INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Hayabusa-2
- Hayabusa 2 is a Japanese mission launched in December 2014 on a six-year mission to study the asteroid Ryugu.
- It will collect the samples to bring to Earth for analysis
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Hayabusa 2 is a Japanese mission launched in December 2014 on a six-year mission to study the asteroid Ryugu and to collect samples to bring to Earth for analysis.
- The Hayabusa 2 spacecraft arrived at the asteroid in June 2018.
- The spacecraft deployed two rovers and a small lander onto the surface.
- Hayabusa 2 fired an impactor into the asteroid in February 2019 to create an artificial crater. This allowed the spacecraft to collect a sample from beneath the surface of the asteroid.
- Hayabusa 2 delivered the asteroid sample to Earth on Dec. 6, 2020.
- The spacecraft is now on an extended mission to the small asteroid 1998 KY26.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Hayabusa 2 is a Japanese mission launched in December 2014 on a six-year mission to study the asteroid Ryugu and to collect samples to bring to Earth for analysis.
- The Hayabusa 2 spacecraft arrived at the asteroid in June 2018.
- The spacecraft deployed two rovers and a small lander onto the surface.
- Hayabusa 2 fired an impactor into the asteroid in February 2019 to create an artificial crater. This allowed the spacecraft to collect a sample from beneath the surface of the asteroid.
- Hayabusa 2 delivered the asteroid sample to Earth on Dec. 6, 2020.
- The spacecraft is now on an extended mission to the small asteroid 1998 KY26.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding James Webb Telescope
- It is an international collaboration between NASA, European Space Agency (ESA) and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA).
- It is a successor instrument to the Hubble Space Telescope.
- After its launch, it will be in orbit around the Earth positioned at 800 km above earth’s surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The James Webb Space Telescope will not be in orbit around the Earth, like the Hubble Space Telescope is – it will actually orbit the Sun, 1.5 million kilometers (1 million miles) away from the Earth at what is called the second Lagrange point or L2.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The James Webb Space Telescope will not be in orbit around the Earth, like the Hubble Space Telescope is – it will actually orbit the Sun, 1.5 million kilometers (1 million miles) away from the Earth at what is called the second Lagrange point or L2.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is incorrect regarding gravitational waves?
Correct
Solution: B
Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe. Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity. Einstein’s mathematics showed that massive accelerating objects (such as neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other) would disrupt space-time in such a way that ‘waves’ of undulating space-time would propagate in all directions away from the source. These cosmic ripples would travel at the speed of light, carrying with them information about their origins, as well as clues to the nature of gravity itself.
The strongest gravitational waves are produced by cataclysmic events such as colliding black holes, supernovae (massive stars exploding at the end of their lifetimes), and colliding neutron stars. Other waves are predicted to be caused by the rotation of neutron stars that are not perfect spheres, and possibly even the remnants of gravitational radiation created by the Big Bang.
The animation below illustrates how gravitational waves are emitted by two neutron stars as they orbit each other and then coalesce (credit: NASA/Goddard Space Flight Center). Note that gravitational waves themselves are invisible. They are made visible here to illustrate their propagation away from the source.
Gravitational waves are not electromagnetic radiation.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe. Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity. Einstein’s mathematics showed that massive accelerating objects (such as neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other) would disrupt space-time in such a way that ‘waves’ of undulating space-time would propagate in all directions away from the source. These cosmic ripples would travel at the speed of light, carrying with them information about their origins, as well as clues to the nature of gravity itself.
The strongest gravitational waves are produced by cataclysmic events such as colliding black holes, supernovae (massive stars exploding at the end of their lifetimes), and colliding neutron stars. Other waves are predicted to be caused by the rotation of neutron stars that are not perfect spheres, and possibly even the remnants of gravitational radiation created by the Big Bang.
The animation below illustrates how gravitational waves are emitted by two neutron stars as they orbit each other and then coalesce (credit: NASA/Goddard Space Flight Center). Note that gravitational waves themselves are invisible. They are made visible here to illustrate their propagation away from the source.
Gravitational waves are not electromagnetic radiation.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Antrix Corporation Limited is the commercial arm of ISRO wholly owned by Government of India
- The business activities of Antrix includes marketing of data from Indian and foreign remote sensing satellites.
- Space commission of India is headed by Prime Minister of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL), Bengaluru is a wholly owned Government of India Company under the administrative control of the Department of Space. Antrix Corporation Limited was incorporated as a private limited company owned by Government of India in September 1992 as a Marketing arm of ISRO for promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. Another major objective is to facilitate development of space related industrial capabilities in India.
