DAY – 16(InstaTest-16): Insta 70 Days Revision Plan-2021: Topic – AGRICULTURE, Subject-wise Test 5, 6 & Test 20 Revision , Textbook-wise Tests 16 , August, September 2020 CA Revision

Solution: C

THE SEED ACT, 1966 (Act No. 54 of 1966)

The Act received the asscent of the President on 29th Dec., 66 and was published in issue No.66 of part II Sec. 1- extraordinary Gazette of India dated 30.12.66 and supplemented with Seeds Rules 1968 on 29.08.68. The total draft of seeds Act 1966 and seeds Rules 1968 were brought into effect on 01.10.1969.

OBJECT AND REASONS

In the interest of increased Agricultural production in the country, it is considered to regulate the quality of certain seeds, such as seeds of food crops, cotton, jute etc., to be sold for purpose of Agriculture (including horticulture)

Central Seed Laboratory and State Seed Laboratory

4. (1) The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, establish a Central Seed Laboratory or declare any seed laboratory as the Central Seed Laboratory to carry out the functions entrusted to the Central Seed Laboratory by or under this Act.

(2) The State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, establish one or more State Seed Laboratories or declare any seed laboratory as a State Seed Laboratory where analysis of seeds of any notified kind or variety shall be carried out by Seed Analysts under this Act in the prescribed manner.

The State Government or the Central Government in consultation with the State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, establish a certification agency for the State to carry out the functions entrusted to the certification agency by or under this Act.

https://agritech.tnau.ac.in/amis/pdf/Seed_act_1966.pdf

Solution: B

Definition of seed classes

Nuclear seed : This is the hundred percent genetically pure seed with physical purity and produced by the original breeder/Institute /State Agriculture University (SAU) from basic nucleus seed stock. A pedigree certificate is issued by the producing breeder.

Breeder seed : The progeny of nucleus seed multiplied in large area as per indent of Department of Agriculture and Cooperation (DOAC), Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India, under supervision of plant breeder / institute / SAUs and monitored by a committee consisting of the representatives of state seed certification agency, national / state seed corporations, ICAR nominee and concerned breeder. This is also hundred percent physical and genetic pure seed for production of foundation seed. A golden yellow colour certificate is issued for this category of seed by the producing breeder.

Foundation seed : The progeny of breeder seed produced by recognized seed producing agencies in public and private sector, under supervision of seed certification agencies in such a way that its quality is maintained according to prescribed field ad seed standards. A white colour certificate is issued for foundation seed by seed certification agencies.

Registered seed : Registered seed shall be the progeny of foundation seed that is so handled as to maintain its genetic identity and purity according to standard specified for the particular crop being certified. A purple colour certificate is issued for this category of seed.

Certified seed : The progeny of foundation seed produced by registered seed growers under supervision of seed certification agencies to maintain the seed quality as per minimum seed certification standards. A blue colour certificate is issued by seed certification agency for this category of seed.

The foundation and certified seeds can be multiplied at stage 1 and II, but the reproduction can not exceed three generations after breeder seed.

https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-inputs/seeds/classes-of-seeds

Solution: B

Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Programme for Fertilizers was initiated in the year 2010.

• Under the scheme, a fixed amount of subsidy decided on an annual basis is provided on each grade of subsidized Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers, except for Urea, based on the nutrient content present in them.
• The scheme is administered by the Department of Fertilizers under the Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.
• In a recent development, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the proposal of the Department of Fertilizers for the continuation of the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) till 2019-20.
• The continuation of the Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme will ensure that an adequate quantity of P&K is made available to the farmers at a statutory controlled price.

The aims of the NBS scheme are the following:

• The scheme aims at ensuring that a sufficient quantity of P&K is at the farmer’s disposal at statutory controlled prices so that agricultural growth can be sustained and balanced nutrient application to the soil can be ensured.
• It aims at ensuring the balanced use of fertilizers, improving agricultural productivity, promoting the growth of the indigenous fertilizer industry, and also reducing the burden of subsidy.

Solution: A

Sprinkler irrigation system allows application of water under high pressure with the help of a pump. It releases water similar to rainfall through a small diameter nozzle placed in the pipes. Water is distributed through a system of pipes, sprayed into air and irrigates in most of the soil type due to wide range of discharge capacity.

