INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Aquaponics
- While the initial cost to set up the facility would be low, the recurring cost is high in aquaponics.
- The difference between aquaponics and hydroponics is that synthetic fertilizers are used in hydroponics for providing nutrients to plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Aquaponics
- The method combines aquaculture — cultivating fish and other aquatic animals in tanks with organic inputs — with hydroponics, where plants are cultivated in water.
- The water from the fish tank is pumped onto the beds where plants grow.
- While the fish excretions provide nutrients for the plants (hence no chemical fertilizers are needed), the clean water is recirculated back to the fish tank.
- While the initial cost to set up the facility would be high, the recurring cost is low in aquaponics. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- The difference between aquaponics and hydroponics is that synthetic fertilisers are used in hydroponics for providing nutrients to plants and hence cultivation of fish is not possible in hydroponics.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Aquaponics
- The method combines aquaculture — cultivating fish and other aquatic animals in tanks with organic inputs — with hydroponics, where plants are cultivated in water.
- The water from the fish tank is pumped onto the beds where plants grow.
- While the fish excretions provide nutrients for the plants (hence no chemical fertilizers are needed), the clean water is recirculated back to the fish tank.
- While the initial cost to set up the facility would be high, the recurring cost is low in aquaponics. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- The difference between aquaponics and hydroponics is that synthetic fertilisers are used in hydroponics for providing nutrients to plants and hence cultivation of fish is not possible in hydroponics.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED)
- It was setup with an objective of promoting co-operative marketing.
- It is registered under The Indian Societies Registration Act of 1860.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED), established in 1958, is registered under the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
NAFED was setup with the object to promote Cooperative marketing of Agricultural Produce to benefit the farmers.
Agricultural farmers are the main members of Nafed, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of Nafed.
The objectives of the NAFEDshall be to organize, promote and develop marketing, processing and storage of agricultural, horticultural and forest produce, distribution of agricultural machinery, implements and other inputs, undertake inter-state, import and export trade etc
Incorrect
Solution: A
National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED), established in 1958, is registered under the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
NAFED was setup with the object to promote Cooperative marketing of Agricultural Produce to benefit the farmers.
Agricultural farmers are the main members of Nafed, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of Nafed.
The objectives of the NAFEDshall be to organize, promote and develop marketing, processing and storage of agricultural, horticultural and forest produce, distribution of agricultural machinery, implements and other inputs, undertake inter-state, import and export trade etc
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Hydrogels
- Potassium Polyacrylate is the principal material used and marketed as hydrogel for agricultural use.
- Cross-linked polymers can hold water 400 times their own weight and release 95% of that to growing plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Both the statements are correct.
Hydrogels
Hydrogel agriculture technology involves gel forming polymers that are insoluble water absorbing polymers designed exclusively for agricultural use by the late 1980’s. They were developed to improve physical properties of soil to:
- Increase water holding capacity
- Increase water use efficiency
- Enhance soil permeability and infiltration rate
- Reduce irrigation frequency
- Reduce compaction tendency
- Stop soil erosion, farm run-off & surface leaching
- Increase plant performance, particularly in structure-less soils stressed with drought condition
Hydrogels as they are commonly called are cross-linked three-dimensional networked water absorbent polymers. Three main types of Hydrogels have so far been found appropriate for agricultural use:
- Starch-graft copolymers
- Cross-linked Polyacrylates
- Cross-linked Polyacrylamides & Acrylamide-acrylate copolymers
Potassium Polyacrylate is the principle material used in SAP industry and marketed as hydrogel for agricultural use because of its longer retention and high efficiency in soil with nil toxicity issues. They are prepared by polymerizing Acrylic acid with a cross linker. Cross-linked polymers can hold water 400 times their own weight and release 95% of that to growing plants.
Use of Hydrogel leads to increased water use efficiency by preventing leaching and increasing frequency for irrigation. During summer months particularly in semi arid regions, lack of soil moisture can cause plant stress. Moisture released by hydrogel close to root area helps reduce stress and increase growth and plant performance. Hydrogels can reduce fertilizer leaching and reduce application of pesticides.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Both the statements are correct.
Hydrogels
Hydrogel agriculture technology involves gel forming polymers that are insoluble water absorbing polymers designed exclusively for agricultural use by the late 1980’s. They were developed to improve physical properties of soil to:
- Increase water holding capacity
- Increase water use efficiency
- Enhance soil permeability and infiltration rate
- Reduce irrigation frequency
- Reduce compaction tendency
- Stop soil erosion, farm run-off & surface leaching
- Increase plant performance, particularly in structure-less soils stressed with drought condition
Hydrogels as they are commonly called are cross-linked three-dimensional networked water absorbent polymers. Three main types of Hydrogels have so far been found appropriate for agricultural use:
- Starch-graft copolymers
- Cross-linked Polyacrylates
- Cross-linked Polyacrylamides & Acrylamide-acrylate copolymers
Potassium Polyacrylate is the principle material used in SAP industry and marketed as hydrogel for agricultural use because of its longer retention and high efficiency in soil with nil toxicity issues. They are prepared by polymerizing Acrylic acid with a cross linker. Cross-linked polymers can hold water 400 times their own weight and release 95% of that to growing plants.