As the commercial and marketing arm of ISRO, Antrix is engaged in providing Space products and services to international customers worldwide. With fully equipped state-of-the-art facilities, Antrix provides end-to-end solution for many of the space products, ranging from supply of hardware and software including simple subsystems to a complex spacecraft, for varied applications covering communications, earth observation and scientific missions; space related services including remote sensing data service, Transponder lease service; Launch services through the operational launch vehicles (PSLV and GSLV); Mission support services; and a host of consultancy and training services.
Space commission of India is headed by ISRO Chairmen. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL), Bengaluru is a wholly owned Government of India Company under the administrative control of the Department of Space. Antrix Corporation Limited was incorporated as a private limited company owned by Government of India in September 1992 as a Marketing arm of ISRO for promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. Another major objective is to facilitate development of space related industrial capabilities in India.
As the commercial and marketing arm of ISRO, Antrix is engaged in providing Space products and services to international customers worldwide. With fully equipped state-of-the-art facilities, Antrix provides end-to-end solution for many of the space products, ranging from supply of hardware and software including simple subsystems to a complex spacecraft, for varied applications covering communications, earth observation and scientific missions; space related services including remote sensing data service, Transponder lease service; Launch services through the operational launch vehicles (PSLV and GSLV); Mission support services; and a host of consultancy and training services.
Space commission of India is headed by ISRO Chairmen. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Sagittarius A* is believed to be a super massive black hole in the Milky Way Galaxy.
- The Kuiper belt a circumstellar disc in the outer Solar System, extending from the orbit of Neptune to approximately 50 AU from the Sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Sagittarius A* (pronounced “Sagittarius A-Star”, abbreviated Sgr A*) is a bright and very compact astronomical radio source at the Galactic Center of the Milky Way. It is located near the border of the constellations Sagittarius and Scorpius, about 5.6° south of the ecliptic. Sagittarius A* is the location of a supermassive black hole, similar to those at the centers of most, if not all, spiral and elliptical galaxies.
The Kuiper belt (/ˈkaɪpər, ˈkʊɪ-/) is a circumstellar disc in the outer Solar System, extending from the orbit of Neptune at 30 astronomical units (AU) to approximately 50 AU from the Sun. It is similar to the asteroid belt, but is far larger – 20 times as wide and 20–200 times as massive.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Sagittarius A* (pronounced “Sagittarius A-Star”, abbreviated Sgr A*) is a bright and very compact astronomical radio source at the Galactic Center of the Milky Way. It is located near the border of the constellations Sagittarius and Scorpius, about 5.6° south of the ecliptic. Sagittarius A* is the location of a supermassive black hole, similar to those at the centers of most, if not all, spiral and elliptical galaxies.
The Kuiper belt (/ˈkaɪpər, ˈkʊɪ-/) is a circumstellar disc in the outer Solar System, extending from the orbit of Neptune at 30 astronomical units (AU) to approximately 50 AU from the Sun. It is similar to the asteroid belt, but is far larger – 20 times as wide and 20–200 times as massive.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Hope Mission is a Space mission by China which planned to send an unmanned probe to orbit Mars by 2021.
- RemoveDEBRIS mission is being led by the Surrey Space Centre (SSC) at the University of Surrey, UK.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Hope is the UAE’s fourth space mission and first interplanetary one. The previous three were all Earth-observation satellites. Once it is successfully able to reach the planet, it will start orbiting the planet. Its overall mission life is one Martian year, which is about 687 days on Earth. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
RemoveDEBRIS is a satellite research project intending to demonstrate various space debris removal technologies. The mission is led by the Surrey Space Centre from the University of Surrey with the satellite’s platform manufactured by Surrey Satellite Technology Ltd (SSTL). Partners on the project include Airbus, ArianeGroup, Swiss Center for Electronics and Microtechnology, Inria, Innovative Solutions In Space, Surrey Space Centre, and Stellenbosch University.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Hope is the UAE’s fourth space mission and first interplanetary one. The previous three were all Earth-observation satellites. Once it is successfully able to reach the planet, it will start orbiting the planet. Its overall mission life is one Martian year, which is about 687 days on Earth. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
RemoveDEBRIS is a satellite research project intending to demonstrate various space debris removal technologies. The mission is led by the Surrey Space Centre from the University of Surrey with the satellite’s platform manufactured by Surrey Satellite Technology Ltd (SSTL). Partners on the project include Airbus, ArianeGroup, Swiss Center for Electronics and Microtechnology, Inria, Innovative Solutions In Space, Surrey Space Centre, and Stellenbosch University.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Stem cells are special human cells that have the ability to develop into many different cell types, from muscle cells to brain cells.
- Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are adult cells that have been genetically reprogrammed to an embryonic stem cell like state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Stem cells are special human cells that are able to develop into many different cell types. This can range from muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases, they can also fix damaged tissues. Researchers believe that stem cell-based therapies may one day be used to treat serious illnesses such as paralysis and Alzheimer disease.
Types of stem cells
Stem cells are divided into 2 main forms. They are embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.
Embryonic stem cells. The embryonic stem cells used in research today come from unused embryos. These result from an in vitro fertilization procedure. They are donated to science. These embryonic stem cells are pluripotent. This means that they can turn into more than one type of cell.
Adult stem cells. There are 2 types of adult stem cells. One type comes from fully developed tissues such as the brain, skin, and bone marrow. There are only small numbers of stem cells in these tissues. They are more likely to generate only certain types of cells. For example, a stem cell that comes from the liver will only make more liver cells.
The second type is induced pluripotent stem cells. These are adult stem cells that have been changed in a lab to be more like embryonic stem cells. Scientists first reported that human stem cells could be changed in this way in 2006. Induced pluripotent stem cells don’t seem to be different from embryonic stem cells, but scientists have not yet found one that can develop every kind of cell and tissue.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Stem cells are special human cells that are able to develop into many different cell types. This can range from muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases, they can also fix damaged tissues. Researchers believe that stem cell-based therapies may one day be used to treat serious illnesses such as paralysis and Alzheimer disease.
Types of stem cells
Stem cells are divided into 2 main forms. They are embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.
Embryonic stem cells. The embryonic stem cells used in research today come from unused embryos. These result from an in vitro fertilization procedure. They are donated to science. These embryonic stem cells are pluripotent. This means that they can turn into more than one type of cell.
Adult stem cells. There are 2 types of adult stem cells. One type comes from fully developed tissues such as the brain, skin, and bone marrow. There are only small numbers of stem cells in these tissues. They are more likely to generate only certain types of cells. For example, a stem cell that comes from the liver will only make more liver cells.
The second type is induced pluripotent stem cells. These are adult stem cells that have been changed in a lab to be more like embryonic stem cells. Scientists first reported that human stem cells could be changed in this way in 2006. Induced pluripotent stem cells don’t seem to be different from embryonic stem cells, but scientists have not yet found one that can develop every kind of cell and tissue.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The potential benefits of Human Genome Project-Write (HGP)-write could provide new solutions to diseases like malaria, dengue and Chikungunya
- India substantially funded Human Genome Project-Write (HGP-Write)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Genome Project – Write (also known as GP-Write) is a large-scale collaborative research project (an extension of Genome Projects, aimed at reading genomes since 1984) that focuses on the development of technologies for the synthesis and testing of genomes of many different species of microbes, plants, and animals, including the human genome in a sub-project known as Human Genome Project-Write (HGP-Write).
Formally announced on 2 June 2016, the project leverages two decades of work on synthetic biology and artificial gene synthesis. India has not substantially funded Human Genome Project-Write (HGP-Write). Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Genome Project – Write (also known as GP-Write) is a large-scale collaborative research project (an extension of Genome Projects, aimed at reading genomes since 1984) that focuses on the development of technologies for the synthesis and testing of genomes of many different species of microbes, plants, and animals, including the human genome in a sub-project known as Human Genome Project-Write (HGP-Write).
Formally announced on 2 June 2016, the project leverages two decades of work on synthetic biology and artificial gene synthesis. India has not substantially funded Human Genome Project-Write (HGP-Write). Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
1. CDSO works under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
2. CDSCO is responsible for approval of New Drugs, Conduct of Clinical Trials, laying down the standards for Drugs.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and Government of India is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India.
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for approval of New Drugs, Conduct of Clinical Trials, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country and coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations by providing expert advice with a view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.Further CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for grant of licenses of certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine and Sera.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and Government of India is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India.