Advantages

• Eliminates water conveyance channels, thereby reducing conveyance loss.
• Suitable in all types of soil except heavy clay.
• Water saving up to 30% – 50 %.
• Suitable for irrigation where the plant population per unit area is very high.
• Helps to increase yield.
• Reduces soil compaction.
• Mobility of system helps system operation easy.
• Suitable for undulating land.
• Saves land as no bunds required.
• Soluble fertilizers and chemicals use are possible.
• Provides frost protection & helps in alteration of micro climate.
• Reduces labour cost.

Solution: B

The Spiti area of Himachal Pradesh (a province in India) is a cold desert but surprisingly, agriculture is its mainstay. Spiti’s lunar-like terrain was transformed into an agrarian success story by an ingenious system, devised centuries ago to tap distant glaciers for water. But short-sighted developmental policies, though well-intentioned, now threaten both this unique irrigation system and the social consciousness that spawned it.

Spiti is an important trading post on the route connecting Ladakh and the plains of Himachal Pradesh. Villages in the Spiti subdivision are located between 3,000 m and 4,000 m, which means they are snowbound six months a year. Rainfall is negligible in Spiti because it is a rainshadow area. The soil is dry and lacks organic matter. But, despite these handicaps, the Spiti valley has been made habitable and productive by human ingenuity.

But Spiti’s unique contribution to farming is kul irrigation, which utilises kuls (diversion channels) to carry water from glacier to village. The kuls often span long distances, running down precipitous mountain slopes and across crags and crevices. Some kuls are 10 km long, and have existed for centuries.

The crucial portion of a kul is its head at the glacier, which is to be tapped. The head must be kept free of debris, and so the kul is lined with stones to prevent clogging and seepage. In the village, the kul leads to a circular tank from which the flow of water can be regulated. For example, when there is need to irrigate, water is let out of the tank in a trickle. Water from the kul is collected through the night and released into the exit channel in the morning. By evening, the tank is practically empty, and the exit is closed. This cycle is repeated daily. The kul system succeeds because Spiti residents mutually cooperate and share. The culture also is instrumental in maintaining the carrying capacity of the surrounding cultivable land. However, this system, carefully nurtured through the centuries, now runs the risk of being upset through government intervention.

http://www.rainwaterharvesting.org/methods/traditional/kuls.htm

Solution: C

GENESIS & VISION

The importance of institutional credit in boosting rural economy has been clear to the Government of India right from its early stages of planning. Therefore, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at the insistence of the Government of India, constituted a Committee to Review the Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development (CRAFICARD) to look into these very critical aspects. The Committee was formed on 30 March 1979, under the Chairmanship of Shri B. Sivaraman, former member of Planning Commission, Government of India.

The Committee’s interim report, submitted on 28 November 1979, outlined the need for a new organisational device for providing undivided attention, forceful direction and pointed focus to credit related issues linked with rural development. Its recommendation was formation of a unique development financial institution which would address these aspirations and formation of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was approved by the Parliament through Act 61 of 1981.

NABARD came into existence on 12 July 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). It was dedicated to the service of the nation by the late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi on 05 November 1982. Set up with an initial capital of Rs.100 crore, its’ paid up capital stood at Rs.14,080 crore as on 31 March 2020. Consequent to the revision in the composition of share capital between Government of India and RBI, NABARD today is fully owned by Government of India.

VISION

Development Bank of the Nation for Fostering Rural Prosperity.

MISSION

Promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural development through participative financial and non-financial interventions, innovations, technology and institutional development for securing prosperity.

Solution: D

What is the definition of an ‘essential commodity’?

There is no specific definition of essential commodities in The EC Act. Section 2(A) of the act states that an “essential commodity” means a commodity specified in the “Schedule” of this Act.

The Act gives powers to the central government to add or remove a commodity in the “Schedule.” The Centre, if it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in public interest, can notify an item as essential, in consultation with state governments.

At present, the “Schedule” contains 9 commodities — drugs; fertilisers, whether inorganic, organic or mixed; foodstuffs, including edible oils; hank yarn made wholly from cotton; petroleum and petroleum products; raw jute and jute textiles; seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables, seeds of cattle fodder, jute seed, cotton seed; face masks; and hand sanitisers.

The latest items added to this schedule are face masks and hand sanitisers, which were declared essential commodities with effect from March 13, 2020 in the wake of Covid-19 outbreak.

By declaring a commodity as essential, the government can control the production, supply, and distribution of that commodity, and impose a stock limit.

