INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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- Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Multi-layer farming
- It refers to growing and cultivating plants at different heights on the same field and at the same time.
- Sugarcane and rice are usually grown using this farming method
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the disadvantages of Monocropping?
- Deterioration of soil nutrients
- Alteration of natural ecosystem
- Pollution of groundwater
Select the correct answer using the code give below
CorrectSolution: D
Disadvantages of Monoculture
- Destroys soil nutrients
Naturally, the soil contains nutrients and other functions. Monoculture eliminates all such functions due to the practice of only planting or rearing one type of crop or animal breed, respectively. As a result, there is no range of insect and soil microorganism species due to the lack of crop diversity that promotes insect and soil microbe biodiversity.
It also means there are no varieties in the plants to naturally provide nutrients to the soil that can improve the nutrient content of the soil. Also, it kills microorganisms and bacteria in the land, undermining its integrity.
- Results in the use of harmful chemicals
With the nutrients in the soil eliminated, farmers have to introduce artificial products that could replicate the functions and nutrients lost like the introduction of large amounts of herbicides, fertilizers, bactericides, and insecticides.
These synthetic chemicals are used to prevent further damage to their crops by harmful insects, bacteria and weeds. Unfortunately, the chemicals leave traces in crops meant for human consumption, meaning they end up in the food chain and could result in serious health consequences due to bio-accumulation.
- Pollutes groundwater supplies
Even if the plant is harvested, the chemicals remain in the soil. Since they are inorganic, they cannot be processed by microorganisms in the soil into organic matter. They leach through the ground and eventually pollute groundwater supplies and altering ecosystems that may be great distances away from the location of use. In the long-run, the chemicals may kill, harm, or deplete the diversity and vibrancy of neighboring ecosystems.
- Adversely affects and alters the natural ecosystem
The overuse of such inorganic chemicals forces organisms to evolve and develop resistances to artificial insecticides and herbicides. As more and more inorganic compounds continue to be poured into the soil, it continues to affect natural ecosystems detrimentally.
- Destroys the overall soil’s degradation and erosion
The use of chemical fertilizers in monoculture farming also destroys the soil’s health. When the crops are harvested, there remains no natural protection for the soil from erosion by wind or rain. Also, the topsoil does not become replenished, mainly because of erosions.
All of these combined further degrade the soil, making it unusable for agriculture. It might also lead some people to clearing forests to acquire new agricultural lands, starting the damaging cycle all over again.
- Requires lots of water to irrigate
Since monoculture results in the topsoil cover being harvested all at the same time, the topsoil loses elements that could help it retain moisture. Contemporary monoculture agricultural practices, therefore, require vast amounts of water to irrigate the crops.
The water is pumped from rivers, lakes, and water reservoirs at high rates, depleting the aquatic resources. It also means the water resources will, in turn, be affected by the inorganic chemicals being pumped into the crops and soil by the farmers.
https://www.conserve-energy-future.com/advantages-disadvantages-examples-monoculture.php
IncorrectSolution: D
Disadvantages of Monoculture
- Destroys soil nutrients
Naturally, the soil contains nutrients and other functions. Monoculture eliminates all such functions due to the practice of only planting or rearing one type of crop or animal breed, respectively. As a result, there is no range of insect and soil microorganism species due to the lack of crop diversity that promotes insect and soil microbe biodiversity.
It also means there are no varieties in the plants to naturally provide nutrients to the soil that can improve the nutrient content of the soil. Also, it kills microorganisms and bacteria in the land, undermining its integrity.
- Results in the use of harmful chemicals
With the nutrients in the soil eliminated, farmers have to introduce artificial products that could replicate the functions and nutrients lost like the introduction of large amounts of herbicides, fertilizers, bactericides, and insecticides.
These synthetic chemicals are used to prevent further damage to their crops by harmful insects, bacteria and weeds. Unfortunately, the chemicals leave traces in crops meant for human consumption, meaning they end up in the food chain and could result in serious health consequences due to bio-accumulation.
- Pollutes groundwater supplies
Even if the plant is harvested, the chemicals remain in the soil. Since they are inorganic, they cannot be processed by microorganisms in the soil into organic matter. They leach through the ground and eventually pollute groundwater supplies and altering ecosystems that may be great distances away from the location of use. In the long-run, the chemicals may kill, harm, or deplete the diversity and vibrancy of neighboring ecosystems.
- Adversely affects and alters the natural ecosystem
The overuse of such inorganic chemicals forces organisms to evolve and develop resistances to artificial insecticides and herbicides. As more and more inorganic compounds continue to be poured into the soil, it continues to affect natural ecosystems detrimentally.
- Destroys the overall soil’s degradation and erosion
The use of chemical fertilizers in monoculture farming also destroys the soil’s health. When the crops are harvested, there remains no natural protection for the soil from erosion by wind or rain. Also, the topsoil does not become replenished, mainly because of erosions.
All of these combined further degrade the soil, making it unusable for agriculture. It might also lead some people to clearing forests to acquire new agricultural lands, starting the damaging cycle all over again.
- Requires lots of water to irrigate
Since monoculture results in the topsoil cover being harvested all at the same time, the topsoil loses elements that could help it retain moisture. Contemporary monoculture agricultural practices, therefore, require vast amounts of water to irrigate the crops.
