e there is no put option available to its holders.
- AT-1 bonds are regulated by RBI. If the RBI feels that a bank needs a rescue, it can simply ask the bank to write off its outstanding AT-1 bonds without consulting its investors.
Changes introduced:
- Banks can issue these bonds only on electronic platform.
- Only institutional investors could subscribe to them.
- There shall be a minimum allotment size and trading lot size of ₹1 crore.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsRecently, India announced the signing of the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) on geospatial cooperation with which of the following countries?
Correct
Solution: C
Recently India and the United States signed the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA), which, along with the two agreements signed earlier — the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) and the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) — completes a troika of “foundational pacts” for deep military cooperation between the two countries.
BECA will help India get real-time access to American geospatial intelligence that will enhance the accuracy of automated systems and weapons like missiles and armed drones. Through the sharing of information on maps and satellite images, it will help India access topographical and aeronautical data, and advanced products that will aid in navigation and targeting.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Recently India and the United States signed the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA), which, along with the two agreements signed earlier — the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) and the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) — completes a troika of “foundational pacts” for deep military cooperation between the two countries.
BECA will help India get real-time access to American geospatial intelligence that will enhance the accuracy of automated systems and weapons like missiles and armed drones. Through the sharing of information on maps and satellite images, it will help India access topographical and aeronautical data, and advanced products that will aid in navigation and targeting.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsCurrently, which of the following voters are allowed to cast their votes through postal ballot?
- Service voters
- Voters on election duty
- Persons with Disabilities (PwD)
- Voters under punitive detention
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: C
Postal voting:
A restricted set of voters can exercise postal voting. Through this facility, a voter can cast her vote remotely by recording her preference on the ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer before counting.
Currently, only the following voters are allowed to cast their votes through postal ballot:
- Service voters(armed forces, the armed police force of a state and government servants posted abroad),
- Voters on election duty,
- Voters above 80 years of ageor Persons with Disabilities (PwD),
- Voters underpreventive detention.
The exception to the above-mentioned category of voters is provided under Section 60 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Postal voting:
A restricted set of voters can exercise postal voting. Through this facility, a voter can cast her vote remotely by recording her preference on the ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer before counting.
Currently, only the following voters are allowed to cast their votes through postal ballot:
- Service voters(armed forces, the armed police force of a state and government servants posted abroad),
- Voters on election duty,
- Voters above 80 years of ageor Persons with Disabilities (PwD),
- Voters underpreventive detention.
The exception to the above-mentioned category of voters is provided under Section 60 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWith Reference to the Central Vigilance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Central Vigilance Commission is a five-member body.
- It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament.
- It submits its report to the President of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
Central Vigilance Commission:
- It is the apex vigilance institution created via executive resolution (based on the recommendations of Santhanam committee) in 1964 but was conferred with statutory status in 2003.
- It submits its report to the President of India.
- The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament.
- Composition: Consists of central vigilance commissioner along with 2 vigilance commissioners.
- Appointment: They are appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of Prime Minister, Union Home Minister and Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha (if there is no LoP then the leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha).
- Term: Their term is 4 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- Removal: The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Central Vigilance Commission:
- It is the apex vigilance institution created via executive resolution (based on the recommendations of Santhanam committee) in 1964 but was conferred with statutory status in 2003.
- It submits its report to the President of India.
- The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament.
- Composition: Consists of central vigilance commissioner along with 2 vigilance commissioners.
- Appointment: They are appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of Prime Minister, Union Home Minister and Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha (if there is no LoP then the leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha).
- Term: Their term is 4 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- Removal: The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following in respect of Vigyan Jyoti Scheme
- It aims to create a level-playing field for the meritorious girls in high school to pursue Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) in their higher education.
- Vigyan Jyoti Scheme is launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Vigyan Jyoti Scheme:
- Vigyan Jyoti Scheme is launched by the Department of Science & Technology (DST).
- It is intended to create a level-playing field for the meritorious girls in high school to pursue Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) in their higher education.