How and under what circumstances can the government impose stock limits?

Under the amended EC Act, agri-food stuffs can only be regulated under extraordinary circumstances such as war, famine, extraordinary price rise, and natural calamity.

However, any action on imposing stock limits will be based on the price trigger.

Thus, in case of horticultural produce, a 100 per cent increase in the retail price of the commodity over the immediately preceding 12 months or the average retail price of the last five years, whichever is lower, will be the trigger for invoking the stock limit for such commodities.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/essential-commodities-act-amendments-explained-6442362/

Solution: B

Pricing policy for sugarcane

The pricing of sugarcane is governed by the statutory provisions of the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 issued under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955. Prior to 2009-10 sugar season, the Central Government was fixing the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane and farmers were entitled to share profits of a sugar mill on 50:50 basis.

As this sharing of profits remained virtually unimplemented, the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 was amended in October, 2009 and the concept of SMP was replaced by the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane. A new clause ‘reasonable margins for growers of sugarcane on account of risk and profits’ was inserted as an additional factor for working out FRP and this was made effective from the 2009-10 sugar season. Accordingly, the CACP is required to pay due regard to the statutory factors listed in the Control Order, which are

• the cost of production of sugarcane;
• the return to the grower from alternative crops and the general trend of prices of agricultural commodities;
• the availability of sugar to the consumers at a fair price;
• the price of sugar;
• the recovery rate of sugar from sugarcane;
• the realization made from sale of by-products viz. molasses, bagasse and press mud or their imputed value (inserted in December, 2008) and;
• reasonable margins for growers of sugarcane on account of risk and profits (inserted in October, 2009).

States also announce a price called the State Advisory Price (SAP), which is usually higher than the SMP.

Solution: A

Commercial banks are the largest institutional lenders for agriculture sector in India.

Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) is a saving instrument ( But not tax saving instrument) launched by the Government for individual savers, wherein invested money doubled during the maturity period. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

This savings scheme was first launched by the Government on 1 April, 1988 and was distributed through post offices. It was discontinued in 2011 and later reintroduced in 2014.

The maturity period of the scheme is around 100 months and the money invested doubled on maturity. However, KVP is not a tax saving instrument as it does not offer any income tax exemption.

http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Kisan_Credit_Card

http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Kisan_Vikas_Patra_(KVP)

Solution: A

The concept of Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is distinct from, and more complex than, a conventional heritage site or protected area/landscape. A GIAHS is a living, evolving system of human communities in an intricate relationship with their territory, cultural or agricultural landscape or biophysical and wider social environment.

Designated sites mean the sites which have already been designated as GIAHS throughout designation process.

• Saffron Heritage of Kashmir –  2011
• Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System – 2013.

Organic Jaggery Production, Mandya is not in the list of GIAHS.

Solution: C

Adi Shankara was an Indian philosopher and theologian who expounded the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Shankaracharya amalgamated the ideologies of ancient ‘Advaita Vedanta’ and also explained the basic ideas of Upanishads. He advocated the oldest concept of Hinduism which explains the unification of the soul (atman) with the Supreme Soul (Nirguna Brahman).

He also founded ‘Dashanami Sampradaya,’ which talks about leading a monastic life. While Shankaracharya was a firm believer in ancient Hinduism, he condemned the ‘Mimamsa school of Hinduism’ which was purely based on ritual practices.

Shankaracharya founded four monasteries (mathas) (Sringeri, Dwaraka, Jogirmatha and Govardhana Matha) that continue to spread his teachings.

Adi Shankaracharya is renowned for his spectacular commentaries on ancient texts. His review of ‘Brahma Sutra’ is known as ‘Brahmasutrabhasya’, and it is the oldest surviving commentary on ‘Brahma Sutra’.

He also wrote commentaries on Bhagavad Gita, and the ten principal Upanishads.

Adi Shankaracharya is also well-known for his ‘stotras’ (poems). He composed many poems, praising gods and goddesses. The ones dedicated to Krishna and Shiva are considered most important among his ‘stotras’.

He also composed the famous ‘Upadesasahasri’ which literally translates to ‘a thousand teachings.’ ‘Upadesasahasri’ is one of his most important philosophical works.

He advocated the existence of the soul and the Supreme Soul. He believed that the Supreme Soul alone is real and unchanging while the soul is a changing entity and that it does not have absolute existence.