The water is pumped from rivers, lakes, and water reservoirs at high rates, depleting the aquatic resources. It also means the water resources will, in turn, be affected by the inorganic chemicals being pumped into the crops and soil by the farmers.
https://www.conserve-energy-future.com/advantages-disadvantages-examples-monoculture.php
- Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘System of Rice Intensification’ (SRI)
- SRI demands high water and gives more yields.
- SRI is widely practiced in northern part of India.
- SRI requires less quantity of seeds compare to conventional form of rice cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible, starting with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that actively aerates the soil.
Benefits of SRI
- Higher yields – Both grain and straw
- Reduced duration (by 10 days)
- Lesser chemical inputs
- Less water requirement
- Less chaffy grain %
- Grain weight increased without change in grain size
- Higher head rice recovery
- Withstand cyclonic gales
- Cold tolerance
- Soil health improves through biological activity
Disadvantages
- Higher labour costs in the initial years
- Difficulties in acquiring the necessary skills
- Not suitable when no irrigation source available
It is not widely practiced in Southern Parts of India.
IncorrectSolution: B
The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible, starting with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that actively aerates the soil.
Benefits of SRI
- Higher yields – Both grain and straw
- Reduced duration (by 10 days)
- Lesser chemical inputs
- Less water requirement
- Less chaffy grain %
- Grain weight increased without change in grain size
- Higher head rice recovery
- Withstand cyclonic gales
- Cold tolerance
- Soil health improves through biological activity
Disadvantages
- Higher labour costs in the initial years
- Difficulties in acquiring the necessary skills
- Not suitable when no irrigation source available
It is not widely practiced in Southern Parts of India.
- Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mycorrhizal technology
- Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association between a green plant and a fungus.
- It can be used to reduce alkalinity in soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Mycorrhizal fungi is hosted by the trees in their roots to receive nutrients from the soil. These fungi provide essential nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium from soil in exchange for carbon from the tree.
This plant-fungal symbiotic relationship is crucial for the health of the tree. However, high levels of the nutrition elements like nitrogen and phosphorus in the mycorrhizae changes them to act as pollutants rather than nutrients.
IncorrectSolution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Mycorrhizal fungi is hosted by the trees in their roots to receive nutrients from the soil. These fungi provide essential nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium from soil in exchange for carbon from the tree.
This plant-fungal symbiotic relationship is crucial for the health of the tree. However, high levels of the nutrition elements like nitrogen and phosphorus in the mycorrhizae changes them to act as pollutants rather than nutrients.
- Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the advantages of Smart Agriculture?
- Real-Time Data Availability
- Lowered Operation Costs
- Increased Quality of Production
Select the correct answer using the code given below
CorrectSolution: A
Smart Agriculture Solution Benefits
Increased Production
Optimized crop treatment such as accurate planting, watering, pesticide application and harvesting directly affects production rates.
Water Conservation
Weather predictions and soil moisture sensors allow for water use only when and where needed.
Real-Time Data and Production Insight
Farmers can visualize production levels, soil moisture, sunlight intensity and more in real time and remotely to accelerate decision making process.
Lowered Operation Costs
Automating processes in planting, treatment and harvesting can reduce resource consumption, human error and overall cost.
Increased Quality of Production
Analyzing production quality and results in correlation to treatment can teach farmers to adjust processes to increase quality of the product.
Accurate Farm and Field Evaluation
Accurately tracking production rates by field over time allows for detailed predicting of future crop yield and value of a farm.
Improved Livestock Farming
Sensors and machines can be used to detect reproduction and health events earlier in animals. Geofencing location tracking can also improve livestock monitoring and management.
Reduced Environmental Footprint
All conservation efforts such as water usage and increased production per land unit directly affect the environmental footprint positively.
Remote Monitoring
Local and commercial farmers can monitor multiple fields in multiple locations around the globe from an internet connection. Decisions can be made in real-time and from anywhere.
Equipment Monitoring
Farming equipment can be monitored and maintained according to production rates, labor effectiveness and failure prediction.
IncorrectSolution: A
Smart Agriculture Solution Benefits
Increased Production
Optimized crop treatment such as accurate planting, watering, pesticide application and harvesting directly affects production rates.
Water Conservation
Weather predictions and soil moisture sensors allow for water use only when and where needed.
Real-Time Data and Production Insight
Farmers can visualize production levels, soil moisture, sunlight intensity and more in real time and remotely to accelerate decision making process.
Lowered Operation Costs
Automating processes in planting, treatment and harvesting can reduce resource consumption, human error and overall cost.
Increased Quality of Production
Analyzing production quality and results in correlation to treatment can teach farmers to adjust processes to increase quality of the product.
Accurate Farm and Field Evaluation
Accurately tracking production rates by field over time allows for detailed predicting of future crop yield and value of a farm.
Improved Livestock Farming
Sensors and machines can be used to detect reproduction and health events earlier in animals. Geofencing location tracking can also improve livestock monitoring and management.
Reduced Environmental Footprint
All conservation efforts such as water usage and increased production per land unit directly affect the environmental footprint positively.
Remote Monitoring
Local and commercial farmers can monitor multiple fields in multiple locations around the globe from an internet connection. Decisions can be made in real-time and from anywhere.
Equipment Monitoring
Farming equipment can be monitored and maintained according to production rates, labor effectiveness and failure prediction.
- Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Model Contract Farming Act, 2018
- Contracted produce is to be covered under crop / livestock insurance in operation.
- No permanent structure can be developed on farmers’ land/premises
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Salient features of Model Contract Farming Act, 2018
- The Act lays special emphasis on protecting the interests of the farmers, considering them as weaker of the two parties entering into a contract.