- It also offers exposure for girl students from the rural background to help to plan their journey from school to a job of their choice in the field of science.
- The programme covers girl students from grade 9 to 12
Incorrect
Solution: A
Vigyan Jyoti Scheme:
- Vigyan Jyoti Scheme is launched by the Department of Science & Technology (DST).
- It is intended to create a level-playing field for the meritorious girls in high school to pursue Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) in their higher education.
- It also offers exposure for girl students from the rural background to help to plan their journey from school to a job of their choice in the field of science.
- The programme covers girl students from grade 9 to 12
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThree numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 340 and that of the last two is 460. What is the sum of the three numbers ?
Correct
Solution: B
Since the three numbers are co-prime, they contain only 1 as the common factor.
Also, the given two products have the middle number in common.
So, middle number = H.C.F. of 340 and 460 = 20Given product of the first two numbers = 340
First number = 340/20 = 17
Given product of the last two numbers = 460
Third number = 460/20 = 23
Thus, Required sum = (17 + 20 + 23) = 60
Sum of the three numbers = 60.Incorrect
Solution: B
Since the three numbers are co-prime, they contain only 1 as the common factor.
Also, the given two products have the middle number in common.
So, middle number = H.C.F. of 340 and 460 = 20Given product of the first two numbers = 340
First number = 340/20 = 17
Given product of the last two numbers = 460
Third number = 460/20 = 23
Thus, Required sum = (17 + 20 + 23) = 60
Sum of the three numbers = 60. -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsOne third of a two digit number exceeds its one fourth by 6. What is the sum of the digits of the number?
Correct
Solution: B
Let the given number be x
It is given that x/3 – x/4 = 6
Or x/12 =6 or x =72
Therefore, sum of the digits 3+6 = 9
Incorrect
Solution: B
Let the given number be x
It is given that x/3 – x/4 = 6
Or x/12 =6 or x =72
Therefore, sum of the digits 3+6 = 9
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA 300 meter long train crosses a signal post in 30 seconds. How long will it take to cross a 5 km long bridge, at the same speed?
Correct
Solution: B
Speed of the train = Distance/Time
= 300 m/30s
= 10 m/s
Therefore, to cross 5 km (5000 m) bridge, time taken = Distance/Speed
= 5000/10
= 500 sec or 8 min 20s
Incorrect
Solution: B
Speed of the train = Distance/Time
= 300 m/30s
= 10 m/s
Therefore, to cross 5 km (5000 m) bridge, time taken = Distance/Speed
= 5000/10
= 500 sec or 8 min 20s
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA boat can move upstream at 25 kmph and downstream at 55 kmph, then what is the speed of the current ?
Correct
Solution: C
Downstream speed = 55kmph
Upstream Speed = 25 kmph
Rate of stream = (55 – 25)/2 km/hr.
= 30/2 = 15 kmph
Incorrect
Solution: C
Downstream speed = 55kmph
Upstream Speed = 25 kmph
Rate of stream = (55 – 25)/2 km/hr.
= 30/2 = 15 kmph
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsThe Sentinelese people targeted by the slain evangelist John Allen Chau are probably the most isolated of the world’s remaining remote tribes, and they are keen to stay that way. They shoot arrows to warn off anyone who approaches their island, and attack those, like Chau, who ignore their warnings.
It was not always this way. When Europeans first made contact with the Sentinelese, the British naval commander Maurice Vidal Portman described them in 1899 as “painfully timid.” But the profound shift is not hard to explain. Tribes like the Sentinelese have learned to associate outsiders with the ghastly violence and deadly diseases brought by European colonization.Which of the following, according to the passage, is the reason for the hostility shown by Sentinelese?
Correct
Ans. B.
The passage clearly states in the last line that Sentinelese have learned to associate outsiders with the ghastly violence and deadly diseases brought by European colonization which explains their hostility. Hence B.
Incorrect
Ans. B.
The passage clearly states in the last line that Sentinelese have learned to associate outsiders with the ghastly violence and deadly diseases brought by European colonization which explains their hostility. Hence B.
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