Source: Yojana, January 2021

Solution: A

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has developed the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program to meet the electronic tolling requirements of the Indian market. It offers an interoperable nationwide toll payment solution including clearing house services for settlement and dispute management. Interoperability, as it applies to National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) system, encompasses a common set of processes, business rules and technical specifications which enable a customer to use their FASTag as payment mode on any of the toll plazas irrespective of who has acquired the toll plaza. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion. FASTag (RFID Tag) is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables a customer to make the toll payments directly from the account which is linked to FASTag. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

FASTag is also vehicle specific and once it is affixed to a vehicle, it cannot be transferred to another vehicle. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://www.npci.org.in/what-we-do/netc-fastag/product-overview

Source: Yojana, January 2021

Solution: A

Historical sources indicate that the Nalanda University had a long and illustrious life which lasted almost continually for 800 years from the fifth to the twelfth century CE. It was a completely residential university believed to have 2,000 teachers and 10,000 students. It is believed to be founded by Kumaragupta I during the Gupta period.

Nalanda flourished under the patronage of the Gupta Empire in the 5th and 6th centuries, and later under Harsha, the emperor of Kannauj.

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

The Valabhi University was an important centre of Buddhist learning and championed the cause of Hinayana Buddhism between 600 CE and 1200 CE. Valabhi was the capital of the Maitraka empire during the period 480-775 CE.

Chandragupta Maurya (reign: 321–297 BCE) was the founder of the Maurya Empire in ancient India. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

The Vikramshila University came into being and was founded by King Dharmapala of Pala dynasty. The king granted land endorsement for its upkeep. Other Pala rulers also continued the patronage to the institution Vikramshila developed as an important and exclusive centre of a new sect.

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Solution: C

In 1017, when Sultan Mahmud invaded Khwarizm, he took several scholars and poets back to his capital, Ghazni; Al-Biruni was one of them. He arrived in Ghazni as a hostage. Al-Biruni’s Kitab-ul-Hind, written in Arabic, is simple and lucid. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched

Ibn Battuta’s book of travels, called Rihla, written in Arabic, provides extremely rich and interesting details about the social and cultural life in the subcontinent in the fourteenth century. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

The Gita Govinda is a work composed by the 12th-century Hindu poet, Jayadeva. It describes the relationship between Krishna and the gopis of Vrindavana, and in particular one gopi named Radha.

The Mitakṣara is best known for its theory of “inheritance by birth.” It was written by Vijnanesvara, a scholar in the Western Chalukya court in the late eleventh and early twelfth century.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Firdausi was a Persian poet and the author of Shahnameh, which is one of the world’s longest epic poems created by a single poet, and the national epic of Greater Iran.

Al-Kitab al-Yamini is a history of the early Ghaznavid dynasty, composed in Arabic sometime after 1020 by Muhammad ibn Utbi.

Solution: C

Recently, India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle PSLV-C51 successfully launched Amazonia-1 along with 18 co-passenger satellites (February 28, 2021) from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota.

Amazonia-1 is the optical earth observation satellite of National Institute for Space Research (INPE). This satellite would further strengthen the existing structure by providing remote sensing data to users for monitoring deforestation in the Amazon region and analysis of diversified agriculture across the Brazilian territory.

PSLV-C51/Amazonia-1 is the first dedicated commercial mission of NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), a Government of India company under Department of Space.

https://www.isro.gov.in/launcher/pslv-c51-amazonia-1

Source: Yojana, January 2021

Solution: C

Considering the strategic nature of air-breathing technology which has the potential to bring a significant shift in the launch vehicle design, worldwide efforts are on to develop the technology for air breathing engines. Ramjet, Scramjet and Dual Mode Ramjet (DMRJ) are the three concepts of air-breathing engines which are being developed by various space agencies.

A ramjet is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle’s forward motion to compress incoming air for combustion without a rotating compressor. Fuel is injected in the combustion chamber where it mixes with the hot compressed air and ignites. A ramjet-powered vehicle requires an assisted take-off like a rocket assist to accelerate it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust.

Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3 (three times the speed of sound) and can operate up to speeds of Mach 6. However, the ramjet efficiency starts to drop when the vehicle reaches hypersonic speeds.

A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet.

A dual mode ramjet (DMRJ) is a type of jet engine where a ramjet transforms into scramjet over Mach 4-8 range, which means it can efficiently operate both in subsonic and supersonic combustor modes.