- In addition to contract farming, services contracts all along the value chain including pre-production, production and post-production have been included.
- “Registering and Agreement Recording Committee” or an “Officer” for the purpose at district/block/ taluka level for online registration of sponsor and recording of agreement provided.
- Contracted produce is to be covered under crop / livestock insurance in operation.
- Contract framing to be outside the ambit of APMC Act.
- No permanent structure can be developed on farmers’ land/premises
- No right, title of interest of the land shall vest in the sponsor.
- Promotion of Farmer Producer Organization (FPOs) / Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs) to mobilize small and marginal farmers has been provided.
- FPO/FPC can be a contracting party if so authorized by the farmers.
- No rights, title ownership or possession to be transferred or alienated or vested in the contract farming sponsor etc.
- Ensuring buying of entire pre-agreed quantity of one or more of agricultural produce, livestock or its product of contract farming producer as per contract.
- Contract Farming Facilitation Group (CFFG) for promoting contract farming and services at village / panchayat level provided.
- Accessible and simple dispute settlement mechanism at the lowest level possible provided for quick disposal of disputes.
- It is a promotional and facilitative Act and not regulatory in its structure.
IncorrectSolution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Salient features of Model Contract Farming Act, 2018
- The Act lays special emphasis on protecting the interests of the farmers, considering them as weaker of the two parties entering into a contract.
- In addition to contract farming, services contracts all along the value chain including pre-production, production and post-production have been included.
- “Registering and Agreement Recording Committee” or an “Officer” for the purpose at district/block/ taluka level for online registration of sponsor and recording of agreement provided.
- Contracted produce is to be covered under crop / livestock insurance in operation.
- Contract framing to be outside the ambit of APMC Act.
- No permanent structure can be developed on farmers’ land/premises
- No right, title of interest of the land shall vest in the sponsor.
- Promotion of Farmer Producer Organization (FPOs) / Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs) to mobilize small and marginal farmers has been provided.
- FPO/FPC can be a contracting party if so authorized by the farmers.
- No rights, title ownership or possession to be transferred or alienated or vested in the contract farming sponsor etc.
- Ensuring buying of entire pre-agreed quantity of one or more of agricultural produce, livestock or its product of contract farming producer as per contract.
- Contract Farming Facilitation Group (CFFG) for promoting contract farming and services at village / panchayat level provided.
- Accessible and simple dispute settlement mechanism at the lowest level possible provided for quick disposal of disputes.
- It is a promotional and facilitative Act and not regulatory in its structure.
- Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013
- It replaces Land Acquisition Act, 1894.
- It provides for Social Impact Assessment
- It mandates to have 90% consent in PPP projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Why in News?
Chief Justice of India (CJI) Sharad A. Bobde has questioned the infallibility of a land acquisition judgment delivered by a Constitution Bench, led by his former colleague, Justice Arun Mishra, saying the verdict had left things “unsaid”.
Important observations made by CJI:
The order gifted the government “laxity” in several aspects, which even Parliament did not bother to provide under the Act of 2013.
- The verdict did not specify for how long the government could possess a land acquired without paying compensation.
Background:
In March this year, the Supreme Court Constitution Bench had reaffirmed the February 2018 ruling on Section 24 on land acquisition compensation awards in the Indore Development Authority case.
What’s the issue?
The judgment of the Constitution Bench was interpreting Section 24 (2) of the 2013 Act, which dealt with payment of compensation for land acquired by the government.
- It said acquisition would not lapse as long as the government earmarked the compensation money by paying it into the treasury. In short, the money need not actually reach the farmer or the landowner.
- Acquisition would also not lapse just because the farmer refused the compensation and claimed higher.
- Similarly, there was no lapse in acquisition if the compensation had been paid but possession not taken of the land.
When would it lapse then?
The judgment had declared that acquisition would only lapse if the government had neither taken possession nor paid the compensation due to the landowner for five or more years prior to January 1, 2014.
It requires 70% consent for PPP projects. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectSolution: A
Why in News?
Chief Justice of India (CJI) Sharad A. Bobde has questioned the infallibility of a land acquisition judgment delivered by a Constitution Bench, led by his former colleague, Justice Arun Mishra, saying the verdict had left things “unsaid”.
Important observations made by CJI:
The order gifted the government “laxity” in several aspects, which even Parliament did not bother to provide under the Act of 2013.
- The verdict did not specify for how long the government could possess a land acquired without paying compensation.
Background:
In March this year, the Supreme Court Constitution Bench had reaffirmed the February 2018 ruling on Section 24 on land acquisition compensation awards in the Indore Development Authority case.
What’s the issue?
The judgment of the Constitution Bench was interpreting Section 24 (2) of the 2013 Act, which dealt with payment of compensation for land acquired by the government.
- It said acquisition would not lapse as long as the government earmarked the compensation money by paying it into the treasury. In short, the money need not actually reach the farmer or the landowner.
- Acquisition would also not lapse just because the farmer refused the compensation and claimed higher.
- Similarly, there was no lapse in acquisition if the compensation had been paid but possession not taken of the land.
When would it lapse then?
The judgment had declared that acquisition would only lapse if the government had neither taken possession nor paid the compensation due to the landowner for five or more years prior to January 1, 2014.
It requires 70% consent for PPP projects. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
- Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the possible implications of LPG Reforms on agriculture sector in India?
- High Investment in agriculture sector
- Rural employment is drastically increased.