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for approval of New Drugs, Conduct of Clinical Trials, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country and coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations by providing expert advice with a view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.Further CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for grant of licenses of certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine and Sera.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following rights is/are entitled to the farmers by Protection of Plant Variety and Farmers Right Act, 2001
- Farmers are entitled to save, use, sow, re-sow,exchange, share or sell their farm produce, including seed of protected varieties
- Plant breeders and legalentities including farmers who provide Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) to breeders for developing new varieties shall receive a fair share of benefit from the commercial gains
- Farmers have the right to access seed of registered varieties at a reasonable and remunerative price.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
About Protection of Plant Variety and Farmers Right Act, 2001
The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act (PPV&FR Act) seeks to address the rights of plant breeders and farmers on an equal footing. It affirms the necessity of recognizing and protecting the rights of farmers with respect to the contribution they make in conserving, improving and making Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) available for the development of new plant varieties.
Right 1: Access to seed [Section 39(1)(iv)]
Farmers are entitled to save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell their farm produce, including seed of protected varieties, in the same manner as they were entitles to before the coming into force to the PPV&FR Act. However, farmers are not entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act. Farmers can use farm saved seed from a crop cultivated in their own.
Right 2: Benefit sharing [Section 26]
Plant breeders and legal entities including farmers who provide Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) to breeders for developing new varieties shall receive a fair share of benefit from the commercial gains of the registered varieties. Out of all the national plant variety protection laws enacted since 2001, the PPV&FR Act is the first that integrates a provision for access and benefit-sharing (ABS) along with Plant Breeder’s Rights (PBRs). Accession of the genetic resource used in breeding is permitted under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. However, the PPV&FR Act requires a breeder to make a sworn declaration on the geographical origin of the genetic resources used in the pedigree of the new variety, and its accession.
Right 3: Compensation [Section 39(2)]
Registered seed must be sold with the full disclosure of their agronomic performance under recommended management conditions. When such seed is sold to farmers but fails to provide the expected performance under recommended management conditions, the farmer is eligible to claim compensation from the breeder through the intervention of the PPV&FR Authority.
Incorrect
Solution: D
About Protection of Plant Variety and Farmers Right Act, 2001
The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act (PPV&FR Act) seeks to address the rights of plant breeders and farmers on an equal footing. It affirms the necessity of recognizing and protecting the rights of farmers with respect to the contribution they make in conserving, improving and making Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) available for the development of new plant varieties.
Right 1: Access to seed [Section 39(1)(iv)]
Farmers are entitled to save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell their farm produce, including seed of protected varieties, in the same manner as they were entitles to before the coming into force to the PPV&FR Act. However, farmers are not entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act. Farmers can use farm saved seed from a crop cultivated in their own.
Right 2: Benefit sharing [Section 26]
Plant breeders and legal entities including farmers who provide Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) to breeders for developing new varieties shall receive a fair share of benefit from the commercial gains of the registered varieties. Out of all the national plant variety protection laws enacted since 2001, the PPV&FR Act is the first that integrates a provision for access and benefit-sharing (ABS) along with Plant Breeder’s Rights (PBRs). Accession of the genetic resource used in breeding is permitted under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. However, the PPV&FR Act requires a breeder to make a sworn declaration on the geographical origin of the genetic resources used in the pedigree of the new variety, and its accession.
Right 3: Compensation [Section 39(2)]
Registered seed must be sold with the full disclosure of their agronomic performance under recommended management conditions. When such seed is sold to farmers but fails to provide the expected performance under recommended management conditions, the farmer is eligible to claim compensation from the breeder through the intervention of the PPV&FR Authority.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries is/are part of ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting Plus (ADMM-Plus):
- New Zealand
- India
- South Africa
- Japan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
The ADMM-Plus is a platform for ASEAN and its eight Dialogue Partners Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States (collectively referred to as the “Plus Countries”), to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace, stability, and development in the region. The Inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Viet Nam, on 12 October 2010.
Since 2017, the ADMM-Plus meets annually, to allow enhanced dialogue and cooperation among ASEAN and the Plus Countries in the midst of an increasingly challenging regional security environment.
Objectives
The objectives of the ADMM-Plus, are:
- To benefit ASEAN Member States in building capacity to address shared security challenges, while cognisant of the differing capacities of various ASEAN Member States;
- To promote mutual trust and confidence between defence establishments through greater dialogue and transparency;
- To enhance regional peace and stability through cooperation in defence and security, in view of the transnational security challenges the region faces;
- To contribute to the realisation of an ASEAN Security Community which, as stipulated in the Bali Concord II, embodies ASEAN’s aspiration to achieve peace, stability, democracy and prosperity in the region where ASEAN Member States live at peace with one another and with the world at large;
- To facilitate the implementation of the Vientiane Action Programme, which calls for ASEAN to build a peaceful, secure and prosperous ASEAN, and to adopt greater outward-looking external relation strategies with our friends and Dialogue Partners.