Use of Hydrogel leads to increased water use efficiency by preventing leaching and increasing frequency for irrigation. During summer months particularly in semi arid regions, lack of soil moisture can cause plant stress. Moisture released by hydrogel close to root area helps reduce stress and increase growth and plant performance. Hydrogels can reduce fertilizer leaching and reduce application of pesticides.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP)
- MSP rates are decided by Cabinet committee on Economic Affairs
- The Scheme is applicable only in eight States having Schedule areas as listed in the Fifth Schedule.
- Bamboo and Tendu leaves forms the component of minor forest produce
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Under the scheme “Mechanism for Marketing of Minor Forest Produce through Minimum Support Price and development of Value chain for MFP” Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP) has been fixed for select MFP. The scheme is designed as a social safety net for improvement of livelihood of MFP gatherers by providing them fair price for the MFPs they collect.
Coverage
The Scheme has been implemented in eight States having Schedule areas as listed in the Fifth Schedule of the constitution of India. From November 2016, the scheme is applicable in all States.
What is this scheme all about?
The Union Cabinet, in 2013, approved a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for marketing of non-nationalized / non monopolized Minor Forest Produce (MFP) and development of a value chain for MFP through Minimum Support Price (MSP).
- This was a measure towards social safety for MFP gatherers, who are primarily members of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) most of them in Left Wing Extremism (LWE) areas.
- The scheme had Rs. 967.28 crore as Central Government share and Rs. 249.50 crore as the States share for the current Plan period.
Key features of the scheme: Ensure that the tribal population gets a remunerative price for the produce they collect from the forest and provide alternative employment avenues to them.
- Establish a system to ensure fair monetary returns for forest dweller’s efforts in collection, primary processing, storage, packaging, transportation etc, while ensuring sustainability of the resource base.
- Get them a share of revenue from the sales proceeds with costs deducted.
Coverage:
Earlier, the scheme was extended only to Scheduled Areas in eight states and fixed MSPs for 12 MFPs. Later expanded to all states and UTs. Total number of MFPs covered under the list include more than 40 items.
Implementation: The responsibility of purchasing MFP on MSP will be with State designated agencies.
- To ascertain market price, services of market correspondents would be availed by the designated agencies particularly for major markets trading in MFP.
- The scheme supports primary value addition as well as provides for supply chain infrastructure like cold storage, warehouses etc.
- The Ministry of Tribal Affairs will be the nodal Ministry for implementation and monitoring of the scheme. The Minimum Support Price would be determined by the Ministry with technical help of TRIFED.
States have been given freedom for fixing MSP 10% above or below the MSP rate decided by Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Under the scheme “Mechanism for Marketing of Minor Forest Produce through Minimum Support Price and development of Value chain for MFP” Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP) has been fixed for select MFP. The scheme is designed as a social safety net for improvement of livelihood of MFP gatherers by providing them fair price for the MFPs they collect.
Coverage
The Scheme has been implemented in eight States having Schedule areas as listed in the Fifth Schedule of the constitution of India. From November 2016, the scheme is applicable in all States.
What is this scheme all about?
The Union Cabinet, in 2013, approved a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for marketing of non-nationalized / non monopolized Minor Forest Produce (MFP) and development of a value chain for MFP through Minimum Support Price (MSP).
- This was a measure towards social safety for MFP gatherers, who are primarily members of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) most of them in Left Wing Extremism (LWE) areas.
- The scheme had Rs. 967.28 crore as Central Government share and Rs. 249.50 crore as the States share for the current Plan period.
Key features of the scheme: Ensure that the tribal population gets a remunerative price for the produce they collect from the forest and provide alternative employment avenues to them.
- Establish a system to ensure fair monetary returns for forest dweller’s efforts in collection, primary processing, storage, packaging, transportation etc, while ensuring sustainability of the resource base.
- Get them a share of revenue from the sales proceeds with costs deducted.
Coverage:
Earlier, the scheme was extended only to Scheduled Areas in eight states and fixed MSPs for 12 MFPs. Later expanded to all states and UTs. Total number of MFPs covered under the list include more than 40 items.
Implementation: The responsibility of purchasing MFP on MSP will be with State designated agencies.
- To ascertain market price, services of market correspondents would be availed by the designated agencies particularly for major markets trading in MFP.
- The scheme supports primary value addition as well as provides for supply chain infrastructure like cold storage, warehouses etc.
- The Ministry of Tribal Affairs will be the nodal Ministry for implementation and monitoring of the scheme. The Minimum Support Price would be determined by the Ministry with technical help of TRIFED.
States have been given freedom for fixing MSP 10% above or below the MSP rate decided by Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Foot-and-mouth disease
- It is fatal in nature
- It affects both domesticated and wild bovines
- The virus responsible for the disease is a picornavirus, the prototypic member of the genus Aphthovirus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
About Foot-and-mouth disease:
- It is an infectious and sometimes fatal viral disease.
- Affects cloven-hoofed animals, including domestic and wild bovids.
- Symptoms: The virus causes a high fever for two or three days, followed by blisters inside the mouth and on the feet that may rupture and cause lameness.