- Introduction of new technologies in agriculture sector
Select the correct answer using the code given below
CorrectSolution: C
LPG reforms in the India resulted in
- High Capital Formation in Manufacturing and Service Sector.
- Urban employment is increased
- Introduction of new technologies in agriculture due to import of technology.
IncorrectSolution: C
LPG reforms in the India resulted in
- High Capital Formation in Manufacturing and Service Sector.
- Urban employment is increased
- Introduction of new technologies in agriculture due to import of technology.
- Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the characteristics of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
- Extremely low literacy
- A stagnant or declining population
- Dependency on hunting, gathering for food
Select the correct answer using the code given below
CorrectSolution: D
PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. Due to this factor, more developed and assertive tribal groups take a major chunk of the tribal development funds, because of which PVTGs need more funds directed for their development.
In this context, in 1975, the Government of India initiated to identify the most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category called PVTGs and declared 52 such groups, while in 1993 an additional 23 groups were added to the category, making it a total of 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes, spread over 17 states and one Union Territory (UT), in the country (2011 census).
Tribal communities are often identified by some specific signs such as primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness to contact with the community at large and backwardness.
Along with these, some tribal groups have some specific features such as dependency on hunting, gathering for food, having pre-agriculture level of technology, zero or negative growth of population and extremely low level of literacy. These groups are called Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
IncorrectSolution: D
PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. Due to this factor, more developed and assertive tribal groups take a major chunk of the tribal development funds, because of which PVTGs need more funds directed for their development.
In this context, in 1975, the Government of India initiated to identify the most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category called PVTGs and declared 52 such groups, while in 1993 an additional 23 groups were added to the category, making it a total of 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes, spread over 17 states and one Union Territory (UT), in the country (2011 census).
Tribal communities are often identified by some specific signs such as primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness to contact with the community at large and backwardness.
Along with these, some tribal groups have some specific features such as dependency on hunting, gathering for food, having pre-agriculture level of technology, zero or negative growth of population and extremely low level of literacy. These groups are called Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
- Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following crops are cultivated in Rabi Season?
- Cotton
- Wheat
- Barley
Select the correct answer using the code given below
CorrectSolution: C
The crops that are sown in the rainy season are called kharif crops. (also known as the summer or monsoon crop) in India. Kharif crops are usually sown with the beginning of the first rains in July, during the south-west monsoon season. The crops that are sown in the winter season are called Rabi crops. (also known as the “winter crop”) in Pakistan and India. The Rabi means, when the crop is harvested. Crops that are grown in the winter season, from November to April are called Rabi Crops. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
IncorrectSolution: C
The crops that are sown in the rainy season are called kharif crops. (also known as the summer or monsoon crop) in India. Kharif crops are usually sown with the beginning of the first rains in July, during the south-west monsoon season. The crops that are sown in the winter season are called Rabi crops. (also known as the “winter crop”) in Pakistan and India. The Rabi means, when the crop is harvested. Crops that are grown in the winter season, from November to April are called Rabi Crops. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
- Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Consumer Protection Act 2019:
- E- commerce has been brought under the purview of the Act.
- A person who avails services free of charge is also considered as a ‘Consumer’ under the Act.
- Damage of the product itself can be the base for product liability compensation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
The Consumer Protection Act 2019 was notified on August 9th 2019. However, it came into effect from July 20th 2020.
While retaining certain old provisions, the New Act has certain new provisions that tightens the existing rules to further safeguard consumer rights and create exhaustive consumer protection law.
New provisions under Consumer Protection Act 2019
- Inclusion of E- commerce, Direct selling. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Establishment of Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)
- Strict Norms for Misleading Advertisement
- Strict Norms for product liability
- Changes in the Pecuniary Jurisdiction
- Greater ease to dispute resolution
- Addition in the clause of “Unfair Trade Practice”:
- Unfair Contract
- Alternate Dispute Resolution through mediation
Who is not a Consumer ?
A person who obtains:
- goods free of charge
- who avails services free of charge. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- who obtains goods for resale or for any commercial purposes
- who avails services for any commercial purposes
- who avails services under contract of service
As per the provisions of the Act, commercial purpose does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for the purposes of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment.
Product Liability means the responsibility of a product manufacturer or product seller, of any product or service, to compensate for any harm caused to a consumer by such defective product manufactured or sold or by deficiency in services relating thereto;
“Harm”, in relation to a product liability includes—
- Damage to any property, other than the product itself;
- Personal injury, illness or death;
- Mental agony or emotional distress attendant to personal injury or illness or damage to property; or
- Any loss of consortium or services or other loss resulting from a harm referred to in sub-clause (i) or sub-clause (ii) or sub-clause (iii), but shall not include
any harm caused to a product itself or any damage to the property on account of breach of warranty conditions or any commercial or economic loss, including any direct, incidental or consequential loss relating thereto.
Can I claim compensation if the product itself is damaged?
No, damage of the product itself cannot be the base for product liability compensation.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/social-awareness/consumer-education/faqs-on-consumer-education
Source: Yojana, December 2020
IncorrectSolution: B
The Consumer Protection Act 2019 was notified on August 9th 2019. However, it came into effect from July 20th 2020.
While retaining certain old provisions, the New Act has certain new provisions that tightens the existing rules to further safeguard consumer rights and create exhaustive consumer protection law.