Source: Yojana, October, 2020
Incorrect
Solution: C
The ADMM-Plus is a platform for ASEAN and its eight Dialogue Partners Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States (collectively referred to as the “Plus Countries”), to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace, stability, and development in the region. The Inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Viet Nam, on 12 October 2010.
Since 2017, the ADMM-Plus meets annually, to allow enhanced dialogue and cooperation among ASEAN and the Plus Countries in the midst of an increasingly challenging regional security environment.
Objectives
The objectives of the ADMM-Plus, are:
- To benefit ASEAN Member States in building capacity to address shared security challenges, while cognisant of the differing capacities of various ASEAN Member States;
- To promote mutual trust and confidence between defence establishments through greater dialogue and transparency;
- To enhance regional peace and stability through cooperation in defence and security, in view of the transnational security challenges the region faces;
- To contribute to the realisation of an ASEAN Security Community which, as stipulated in the Bali Concord II, embodies ASEAN’s aspiration to achieve peace, stability, democracy and prosperity in the region where ASEAN Member States live at peace with one another and with the world at large;
- To facilitate the implementation of the Vientiane Action Programme, which calls for ASEAN to build a peaceful, secure and prosperous ASEAN, and to adopt greater outward-looking external relation strategies with our friends and Dialogue Partners.
Source: Yojana, October, 2020
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of locations and the countries they are situated:
Place/Location: Countries:
- Changi Naval Base Malaysia
- Duqm Port Iran
- Chabahar Port Oman
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
In 2017, India and Singapore signed a bilateral agreement that will allow Indian Navy ships logistical support, including refuelling, at Singapore’s Changi naval base located near the disputed South China Sea.
Recently, India has secured access to the key Port of Duqm in Oman for military use and logistical support.Chabahar port is located on the Gulf of Oman and is the only oceanic port of Iran.
Source: Yojana, October, 2020
Incorrect
Solution: D
In 2017, India and Singapore signed a bilateral agreement that will allow Indian Navy ships logistical support, including refuelling, at Singapore’s Changi naval base located near the disputed South China Sea.
Recently, India has secured access to the key Port of Duqm in Oman for military use and logistical support.Chabahar port is located on the Gulf of Oman and is the only oceanic port of Iran.
Source: Yojana, October, 2020
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsAsia Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC), often seen in news, is a joint economic cooperation agreement between:
Correct
Solution: B
The idea of Asia Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC) emerged in the joint declaration issued by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in November 2016. The AAGC will envisage people centric sustainable growth strategy, details of which would be evolved through a process of detailed consultations across Asia and Africa, engaging various stakeholders.
The AAGC will be raised on four pillars of Development and Cooperation Projects, Quality Infrastructure and Institutional Connectivity, Enhancing Capacities and Skills and People-to-People partnership. The centrality of people to people partnership would be the unique feature of this initiative. The strengths of AAGC will be aligned with the development priorities of different countries and sub-regions of Africa, taking advantage of simultaneous homogeneity and heterogeneity among them. This would be undertaken to improve growth and interconnectedness between and within Asia and Africa for realizing a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
https://aagc.ris.org.in/about-aagc
Source: Yojana, October, 2020
Incorrect
Solution: B
The idea of Asia Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC) emerged in the joint declaration issued by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in November 2016. The AAGC will envisage people centric sustainable growth strategy, details of which would be evolved through a process of detailed consultations across Asia and Africa, engaging various stakeholders.
The AAGC will be raised on four pillars of Development and Cooperation Projects, Quality Infrastructure and Institutional Connectivity, Enhancing Capacities and Skills and People-to-People partnership. The centrality of people to people partnership would be the unique feature of this initiative. The strengths of AAGC will be aligned with the development priorities of different countries and sub-regions of Africa, taking advantage of simultaneous homogeneity and heterogeneity among them. This would be undertaken to improve growth and interconnectedness between and within Asia and Africa for realizing a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
https://aagc.ris.org.in/about-aagc
Source: Yojana, October, 2020
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 points‘Peace Clause’ under which WTO members will not challenge the public stockholding programme of developing Members for food security purposes had been decided during which of the following of WTO Ministerial Conference?