- The virus responsible for the disease is a picornavirus, the prototypic member of the genus Aphthovirus.
Spread of the disease and Concerns associated:
Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) has severe implications for animal farming, since it is highly infectious and can be spread by infected animals through aerosols, through contact with contaminated farming equipment, vehicles, clothing, or feed, and by domestic and wild predators.
Can Humans be affected?
Humans can be infected with foot-and-mouth disease through contact with infected animals, but this is extremely rare. Some cases were caused by laboratory accidents. Because the virus that causes FMD is sensitive to stomach acid, it cannot spread to humans via consumption of infected meat, except in the mouth before the meat is swallowed. Symptoms of FMD in humans include malaise, fever, vomiting, red ulcerative lesions (surface-eroding damaged spots) of the oral tissues, and sometimes vesicular lesions (small blisters) of the skin.
Incorrect
Solution: D
About Foot-and-mouth disease:
- It is an infectious and sometimes fatal viral disease.
- Affects cloven-hoofed animals, including domestic and wild bovids.
- Symptoms: The virus causes a high fever for two or three days, followed by blisters inside the mouth and on the feet that may rupture and cause lameness.
- The virus responsible for the disease is a picornavirus, the prototypic member of the genus Aphthovirus.
Spread of the disease and Concerns associated:
Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) has severe implications for animal farming, since it is highly infectious and can be spread by infected animals through aerosols, through contact with contaminated farming equipment, vehicles, clothing, or feed, and by domestic and wild predators.
Can Humans be affected?
Humans can be infected with foot-and-mouth disease through contact with infected animals, but this is extremely rare. Some cases were caused by laboratory accidents. Because the virus that causes FMD is sensitive to stomach acid, it cannot spread to humans via consumption of infected meat, except in the mouth before the meat is swallowed. Symptoms of FMD in humans include malaise, fever, vomiting, red ulcerative lesions (surface-eroding damaged spots) of the oral tissues, and sometimes vesicular lesions (small blisters) of the skin.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Drought is legally defined in National Disaster Management Act, 2005
- Ministry of Rural Development declares drought in India
Which of the statements are given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are incorrect.
Drought is generally considered as a deficiency in rainfall /precipitation over an extended period, usually a season or more, resulting in a water shortage causing adverse impacts on vegetation, animals, and/or people.
There is no single, legally accepted definition of drought in India. Some states resort to their own definitions of drought. State Government is the final authority when it comes to declaring a region as drought affected. Union of India has published two important documents in respect of managing a drought.
Manual for Drought Management[1] (for short “the Manual”) prepared in November 2009 by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture in the Government of India; and
Guidelines for Management of Drought (for short “the Guidelines”) prepared in September 2010 by the National Disaster Management Authority of the Government of India.
However, these documents have no binding force and are mere guidelines to be followed, if so advised.
The Manual recommends four standard monitoring tools- rainfall deficiency, the extent of area sown, normalized difference vegetation index (NDVI) and moisture adequacy index (MAI) – which could be applied in combination for drought declaration. At least three indicators or index values should be adverse for a drought declaration (see the section below for more details). Since the information on these indicators and indices are available at the level of Taluka /Tehsil / Block, drought is declared by the State Government at the level of these administrative units on the basis of observed deficiencies. However, states are not bound to use the above standards for declaration of drought and many states still depend on the failure of crop measures to declare a drought (but indicators based on crop failure prevents the farmers from getting any early help)
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are incorrect.
Drought is generally considered as a deficiency in rainfall /precipitation over an extended period, usually a season or more, resulting in a water shortage causing adverse impacts on vegetation, animals, and/or people.
There is no single, legally accepted definition of drought in India. Some states resort to their own definitions of drought. State Government is the final authority when it comes to declaring a region as drought affected. Union of India has published two important documents in respect of managing a drought.
Manual for Drought Management[1] (for short “the Manual”) prepared in November 2009 by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture in the Government of India; and
Guidelines for Management of Drought (for short “the Guidelines”) prepared in September 2010 by the National Disaster Management Authority of the Government of India.
However, these documents have no binding force and are mere guidelines to be followed, if so advised.
The Manual recommends four standard monitoring tools- rainfall deficiency, the extent of area sown, normalized difference vegetation index (NDVI) and moisture adequacy index (MAI) – which could be applied in combination for drought declaration. At least three indicators or index values should be adverse for a drought declaration (see the section below for more details). Since the information on these indicators and indices are available at the level of Taluka /Tehsil / Block, drought is declared by the State Government at the level of these administrative units on the basis of observed deficiencies. However, states are not bound to use the above standards for declaration of drought and many states still depend on the failure of crop measures to declare a drought (but indicators based on crop failure prevents the farmers from getting any early help)
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Agriculture census has been conducting in India from 1950’s
- Live Stock Census is conducted for every 5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Agricultural Census, which is conducted every five years in India. It is the largest countrywide statistical operation undertaken by Ministry of Agriculture, for collection of data on structure of operational holdings by different size classes and social groups.
Agricultural Census is carried out as a Central Sector Scheme under which 100% financial assistance is provided to States/Union Territoriess. Agricultural Census operation is carried out in three phases.