New provisions under Consumer Protection Act 2019
- Inclusion of E- commerce, Direct selling. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Establishment of Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)
- Strict Norms for Misleading Advertisement
- Strict Norms for product liability
- Changes in the Pecuniary Jurisdiction
- Greater ease to dispute resolution
- Addition in the clause of “Unfair Trade Practice”:
- Unfair Contract
- Alternate Dispute Resolution through mediation
Who is not a Consumer ?
A person who obtains:
- goods free of charge
- who avails services free of charge. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- who obtains goods for resale or for any commercial purposes
- who avails services for any commercial purposes
- who avails services under contract of service
As per the provisions of the Act, commercial purpose does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him exclusively for the purposes of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment.
Product Liability means the responsibility of a product manufacturer or product seller, of any product or service, to compensate for any harm caused to a consumer by such defective product manufactured or sold or by deficiency in services relating thereto;
“Harm”, in relation to a product liability includes—
- Damage to any property, other than the product itself;
- Personal injury, illness or death;
- Mental agony or emotional distress attendant to personal injury or illness or damage to property; or
- Any loss of consortium or services or other loss resulting from a harm referred to in sub-clause (i) or sub-clause (ii) or sub-clause (iii), but shall not include
any harm caused to a product itself or any damage to the property on account of breach of warranty conditions or any commercial or economic loss, including any direct, incidental or consequential loss relating thereto.
Can I claim compensation if the product itself is damaged?
No, damage of the product itself cannot be the base for product liability compensation.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/social-awareness/consumer-education/faqs-on-consumer-education
Source: Yojana, December 2020
- Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsArrange the following physiographic features from North to south
- Pampas
- Llanos
- Guyana Highlands
- Bolivian Plateau
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: B
IncorrectSolution: B
- Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Vedic Literature
- The Yajur Veda consists of 1028 hymns and were sung in praise of various gods.
- The Sama Veda is set to tune for the purpose of chanting during sacrifice.
- The Rigveda consists of various details of rules to be observed at the time of sacrifice.
- The Atharva Veda contains details of rituals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Vedic Literature
The word ‘Veda’ is derived from the root ‘vid’, which means to know. In other words, the term ‘Veda’ signifies ‘superior knowledge’. The Vedic literature consists of the four Vedas – Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva. The Rig Veda is the earliest of the four Vedas and it consists of 1028 hymns. The hymns were sung in praise of various gods. The Yajur Veda consists of various details of rules to be observed at the time of sacrifice. The Sama Veda is set to tune for the purpose of chanting during sacrifice. It is called the book of chants and the origins of Indian music are traced in it. The Atharva Veda contains details of rituals.
Besides the Vedas, there are other sacred works like the Brahmanas, the Upanishads, the Aranyakas and the epics Ramayana and Mahabharata. The Brahmanas are the treatises relating to prayer and sacrificial ceremony. The Upanishads are philosophical texts dealing with topic like the soul, the absolute, the origin of the world and the mysteries of nature. The Aranyakas are called forest books and they deal with mysticism, rites, rituals and sacrifices. The author of Ramayana was Valmiki and that of Mahabharata was Vedavyas.
IncorrectSolution: B
Vedic Literature
The word ‘Veda’ is derived from the root ‘vid’, which means to know. In other words, the term ‘Veda’ signifies ‘superior knowledge’. The Vedic literature consists of the four Vedas – Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva. The Rig Veda is the earliest of the four Vedas and it consists of 1028 hymns. The hymns were sung in praise of various gods. The Yajur Veda consists of various details of rules to be observed at the time of sacrifice. The Sama Veda is set to tune for the purpose of chanting during sacrifice. It is called the book of chants and the origins of Indian music are traced in it. The Atharva Veda contains details of rituals.
Besides the Vedas, there are other sacred works like the Brahmanas, the Upanishads, the Aranyakas and the epics Ramayana and Mahabharata. The Brahmanas are the treatises relating to prayer and sacrificial ceremony. The Upanishads are philosophical texts dealing with topic like the soul, the absolute, the origin of the world and the mysteries of nature. The Aranyakas are called forest books and they deal with mysticism, rites, rituals and sacrifices. The author of Ramayana was Valmiki and that of Mahabharata was Vedavyas.
- Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Thalassemia
- It is a genetic blood disorder.
- It is mainly characterised by body making an abnormal form or inadequate amount of hemoglobin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Thalassemia is a blood disorder passed down through families (inherited) in which the body makes an abnormal form or inadequate amount of hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. The disorder results in large numbers of red blood cells being destroyed, which leads to anemia.
IncorrectSolution: C
Thalassemia is a blood disorder passed down through families (inherited) in which the body makes an abnormal form or inadequate amount of hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. The disorder results in large numbers of red blood cells being destroyed, which leads to anemia.
- Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the concept of sea floor spreading
- It was developed by Alfred Wegener.
- The constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
The mapping of the ocean floor and palaeomagnetic studies of rocks from oceanic regions revealed the following facts:
(i) It was realized that all along the mid-oceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area.
(ii) The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic properties. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the youngest. The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest.
(iii) The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks. The age of rocks in the oceanic crust is nowhere more than200 million years old. Some of the continental rock formations are as old as 3,200 million years.
(iv) The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin. Scientists were expecting, if the ocean floors were as old as the continent, to have a complete sequence of sediments for a period of much longer duration. However, nowhere was the sediment column found to be older than
200 million years.
(v) The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while in the mid-oceanic ridge areas, the quake foci have shallow depths.