An important development in ISRO’s Air Breathing Propulsion Project (ABPP) occurred on August 28, 2016, which was the successful flight testing of its Scramjet.

This first experimental mission of ISRO’s Scramjet Engine towards the realisation of an Air Breathing Propulsion System was successfully conducted from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota.

With this flight, critical technologies such as ignition of air breathing engines at supersonic speed, holding the flame at supersonic speed, air intake mechanism and fuel injection systems have been successfully demonstrated.

The Scramjet engine designed by ISRO uses Hydrogen as fuel and the Oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidiser.

The August 28 test was the maiden short duration experimental test of ISRO’s Scramjet engine with a hypersonic flight at Mach 6. ISRO’s Advanced Technology Vehicle (ATV), which is an advanced sounding rocket, was the solid rocket booster used for this recent test of Scramjet engines at supersonic conditions.  ATV carrying Scramjet engines weighed 3277 kg at lift-off.

Some of the technological challenges handled by ISRO during the development of Scramjet engine include the design and development of Hypersonic engine air intake, the supersonic combustor, development of materials withstanding very high temperatures, computational tools to simulate hypersonic flow, ensuring performance and operability of the engine across a wide range of flight speeds, proper thermal management and ground testing of the engines.

India is the fourth country to demonstrate the flight testing of a Scramjet Engine. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

https://www.isro.gov.in/launchers/isro%E2%80%99s-scramjet-engine-technology-demonstrator-successfully-flight-tested

Source: Yojana, January 2021

Solution: B

The Digital Payments Index (DPI) went live on January 1, 2021 as a measure to keep a check on digital payments penetration in India. Payment enablers, payment infra (supply and demand), payment performance and consumer centricity will be measured. For the DPI, the RBI has set the base year as of March 2018

Source: Yojana, January 2021

Solution: A

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The committee is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). Presently, it has 24 members and meets every month to review the applications in the areas indicated above.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: C

Gol Gumbaz is the most famous monument in Vijayapura. It is the tomb of Mohammed Adil Shah (ruled 1627–1657). It is the second largest dome ever built, next in size only to St Peter’s Basilica in Rome.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

A particular attraction in this monument is the central chamber, where every sound is echoed seven times. Another attraction at the Gol Gumbaz is the Whispering Gallery, where even minute sounds can be hear clearly 37 metres away.

Gol Gumbaz complex includes a mosque, a Naqqar Khana (a hall for the trumpeters) (now it is used as museum) and the ruins of guest houses.

Its vast dome is said to be the Second Largest Dome, unsupported by pillars, in the world, after St. Peter’s in the Vatican City of Rome.

It is constructed in such a way that even a pin drop can be heard distinctly from across a space of 38 m, in the Whispering Gallery

Source: Yojana, January 2021

Solution: B

Source: Yojana, January 2021

Solution: C

Human Capital Index 2020:

The World Bank has recently released the report titled ‘The Human Capital Index 2020

Update: Human Capital in the Time of COVID-19’. This report presents an update to the Human Capital Index (HCI), using the most recent health and education data available as of 2020. It documents new evidence on trends over time in the HCI, examples of success, and new analytical work on utilization of human capital, as well as a primer on the COVID-19 (coronavirus) pandemic and its potential impact on human capital. COVID-19 is taking a tremendous toll on lives and economies.

Solution: B

The Inner Line Permit is an official travel document that allows Indian citizens to stay in an area under the ILP system. The document is currently required by visitors to Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland and Mizoram.

The ILP is issued by the concerned state government and can be availed both by applying online or in person. The permits issued are mostly of different kinds, provided separately for tourists, tenants and for other purposes.

Solution: D

Pamba River: It rises at an altitude of 1650m in the Peermade Plateau in the Idukki district of Kerala. It joins the Arabian Sea branching into a number of channels. The entire catchment area of Pamba lies in Kerala state.

Achankovil River: The river rises in the Western Ghats in Pathanamthitta district of Kerala at an elevation of 700m. It joins the Pamba River at Veeyapuram. The river basin extends over an area of 1484 km2 and lies entirely in Kerala State.

Vaippar River: The river rises from the eastern slopes of the Varushanad hill range of the Western Ghats at an elevation of about 1500m in Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu. It flows in an easterly and southeasterly direction before joining the Gulf of Mannar.