The first Agricultural Census in the country was conducted with reference year 1970-71.
Livestock census is conducted periodically rather than every 5 years.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Agricultural Census, which is conducted every five years in India. It is the largest countrywide statistical operation undertaken by Ministry of Agriculture, for collection of data on structure of operational holdings by different size classes and social groups.
Agricultural Census is carried out as a Central Sector Scheme under which 100% financial assistance is provided to States/Union Territoriess. Agricultural Census operation is carried out in three phases.
The first Agricultural Census in the country was conducted with reference year 1970-71.
Livestock census is conducted periodically rather than every 5 years.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsGlobal Economic Prospects is released by
Correct
Solution: D
The Global Economic Prospects (GEP) is the World Bank’s semi-annual flagship publication on the state of the world economy. In a nutshell, the outlook for the global economy has darkened, amid slowing activity and heightened downside risks.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Global Economic Prospects (GEP) is the World Bank’s semi-annual flagship publication on the state of the world economy. In a nutshell, the outlook for the global economy has darkened, amid slowing activity and heightened downside risks.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the “e-CHARAK” platform:
- It aims to enable information exchange between various stakeholders involved in the handloom and textile sector.
- It has been developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
“e-CHARAK” – e-Channel for Herbs, Aromatic, Raw material And Knowledge is a platform to enable information exchange between various stakeholders involved in the medicinal plants sector.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
e-Charak has been jointly developed by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB), Ministry of Ayush, Government of India and Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Uses of e-CHARAK:
- Serves as a virtual market place for buyers and sellers of medicinal plants sector to interact with each other.
- Serves as a virtual showcase to display products and services related to medicinal plants sector.
- Serves as a knowledge repository of technologies, market information and other resources related to medicinal plants sector.
e-CHARAK helps its users in the following ways
- Get better markets for products/services.
- Save time and energy in identifying right customers
- Get to know the value of one’s goods
- Get rightful share of benefits
- Make better decisions – what & how much to produce
https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/e-charak-platform-for-medicinal-plants
Incorrect
Solution: D
“e-CHARAK” – e-Channel for Herbs, Aromatic, Raw material And Knowledge is a platform to enable information exchange between various stakeholders involved in the medicinal plants sector.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
e-Charak has been jointly developed by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB), Ministry of Ayush, Government of India and Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Uses of e-CHARAK:
- Serves as a virtual market place for buyers and sellers of medicinal plants sector to interact with each other.
- Serves as a virtual showcase to display products and services related to medicinal plants sector.
- Serves as a knowledge repository of technologies, market information and other resources related to medicinal plants sector.
e-CHARAK helps its users in the following ways
- Get better markets for products/services.
- Save time and energy in identifying right customers
- Get to know the value of one’s goods
- Get rightful share of benefits
- Make better decisions – what & how much to produce
https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/e-charak-platform-for-medicinal-plants
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Agri Export Zone (AEZ):
- The concept was introduced in 2001, through Agricultural Produce (grading and marketing) Act of 1937.
- It helps in strengthening of backward linkages with a market oriented approach.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The concept of Agri Export Zone (AEZ) was introduced in 2001, through EXIM Policy 1997-2001, to take a comprehensive look at a particular produce/product located in a contiguous area for the purpose of developing and sourcing the raw materials, their processing/packaging, leading to final exports.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Benefits:
- Strengthening of backward linkages with a market oriented approach.
- Product acceptability and its competitiveness abroad as well as in the domestic market.
- Value addition to basic agricultural produce.
- Bring down cost of production through economy of scale.
- Better price for agricultural produce.
- Improvement in product quality and packaging.
- Promote trade related research and development.
- Increase employment opportunities.
https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/agri-export-zones
Incorrect
Solution: B
The concept of Agri Export Zone (AEZ) was introduced in 2001, through EXIM Policy 1997-2001, to take a comprehensive look at a particular produce/product located in a contiguous area for the purpose of developing and sourcing the raw materials, their processing/packaging, leading to final exports.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Benefits:
- Strengthening of backward linkages with a market oriented approach.
- Product acceptability and its competitiveness abroad as well as in the domestic market.
- Value addition to basic agricultural produce.
- Bring down cost of production through economy of scale.
- Better price for agricultural produce.
- Improvement in product quality and packaging.
- Promote trade related research and development.
- Increase employment opportunities.
https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/agri-export-zones
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the text Tholkappiyam:
- It is the earliest extant Tamil grammatical text.
- It deals the society and culture of the times along with the poetry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Tholkappiyam, attributed to Tholkappiyar, is the earliest extant Tamil grammatical text dealing not only with poetry but also the society and culture of the times.
Source: Yojana, February, 2021.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Tholkappiyam, attributed to Tholkappiyar, is the earliest extant Tamil grammatical text dealing not only with poetry but also the society and culture of the times.
Source: Yojana, February, 2021.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following women poets belonged to the Sangam period?