These facts and a detailed analysis of magnetic properties of the rocks on either side of the mid-oceanic ridge led Hess (1961) to propose his hypothesis, known as the “sea floor spreading”. Hess argued that constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust and the new lava wedges into it, pushing the oceanic crust on either side.
IncorrectSolution: B
The mapping of the ocean floor and palaeomagnetic studies of rocks from oceanic regions revealed the following facts:
(i) It was realized that all along the mid-oceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area.
(ii) The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic properties. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the youngest. The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest.
(iii) The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks. The age of rocks in the oceanic crust is nowhere more than200 million years old. Some of the continental rock formations are as old as 3,200 million years.
(iv) The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin. Scientists were expecting, if the ocean floors were as old as the continent, to have a complete sequence of sediments for a period of much longer duration. However, nowhere was the sediment column found to be older than
200 million years.
(v) The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while in the mid-oceanic ridge areas, the quake foci have shallow depths.
These facts and a detailed analysis of magnetic properties of the rocks on either side of the mid-oceanic ridge led Hess (1961) to propose his hypothesis, known as the “sea floor spreading”. Hess argued that constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust and the new lava wedges into it, pushing the oceanic crust on either side.
- Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Ganga River system:
- It rises in the Gangotri glacier in the state of Uttarakhand.
- Pindar joins River Alaknanda at Rudra Prayag.
- Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets River Alaknanda at Dev Prayag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The Ganga River System
The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point of view of its basin and cultural significance. It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi. It cuts through the Central and the Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges. At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the Ganga. The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath. The Alaknanda consists of the Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag. The other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar joins it at Karna Prayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at Rudra Prayag.
The Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar. From here, it flows first to the south, then to the south-east and east before splitting into two distributaries, namely the Bhagirathi and the Padma.
IncorrectSolution: A
The Ganga River System
The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point of view of its basin and cultural significance. It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi. It cuts through the Central and the Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges. At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the Ganga. The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath. The Alaknanda consists of the Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag. The other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar joins it at Karna Prayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at Rudra Prayag.
The Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar. From here, it flows first to the south, then to the south-east and east before splitting into two distributaries, namely the Bhagirathi and the Padma.
- Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsThe Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment (AIDA) is a joint research mission between
CorrectSolution: B
About AIDA:
- Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment (AIDA) is a joint research mission between NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA) teams.
- It aims to study the viability of diverting an asteroid by crashing a spacecraft into its surface.
- The project aims to deflect the orbit of one of the two Didymos asteroids between Earth and Mars, with an observer craft gauging the effect of the impact more effectively than ground-based observers could manage.
IncorrectSolution: B
About AIDA:
- Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment (AIDA) is a joint research mission between NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA) teams.
- It aims to study the viability of diverting an asteroid by crashing a spacecraft into its surface.
- The project aims to deflect the orbit of one of the two Didymos asteroids between Earth and Mars, with an observer craft gauging the effect of the impact more effectively than ground-based observers could manage.
- Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding RISAT-2BR1
- It is India’s first indigenous radar satellite.
- It has been launched by Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV -48).
- It provides services in the field of agriculture, forestry and disaster management.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its fiftieth flight (PSLV-C48), has successfully launched RISAT-2BR1 along with nine commercial satellites from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota. This is PSLV’s 50th successful mission and the 75 th launch vehicle mission from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota.
What is RISAT-2BR1?
- It is a radar imaging earth observation satellite.
- It provides services in the field of agriculture, forestry and disaster management.
- Its mission life is 5 years.
IncorrectSolution: D
India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its fiftieth flight (PSLV-C48), has successfully launched RISAT-2BR1 along with nine commercial satellites from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota. This is PSLV’s 50th successful mission and the 75 th launch vehicle mission from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota.
What is RISAT-2BR1?
- It is a radar imaging earth observation satellite.
- It provides services in the field of agriculture, forestry and disaster management.
- Its mission life is 5 years.
- Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Microdots technology:
- It involves spraying the body and parts of the vehicle or any other machine with microscopic dots, which give a unique identification.
- These microdots can be read physically with naked eyes and can even be identified with infrared light.
- The microdots could help in identifying the original parts from fake ones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The microdot technology which involves spraying the body and parts of the vehicle or any other machine with microscopic dots that can be read with a microscope and identified with a ultra violet light source, which give a unique identification.
Use of this technology will help check theft of vehicles and also use of fake spare parts
The microdots and adhesive will become permanent fixtures, which cannot be removed without damaging the asset, that is the vehicle itself. The notification says that the microdots, if affixed, will have to comply with standards specified by Automotive Research Association of India.
IncorrectSolution: A
The microdot technology which involves spraying the body and parts of the vehicle or any other machine with microscopic dots that can be read with a microscope and identified with a ultra violet light source, which give a unique identification.
Use of this technology will help check theft of vehicles and also use of fake spare parts
The microdots and adhesive will become permanent fixtures, which cannot be removed without damaging the asset, that is the vehicle itself. The notification says that the microdots, if affixed, will have to comply with standards specified by Automotive Research Association of India.
- Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cartosat-3:
- It is an advanced earth imaging and mapping satellite.
- It was put into orbit by GSLV- MK III.
- It has multi-spectral capabilities, which will help the military zoom in on enemy hideouts and terror hubs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
India’s PSLV-C47 successfully launched Cartosat-3 and 13 commercial nanosatellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.
This is the 21st flight of PSLV in ‘XL’ configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors).
Cartosat-3:
• It is an advanced earth imaging and mapping satellite. It would also boost the military’s space surveillance.