The Malaprabha River is a tributary of the Krishna River and flows through the state of Karnataka in India. It rises in the Western Ghats at an elevation of 792.4 m in the state’s Belgaum district. The river joins Krishna River at Kudalasangama in Bagalkot district.

Solution: C

“Open Skies” treaty

• The treaty allows 34 countries to conduct unarmed surveillance flights over one another’s territories — including the US and Russia. It was signed in 1992 and went into effect in 2002.
• Kyrgyzstan has signed, but not ratified the treaty.
• Both US and Russia are signatories of the treaty.
• India, China are not members to the treaty

Significance:

• It was agreed just after the Cold War to allow signatories to avoid nasty surprises by monitoring rival militaries.
• The treaty “was designed to enhance mutual understanding and confidence by giving all participants, regardless of size, a direct role in gathering information through aerial imaging on military forces and activities of concern to them.”

Implementation of the treaty:

• The treaty makes it possible to conduct joint unarmed observation flights over the territories and to take images using sensors of a predefined resolution.
• And it also allows all signatories to request copies of all images taken during overflights carried out by others.
• Overflights are governed by quotas, negotiated annually and assigned to specific aircraft. The United States, for example, is allowed to operate Boeing OC-135 planes with infrared scanners.
• The country under surveillance is given 72 hours’ warning of a flight and 24 hours’ notice of the route, to which it can suggest modifications.
• The treaty lays down which air bases can be used for the flights and at which points they can cross into each other’s air space. Russia and the U.S. have four such bases each.
• A committee to oversee the implementation of the treaty meets in Vienna every month at the headquarters of the Organisation of Security and Cooperation (OSCE) in Europe.

Solution: C

Andean Community (Comunidad Andina, CAN)

• customs union of the South American countries
• members: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Peru Venezuela joined the Pact in 1973 but withdrew in 2006 after Colombia and Peru signed Free Trade Agreements with USA
• Formed: Cartagena Agreement in 1969
• Headquarters: Lima, Peru
• Aim: encourage industrial, agricultural, social, and trade cooperation among members promoting the independence and strength of the regional economy.

CAN community deals with the following issues:

• Trade in Goods
• Trade in Services
• Customs Union
• Circulation of Persons
• Common Market
• Common Foreign Policy
• Border Development
• Social Agenda
• Sustainable Development
• Economic Policies

Solution:- B

We assume that after the period of x month B joined the business.

Capital of A = (21000*12)=Rs. 252000

Capital of B = {36000* (12-x) }= Rs. (432000-36000x)

252000= 432000- 36000x ⇒ 36000x= 180000 ⇒ x= 5

Hence, B joined after 5 months.

Solution: C

Let’s assume the cost price of rice be Rs. 100 per kg.

Therefore, total cost price = Quantity of Rice × Price per kg = 750 × 100 = Rs. 75,000.
It is given that, the remaining part is 2/5 th of the total and was sold at 15% loss. Thus, the first part is 3/5th of the total.

Let us assume that 3/5th part is sold at x% profit.
Therefore, Net profit on this part = 3/5 × 75000 × x/100 = Rs. 450x.
Net loss on 2/5th part = 2/5 × 75000 × 15/100 = Rs. 4,500.
According to the question, there is no net profit or loss. So, the profit made on 3/5th part must be equal to the loss made on 2/5th part.

Therefore, 450x = 4500.
Or x = 10%

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Solution: B

Let the selling price of one pen be = S
Thus, selling price of 100 pens is 100S
It is given that; profit is equal to selling price of 40 pens (40 S)
Thus, cost price of 100 pens is (100 S- 40 S= 60 S)
Thus, on cost price of 60 S profit is 40 S
Thus, profit percent = (40S/60S) X 100= 66.67%

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: A

(Selling Price of 33m) – (Cost Price of 33m) = Gain = Selling Price of 11m

∴ SP of 22m = CP of 33m

Let CP of each meter be Re 1. Then, CP of 22m = Re 22.

Hence SP of 22m = Re 33.

∴ %Gain = 11/22 * 100

= 50%

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Ans. B.

A is wrong as this goes against the message being conveyed by the passage. It is not the measures per se which has exacerbated poverty. Not focussing on poverty has led to this problem being ignored. C is not a corollary and is not being implied by the passage. D is wrong as the statement is not being implied by the passage. B is the most accurate option.