- Gargi
- Kavarpendu
- Avvaiyar
- Lopamudra
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Significant women poets of the Vedic period are Ghosha, Lopamudra, Sulabha Maitreyi, and Gargi.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
Incorrect
Solution: B
Significant women poets of the Vedic period are Ghosha, Lopamudra, Sulabha Maitreyi, and Gargi.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of poets during the Gupta period and their literary works:
Poets/Author Literary Works:
- Visakhadatta Mudraraksasa
- Panini Mahabhashya
- Patanjali Ashtadhyayi
- Sudraka Mrichchhakatika
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
The Gupta period also saw the development of Sanskrit grammar based on Panini who wrote Ashtadhyayi and Patanjali who wrote Mahabhashya on the topic. This period is particularly memorable for the compilation of the Amarakosa, a thesaurus in Sanskrit, by Amarasimha. A Buddhist scholar from Bengal, Chandrogomia, composed a book on grammar named Chandravyakaranam.
Secular Literature:
Kalidasa’s famous dramas are Sakunthalam, Malavikagnimitram and Vikramaurvashiyam. The works of Sudraka (Mrichchhakatika), Visakhadatta (Mudraraksasa and Devichandraguptam) and the lesser known dramatists and writers also contributed to the literary and social values in the classical age.
An interesting feature of the dramas of this period is that while the elite spoke in Sanskrit, the common people spoke Prakrit.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Gupta period also saw the development of Sanskrit grammar based on Panini who wrote Ashtadhyayi and Patanjali who wrote Mahabhashya on the topic. This period is particularly memorable for the compilation of the Amarakosa, a thesaurus in Sanskrit, by Amarasimha. A Buddhist scholar from Bengal, Chandrogomia, composed a book on grammar named Chandravyakaranam.
Secular Literature:
Kalidasa’s famous dramas are Sakunthalam, Malavikagnimitram and Vikramaurvashiyam. The works of Sudraka (Mrichchhakatika), Visakhadatta (Mudraraksasa and Devichandraguptam) and the lesser known dramatists and writers also contributed to the literary and social values in the classical age.
An interesting feature of the dramas of this period is that while the elite spoke in Sanskrit, the common people spoke Prakrit.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Warkari Sampradaya:
- It is a religious movement within the bhakti spiritual tradition of Shaivite Hinduism.
- It is geographically associated with the state of Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Warkari is a sampradaya within the bhakti spiritual tradition of Vaishnavite Hinduism, geographically associated with the Indian state of Maharashtra.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
Warkaris worship Vitthal, the presiding deity of Pandharpur, regarded as a form of Krishna
Source: Yojana, February 2021
Incorrect
Solution: B
Warkari is a sampradaya within the bhakti spiritual tradition of Vaishnavite Hinduism, geographically associated with the Indian state of Maharashtra.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
Warkaris worship Vitthal, the presiding deity of Pandharpur, regarded as a form of Krishna
Source: Yojana, February 2021
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Bhakti Saint Namdev:
- He was a devotee of Lord Shiva.
- His work is known for abhangas, a genre of hymn poetry.
- Janabai was his contemporary.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Bhakti Saint Namdev was lived as a devotee of Lord Vitthal (Krishna) of Pandharpur. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Namdev’s work is known for abhangas, a genre of hymn poetry in India. His poems were transmitted from one generation to the next within singing families, and memory was the only recording method in the centuries that followed Namdev’s death.
Milan Mohanta Janabai was a Marathi religious poet in the Hindu tradition in India. Since her childhood, Janabai worked as a maidservant in the household of Damasheti, who lived in Pandharpur and who was the father of the prominent Marathi religious poet Namdev.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bhakti Saint Namdev was lived as a devotee of Lord Vitthal (Krishna) of Pandharpur. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Namdev’s work is known for abhangas, a genre of hymn poetry in India. His poems were transmitted from one generation to the next within singing families, and memory was the only recording method in the centuries that followed Namdev’s death.
Milan Mohanta Janabai was a Marathi religious poet in the Hindu tradition in India. Since her childhood, Janabai worked as a maidservant in the household of Damasheti, who lived in Pandharpur and who was the father of the prominent Marathi religious poet Namdev.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Bhakti Saint Kabir:
- He believed in the universality of god.
- He was contemporary to the saint Ramananda.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Kabir is probably the most important cultural figure of medieval India. His iconoclastic poetry which ridiculed ostentatiousness and ritual, and emphasized the universality of god won many adherents.
Said to be a disciple of Ramananda, he learnt Vedanta philosophy from him. According to the popular Tazkirah-i-Auliya-i-Hind (Lives of Muslim Saints), he was a disciple of the Muslim Sufi, Shaikh Taqi.
Kabir was a religious radical who denounced with equal zest the narrowness of sectarianism, both Hindu and Islam. His message appealed to the lower classes of Hindu community. The most salient features of his teachings are denunciation of polytheism, idolatry, and caste. He was equally unsparing in his condemnation of Muslim formalism.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
Incorrect
Solution: C
Kabir is probably the most important cultural figure of medieval India. His iconoclastic poetry which ridiculed ostentatiousness and ritual, and emphasized the universality of god won many adherents.
Said to be a disciple of Ramananda, he learnt Vedanta philosophy from him. According to the popular Tazkirah-i-Auliya-i-Hind (Lives of Muslim Saints), he was a disciple of the Muslim Sufi, Shaikh Taqi.