• The satellite will be placed in an orbit of 509 km at an inclination of 97.5 degrees.
• Cartosat-3, with an ISRO-best resolution of 25 cm, will be the first of a series of high resolution, third generation satellites planned for observing the Earth.
• The satellite will be able to pick up objects of that size (25 cm) from its orbital perch about 509 km away. This will make Cartosat-3 among the few sharpest, if not the best, civil earth imagers worldwide.
• Cartosat-3 will also have multi-spectral (captures light from across the electromagnetic spectrum) capabilities, which will help the military zoom in on enemy hideouts and terror hubs.
• ISRO’s rocket PSLV-XL will put into orbit Cartosat-3 and 13 commercial Nano satellites from the US. The 13 small U.S. customer satellites riding as secondary passengers will be placed in a polar orbit.These satellites were launched under commercial arrangement with New Space India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
https://www.isro.gov.in/launcher/pslv-c47-cartosat-3-mission
IncorrectSolution: C
India’s PSLV-C47 successfully launched Cartosat-3 and 13 commercial nanosatellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.
This is the 21st flight of PSLV in ‘XL’ configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors).
Cartosat-3:
• It is an advanced earth imaging and mapping satellite. It would also boost the military’s space surveillance.
• The satellite will be placed in an orbit of 509 km at an inclination of 97.5 degrees.
• Cartosat-3, with an ISRO-best resolution of 25 cm, will be the first of a series of high resolution, third generation satellites planned for observing the Earth.
• The satellite will be able to pick up objects of that size (25 cm) from its orbital perch about 509 km away. This will make Cartosat-3 among the few sharpest, if not the best, civil earth imagers worldwide.
• Cartosat-3 will also have multi-spectral (captures light from across the electromagnetic spectrum) capabilities, which will help the military zoom in on enemy hideouts and terror hubs.
• ISRO’s rocket PSLV-XL will put into orbit Cartosat-3 and 13 commercial Nano satellites from the US. The 13 small U.S. customer satellites riding as secondary passengers will be placed in a polar orbit.These satellites were launched under commercial arrangement with New Space India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
https://www.isro.gov.in/launcher/pslv-c47-cartosat-3-mission
- Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following states, Pakke Tiger reserve is located?
CorrectSolution: A
Pakke Tiger Reserve lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh. Pakke is also known for its amazing sightings of four resident hornbill species. Pakke Tiger Reserve falls within the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot.
IncorrectSolution: A
Pakke Tiger Reserve lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh. Pakke is also known for its amazing sightings of four resident hornbill species. Pakke Tiger Reserve falls within the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot.
- Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of disputed territories of world and their location:
Disputed Territories Location:
- Natuna Islands East China Sea
- The Senkaku Islands South China Sea
- Kuril Islands Between Sea of Okhotsk and Pacific Ocean
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
CorrectSolution: B
Natuna Islands is disputed between Indonesia and China
The Senkaku Islands dispute, or Diaoyu Islands dispute, concerns a territorial dispute over a group of uninhabited islands known as the Senkaku Islands in Japan, the Diaoyu Islands in the People’s Republic of China, and Tiaoyutai Islands in the Republic of China.
The Kuril Islands or Kurile Islands is a volcanic archipelago in Russia’s Sakhalin Oblast that stretches approximately 1,300 km northeast from Hokkaido, Japan to Kamchatka, Russia, separating the Sea of Okhotsk from the north Pacific Ocean. There are 56 islands and many minor rocks.
IncorrectSolution: B
Natuna Islands is disputed between Indonesia and China
The Senkaku Islands dispute, or Diaoyu Islands dispute, concerns a territorial dispute over a group of uninhabited islands known as the Senkaku Islands in Japan, the Diaoyu Islands in the People’s Republic of China, and Tiaoyutai Islands in the Republic of China.
The Kuril Islands or Kurile Islands is a volcanic archipelago in Russia’s Sakhalin Oblast that stretches approximately 1,300 km northeast from Hokkaido, Japan to Kamchatka, Russia, separating the Sea of Okhotsk from the north Pacific Ocean. There are 56 islands and many minor rocks.
- Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWestern Ghats have spread over which of the following states?
- Gujarat
- Maharashtra
- Tamil Nadu
- Andhra Pradesh
- Goa
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: C
Western Ghats:
- The Western Ghats is one of the eight hotspots of biological diversity in the world and is spread across six states—Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
- It is a UNESCO World Heritage site.
- It is one of the eight “hottest hot-spots” of biological diversity in the world.
- According to UNESCO, the Western Ghats are older than the Himalayas. They influence Indian monsoon weather patterns by intercepting the rain-laden monsoon winds that sweep in from the south-west during late summer.
IncorrectSolution: C
Western Ghats:
- The Western Ghats is one of the eight hotspots of biological diversity in the world and is spread across six states—Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
- It is a UNESCO World Heritage site.
- It is one of the eight “hottest hot-spots” of biological diversity in the world.
- According to UNESCO, the Western Ghats are older than the Himalayas. They influence Indian monsoon weather patterns by intercepting the rain-laden monsoon winds that sweep in from the south-west during late summer.
- Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsSajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of:
CorrectSolution: D
Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Udaipur District of Rajasthan in the southern Aravalli Hills. The area of the sanctuary is 5.19 square kilometres. The sanctuary is located entirely within Girwa Tehsil of Udaipur district.