Kabir was a religious radical who denounced with equal zest the narrowness of sectarianism, both Hindu and Islam. His message appealed to the lower classes of Hindu community. The most salient features of his teachings are denunciation of polytheism, idolatry, and caste. He was equally unsparing in his condemnation of Muslim formalism.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Sufi Movement:
- They believed that God is ‘Mashuq’ (beloved) and Sufis are the ‘Ashiqs’ (lovers).
- Chistis, Suhrawardis, Qadiriyahs and Naqshbandis were some of the Sufi orders.
- It preached the brotherhood between the Hindu and Muslim communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Sufism represents the inward or esoteric side and the mystical dimension of Islam. Sufi saints transcended religious and communal distinctions, and worked for promoting the interest of humanity at large. The Sufis were a class of philosophers remarkable for their religious catholicity and tolarance. Sufis regarded God as the supreme beauty and believed that one must admire it, take delight in His thought and concentrate his attention on Him only. They believed that God is ‘Mashuq’ (beloved) and Sufis are the ‘Ashiqs’ (lovers). Sufism crystallized into various ‘Silsilahs’ or orders. The most popular Sufi orders were Chistis, Suhrawardis, Qadiriyahs and Naqshbandis.
The most important contribution of Sufism is that it helped to blunt the edge of Hindu-Muslim conflicts and prejudices by forging the feelings of solidarity and brotherhood between these two religious communities.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
Incorrect
Solution: D
Sufism represents the inward or esoteric side and the mystical dimension of Islam. Sufi saints transcended religious and communal distinctions, and worked for promoting the interest of humanity at large. The Sufis were a class of philosophers remarkable for their religious catholicity and tolarance. Sufis regarded God as the supreme beauty and believed that one must admire it, take delight in His thought and concentrate his attention on Him only. They believed that God is ‘Mashuq’ (beloved) and Sufis are the ‘Ashiqs’ (lovers). Sufism crystallized into various ‘Silsilahs’ or orders. The most popular Sufi orders were Chistis, Suhrawardis, Qadiriyahs and Naqshbandis.
The most important contribution of Sufism is that it helped to blunt the edge of Hindu-Muslim conflicts and prejudices by forging the feelings of solidarity and brotherhood between these two religious communities.
Source: Yojana, February 2021
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWho among the following wrote the famous work ‘Amuktamalyada’?
Correct
Solution: C
Krishnadevaraya’s court was also adorned by some great poets like Allasani Peddana, Nandi Thimmana. He himself is considered a great scholar and is author of the famous poem Amuktamalyada (the story of Andal).
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Krishnadevaraya’s court was also adorned by some great poets like Allasani Peddana, Nandi Thimmana. He himself is considered a great scholar and is author of the famous poem Amuktamalyada (the story of Andal).
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following languages has/have been conferred the status of Classical Languages?
- Urdu
- Marathi
- Tamil
- Kannada
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
According to information provided by the Ministry of Culture in the Rajya Sabha in February 2014, the guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
“(i) High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
(ii) A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
(iii) The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
(iv) The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.”
How are the Classical languages promoted?
The Human Resource and Development Ministry in its reply to a starred question in the Lok Sabha in July 2014 noted the benefits it provides once a language is notified as a Classical language:
“i) Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages
- ii) A Centre of Excellence for studies in Classical Languages is set up
iii) The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared.”
Source: Yojana, February 2021
Incorrect
Solution: A
Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
According to information provided by the Ministry of Culture in the Rajya Sabha in February 2014, the guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
“(i) High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
(ii) A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
(iii) The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
(iv) The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.”
How are the Classical languages promoted?
The Human Resource and Development Ministry in its reply to a starred question in the Lok Sabha in July 2014 noted the benefits it provides once a language is notified as a Classical language:
“i) Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages
- ii) A Centre of Excellence for studies in Classical Languages is set up
iii) The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared.”
Source: Yojana, February 2021
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of ministers under Sher Shah’s Administration and their responsibilities:
- Diwan-i-Insha- Minister for Communications.
- Diwan-i-Rasalat- in charge of Army.
- Diwan-i-Ariz – Foreign Minister.
- Diwan –i- Wizarat – in charge of Revenue and Finance.
Which of the pairs gives above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
Sher Shah’s Administration
Although his rule lasted for five years, he organized a brilliant administrative system. The central government consisted of several departments. The king was assisted by four important ministers:
- Diwan –i- Wizarat– also called as Wazir – in charge of Revenue and Finance.
- Diwan-i-Ariz– in charge of Army.
- Diwan-i-Rasalat– Foreign Minister.
- Diwan-i-Insha– Minister for Communications.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Sher Shah’s Administration
Although his rule lasted for five years, he organized a brilliant administrative system. The central government consisted of several departments. The king was assisted by four important ministers:
- Diwan –i- Wizarat– also called as Wazir – in charge of Revenue and Finance.
- Diwan-i-Ariz– in charge of Army.
- Diwan-i-Rasalat– Foreign Minister.
- Diwan-i-Insha– Minister for Communications.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich reference to Rudram-1, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is an air-to-surface missile, designed and developed by the DRDO.
- It is the first indigenous anti-radiation missile of the country.