IncorrectSolution: D
Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Udaipur District of Rajasthan in the southern Aravalli Hills. The area of the sanctuary is 5.19 square kilometres. The sanctuary is located entirely within Girwa Tehsil of Udaipur district.
- Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Stockholm Convention
- It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
- India has signed the treaty but not ratified yet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Stockholm Convention on POPs:
- Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from POPs.
- It Aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
- It is legally binding.
- India ratified the Stockholm Convention in 2006.
Recently Union Cabinet has approved the Ratification of seven chemicals listed under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).The Cabinet has also delegated its powers to ratify chemicals under the Stockholm Convention to the Union Ministers of External Affairs (MEA) and Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in respect of POPs already regulated under the domestic regulations.
These are:
- Chlordecone.
- Hexabromobiphenyl.
- Hexabromodiphenyl ether and Heptabromodiphenylether.
- Tetrabromodiphenyl ether and Pentabromodiphenyl ether.
- Pentachlorobenzene.
- Hexabromocyclododecane.
- Hexachlorobutadiene.
IncorrectSolution: A
Stockholm Convention on POPs:
- Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from POPs.
- It Aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
- It is legally binding.
- India ratified the Stockholm Convention in 2006.
Recently Union Cabinet has approved the Ratification of seven chemicals listed under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).The Cabinet has also delegated its powers to ratify chemicals under the Stockholm Convention to the Union Ministers of External Affairs (MEA) and Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in respect of POPs already regulated under the domestic regulations.
These are:
- Chlordecone.
- Hexabromobiphenyl.
- Hexabromodiphenyl ether and Heptabromodiphenylether.
- Tetrabromodiphenyl ether and Pentabromodiphenyl ether.
- Pentachlorobenzene.
- Hexabromocyclododecane.
- Hexachlorobutadiene.
- Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIf the numerator of a fraction is increased by 300% and the denominator is increased by 100%, the resultant fraction is 30/19 . Find the original fraction
CorrectSolution: D
Let the original fraction be x/y.
If Numerator is increased by 300%, the numerator becomes four times the original numerator, i.e4x
If Denominator is increased by 100%, the new denominator becomes two times the original denominator i.e2x
New fraction =4x/2y = 30/19
Or 2x/y = 30/19
Or x/y = 15/19
IncorrectSolution: D
Let the original fraction be x/y.
If Numerator is increased by 300%, the numerator becomes four times the original numerator, i.e4x
If Denominator is increased by 100%, the new denominator becomes two times the original denominator i.e2x
New fraction =4x/2y = 30/19
Or 2x/y = 30/19
Or x/y = 15/19
- Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA student was asked to divide a number by 6 and add 12 to the quotient. He, however, first added 12 to the number and then divided it by 6, getting 112 as the answer. The correct answer should have been :
CorrectSolution: A
Let the number be x. Then, as per the operation undertook by the student, we have (x+12)/6 = 112 .
Therefore x= 660.
Hence, correct answer should have been (660/6)+12 =122.
IncorrectSolution: A
Let the number be x. Then, as per the operation undertook by the student, we have (x+12)/6 = 112 .
Therefore x= 660.
Hence, correct answer should have been (660/6)+12 =122.
- Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA group of 1200 persons consisting of dance teachers and dancers were travelling in a train. For every 15 dancers there is one dance teacher. Find the number of dance teachers in the group.
CorrectSolution: C
Clearly, out of every 16 persons, there is one dance teacher.
So, the number of dance teachers = 1200/16=75Thus, 75 is the required answer.
Hence, option (c) is the correct .
IncorrectSolution: C
Clearly, out of every 16 persons, there is one dance teacher.
So, the number of dance teachers = 1200/16=75Thus, 75 is the required answer.
Hence, option (c) is the correct .
- Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe age of Abhay is twice that of Dolly. The age of Shyam is 10 years more than that of Akash. Akash is 5 years older than Dolly. If the combined age of all the four is 70 years, what is the ratio of the age of Abhay and Akash?
CorrectSolution: D
Let the age of Dolly be x. Then age of Abhay is 2x. Age of Akash is x+5 and that of Shyam is x+15.
Therefore, x+ 2x+ x+5+ x+15 =70. Solving, we get x= 10.So, the age of Abhay is 20 years and that of Akash is 15 years. Hence, the ratio of the age of Abhay to that of Akash is 20 : 15 i.e. 4:3.
Hence, option(d) is correct.
IncorrectSolution: D
Let the age of Dolly be x. Then age of Abhay is 2x. Age of Akash is x+5 and that of Shyam is x+15.
Therefore, x+ 2x+ x+5+ x+15 =70. Solving, we get x= 10.So, the age of Abhay is 20 years and that of Akash is 15 years. Hence, the ratio of the age of Abhay to that of Akash is 20 : 15 i.e. 4:3.
Hence, option(d) is correct.
- Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsSuccessive governments have created the impression that India’s coastline is a vast, empty space that economic actors can take over. Industrialists and real estate developers share this view because coastal lands are for the most part outside the regime of individual property rights. Land grabbing by private and government actors has been the norm. These actors forget that this space is the common property of coastal villages, towns and cities, and public beaches.
The key focus area of the passage is
CorrectAns. A.
The focus of the passage is on explaining the regulatory shortcomings which has allowed unethical operators to indulge in the practice of land grabbing in coastal areas which is creating an issue. Hence A.
IncorrectAns. A.
The focus of the passage is on explaining the regulatory shortcomings which has allowed unethical operators to indulge in the practice of land grabbing in coastal areas which is creating an issue. Hence A.
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