- It has a range of up to 2000 km
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: D
Rudram Anti-Radiation Missile:
Context:
Successfully test-fired recently from a Sukhoi-30 fighter aircraft.
Key points:
- The missile has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It has a strike range of around 100 to 150 km. (Even up to 200 km depending upon the launch conditions)
- It is the first indigenous air-to-ground missile developed by the DRDO, after the supersonic BrahMos, which has been developed jointly with Russia.
- The missile has been designed for suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD).
- The missile can be launched from a varying range of altitudes for destroying enemy surveillance radars, tracking and communication systems.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Rudram Anti-Radiation Missile:
Context:
Successfully test-fired recently from a Sukhoi-30 fighter aircraft.
Key points:
- The missile has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It has a strike range of around 100 to 150 km. (Even up to 200 km depending upon the launch conditions)
- It is the first indigenous air-to-ground missile developed by the DRDO, after the supersonic BrahMos, which has been developed jointly with Russia.
- The missile has been designed for suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD).
- The missile can be launched from a varying range of altitudes for destroying enemy surveillance radars, tracking and communication systems.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsThe well-known Etikoppaka toys do belong to which of the following state?
Correct
Solution: D
Etikoppaka toys:
The Etikoppaka toys are not only popular in Andhra Pradesh but also gained their popularity all over the country and abroad over the years. But this art form suffered a setback in the last decade. The exports to the US and Europe, which were to the tune of Rs 50 to 80 lakh per annum, were stopped in 2007 when the importers insisted on GI certification and heavy metal analysis, both not in the hands of the villagers.
Key Points:
- Etikoppaka toys, popularly known as Lakkapidathalu, finally received Geographical Indication by the Registration of Geographical Indication.
- The artisans are yet to get heavy metal analysis certificate for exporting to the US and European countries.
- Facing a new threat from dumping of identical Chinese wooden toys into the markets
- Getting little help from the government, the artisans are now looking for online trading agencies to sell their products.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Etikoppaka toys:
The Etikoppaka toys are not only popular in Andhra Pradesh but also gained their popularity all over the country and abroad over the years. But this art form suffered a setback in the last decade. The exports to the US and Europe, which were to the tune of Rs 50 to 80 lakh per annum, were stopped in 2007 when the importers insisted on GI certification and heavy metal analysis, both not in the hands of the villagers.
Key Points:
- Etikoppaka toys, popularly known as Lakkapidathalu, finally received Geographical Indication by the Registration of Geographical Indication.
- The artisans are yet to get heavy metal analysis certificate for exporting to the US and European countries.
- Facing a new threat from dumping of identical Chinese wooden toys into the markets
- Getting little help from the government, the artisans are now looking for online trading agencies to sell their products.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Quality Council of India
- It is an autonomous body registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860
- The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Minister of Commerce & Industry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Quality Council of India:
- It was set up as a non-profit autonomous society in 1997, registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860 to establish an accreditation structure in the country and to spread quality movement in India by undertaking a National Quality Campaign.
-
- The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, is the nodal department for QCI.
- The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry to the government.
- It was setup jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e.
- Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM),
- Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and
- Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
- It aims to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Quality Council of India:
- It was set up as a non-profit autonomous society in 1997, registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860 to establish an accreditation structure in the country and to spread quality movement in India by undertaking a National Quality Campaign.
-
- The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, is the nodal department for QCI.
- The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry to the government.
- It was setup jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e.
- Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM),
- Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and
- Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
- It aims to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsThe terms “TALENs” and “zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs)” sometimes mentioned in the news are related to
Correct
Solution: C
Genome editing is a technology that give scientists the ability to change an organism’s DNA. This allows genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome. This process was time-consuming and required synthesis and the delivery of a long DNA template. It was not efficient in many mammalian cell types and required multiple steps, including the removal of the genomically integrated selection cassette after the selection. There are three different editing nucleases currently available: ZFNs, TALENs, and CRISPR-Cas9.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Genome editing is a technology that give scientists the ability to change an organism’s DNA. This allows genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome. This process was time-consuming and required synthesis and the delivery of a long DNA template. It was not efficient in many mammalian cell types and required multiple steps, including the removal of the genomically integrated selection cassette after the selection. There are three different editing nucleases currently available: ZFNs, TALENs, and CRISPR-Cas9.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
- It was created in 1967 to encourage creative activity, to promote the protection of intellectual property throughout the world.
- India is a member of WIPO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO):
- The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is one of the 17 specialized agencies of the United Nations.
- It was created in 1967 “to encourage creative activity, to promote the protection of intellectual property throughout the world.”
- It has currently 188 member states, administers 26 international treaties, and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- Non-members are the states of Marshall Islands, Federated States of Micronesia, Nauru, Palau, Solomon Islands, South Sudan and Timor-Leste. Palestine has observer status.
- India is a member of WIPO and party to several treaties administered by WIPO.
India became a signatory of the TRIPS Agreement in the year 1994 but this Agreement entered into force on January 1, 1995 and came across in the world scenario as the most important multilateral agreement on Intellectual Property.
Incorrect
Solution: C
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO):
- The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is one of the 17 specialized agencies of the United Nations.
- It was created in 1967 “to encourage creative activity, to promote the protection of intellectual property throughout the world.”
- It has currently 188 member states, administers 26 international treaties, and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- Non-members are the states of Marshall Islands, Federated States of Micronesia, Nauru, Palau, Solomon Islands, South Sudan and Timor-Leste. Palestine has observer status.
- India is a member of WIPO and party to several treaties administered by WIPO.
India became a signatory of the TRIPS Agreement in the year 1994 but this Agreement entered into force on January 1, 1995 and came across in the world scenario as the most important multilateral agreement on Intellectual Property.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsAnil buys a calculator for Rs 600 and sells it to Vikash at 10% profit. Vikash sells it to Chandan for 5 % profit. Chandan after using it for certain time sells it to Dinesh at a loss of 20%. For how much price Chandan sell the calculator to Dinesh.
Correct
Solution:- C
Selling Price for Chandan = 600 * (110/100) * (105/100) * (80/100)
= 600 * 924/1000
= Rs 554.40
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution:- C
Selling Price for Chandan = 600 * (110/100) * (105/100) * (80/100)
= 600 * 924/1000
= Rs 554.40
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA man sells his car for Rs. 23000 making a profit of 15%. What is the cost price of the car?
Correct
Solution: D
Let the cost price be x.
Selling price = Rs23000
Profit percentage = 15 %
Selling Price= (115/100) * x
Or 23000 = 23x/20
Or x= 23000 * 20/23
Or x = 1000 * 20 = 20000
Incorrect
Solution: D
Let the cost price be x.
Selling price = Rs23000
Profit percentage = 15 %
Selling Price= (115/100) * x
Or 23000 = 23x/20
Or x= 23000 * 20/23
Or x = 1000 * 20 = 20000
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsBy selling a pen at a profit of 60% a man got Rs 92 more than 5/6 of its cost price. What is the cost price of pen?
Correct
Solution: D
Let the cost price = x
Therefore selling price with 60% profit = 160/100 x =8/5 x
It is given that selling price is 92 more than 5/6 of cost price
è (8/5) * x = 5x/6 + 92
- (8/5 – 5/6) * x = 92
- (48x – 25x)/30 = 92
- 23 x/30 = 92
- X= 30 * 92/23
- X = 30 * 4
- X= 120
Therefore, cost price = Rs 120
Incorrect
Solution: D
Let the cost price = x
Therefore selling price with 60% profit = 160/100 x =8/5 x
It is given that selling price is 92 more than 5/6 of cost price
è (8/5) * x = 5x/6 + 92
- (8/5 – 5/6) * x = 92
- (48x – 25x)/30 = 92
- 23 x/30 = 92
- X= 30 * 92/23
- X = 30 * 4
- X= 120
Therefore, cost price = Rs 120
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA man bought a book for Rs.300 and sold it at 30% profit. By using that amount he bought another book and sold it at 10% loss. What is overall profit amount?
Correct
Solution: A
Cost Price of book = Rs 300
With 30 % profit, selling price = 130 * 300/100 = Rs 390.
Cost Price of new book will be Rs390
With 10 % loss, selling price = (90/100) * 390 = (9/10) * 390
= 39 * 9 = Rs351
Therefore, overall profit amount = New Selling price – original cost price
= 351 – 300 = Rs 51.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Cost Price of book = Rs 300
With 30 % profit, selling price = 130 * 300/100 = Rs 390.
Cost Price of new book will be Rs390
With 10 % loss, selling price = (90/100) * 390 = (9/10) * 390
= 39 * 9 = Rs351
Therefore, overall profit amount = New Selling price – original cost price
= 351 – 300 = Rs 51.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsEmpathy is the ability to share and understand the emotions of others. It is a construct of multiple components, each of which is associated with its own brain network. There are three ways of looking at empathy.
First there is affective empathy. This is the ability to share the emotions of others. People who score high on affective empathy are those who, for example, show a strong visceral reaction when watching a scary movie. They feel scared or feel others’ pain strongly within themselves when seeing others scared or in pain.
Cognitive empathy, on the other hand, is the ability to understand the emotions of others. A good example is the psychologist who understands the emotions of the client in a rational way, but does not necessarily share the emotions of the client in a visceral sense.
Finally, there’s emotional regulation. This refers to the ability to regulate one’s emotions. For example, surgeons need to control their emotions when operating on a patient. Another way to understand empathy is to distinguish it from other related constructs. For example, empathy involves self-awareness, as well as distinction between the self and the other. In that sense it is different from mimicry, or imitation.Based on your understanding of the above passage, which of the following is/are true?
I. Getting affected by the plight of beggars is an example of cognitive empathy
II. cognitive empathy is ‘empathy by thought’, rather than by feeling.
III. Affective empathy is inferior to cognitive empathyCorrect
Ans. D.
Statement III is wrong as the passage does not give any view on the comparison between different kinds of empathy. Statement I and II are correct as per reading of the passage. Hence D.
Incorrect
Ans. D.
Statement III is wrong as the passage does not give any view on the comparison between different kinds of empathy. Statement I and II are correct as per reading of the passage. Hence D.
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