Correct
Solution: A
The Nairobi Ministerial Conference of the WTO held in December 2015 reaffirmed, with consensus, the Interim Peace Clause decided during the Bali Ministerial Conference in 2013 and the General Council Decision of 2014 providing perpetual protection to public stockholding programmes of a developing Member for food security purposes from being challenged in relation to certain obligations under the WTO Agreement on Agriculture until a permanent solution is agreed and adopted.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Nairobi Ministerial Conference of the WTO held in December 2015 reaffirmed, with consensus, the Interim Peace Clause decided during the Bali Ministerial Conference in 2013 and the General Council Decision of 2014 providing perpetual protection to public stockholding programmes of a developing Member for food security purposes from being challenged in relation to certain obligations under the WTO Agreement on Agriculture until a permanent solution is agreed and adopted.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Indian States share border with Myanmar?
- Nagaland
- Meghalaya
- Tripura
- Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Four Indian states share the border with Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Manipur.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Four Indian states share the border with Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Manipur.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are primary aims of International Monetary Fund (IMF):
- Facilitate the expansion and balanced growth of international trade
- Promote exchange stability
- Assist in the establishment of a multilateral system of payments
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The IMF was established in 1944 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s. 44 founding member countries sought to build a framework for international economic cooperation. Today, its membership embraces 190 countries, with staff drawn from 150 nations
Primary aims:
-
- Promote international monetary cooperation;
- Facilitate the expansion and balanced growth of international trade;
- Promote exchange stability;
- Assist in the establishment of a multilateral system of payments; and
- Make resources available (with adequate safeguards) to members experiencing balance-of-payments difficulties.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The IMF was established in 1944 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s. 44 founding member countries sought to build a framework for international economic cooperation. Today, its membership embraces 190 countries, with staff drawn from 150 nations
Primary aims:
-
- Promote international monetary cooperation;
- Facilitate the expansion and balanced growth of international trade;
- Promote exchange stability;
- Assist in the establishment of a multilateral system of payments; and
- Make resources available (with adequate safeguards) to members experiencing balance-of-payments difficulties.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWith which of the following countries does India has the Merchandise Trade surplus?
- United States of America (USA)
- Iraq
- Saudi Arabia
- Bangladesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
India had the most favourable trade balance with USA followed by Bangladesh and Nepal. The highest trade deficit is with China followed by Iraq and Saudi Arabia during April-November, 2020-21 and April November, 2019-20. Table 3: India’s Merchandise Trade B
Incorrect
Solution: A
India had the most favourable trade balance with USA followed by Bangladesh and Nepal. The highest trade deficit is with China followed by Iraq and Saudi Arabia during April-November, 2020-21 and April November, 2019-20. Table 3: India’s Merchandise Trade B
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organizations releases the Logistics Performance Index?
Correct
Solution: A
The Logistics Performance Index is an interactive benchmarking tool created to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance. It has been released by the World Bank.
India Nepal water Resources
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Logistics Performance Index is an interactive benchmarking tool created to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance. It has been released by the World Bank.
India Nepal water Resources
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsSpartly Islands and Paracel Islands, often seen in news, is located in:
Correct
Solution: C
The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea. Composed of islands, islets and cays and more than 100 reefs, sometimes grouped in submerged old atolls, the archipelago lies off the coasts of the Philippines, Malaysia, and southern Vietnam.
The Paracel Islands are a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea. Composed of islands, islets and cays and more than 100 reefs, sometimes grouped in submerged old atolls, the archipelago lies off the coasts of the Philippines, Malaysia, and southern Vietnam.
The Paracel Islands are a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries is/are members of International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC) project?
- India
- Ukraine
- South Africa
- Russia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
The INSTC project was originally decided between India, Iran and Russia in 2000 in St Petersburg, and subsequently included 10 other central Asian and west Asian countries: Azerbaijan Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Tajikistan, Turkey, Ukraine, Belarus, Oman, Syria and Bulgaria as an observer.
It envisions a 7,200-km-long multi-mode network of ship, rail and road route for transporting freight, aimed at reducing the carriage cost between India and Russia by about 30% and bringing down the transit time from 40 days by more than half.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The INSTC project was originally decided between India, Iran and Russia in 2000 in St Petersburg, and subsequently included 10 other central Asian and west Asian countries: Azerbaijan Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Tajikistan, Turkey, Ukraine, Belarus, Oman, Syria and Bulgaria as an observer.
It envisions a 7,200-km-long multi-mode network of ship, rail and road route for transporting freight, aimed at reducing the carriage cost between India and Russia by about 30% and bringing down the transit time from 40 days by more than half.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are considered as Debt instruments?
- Bonds
- Certificates of deposits
- Commercial papers (CPs)
- Mortgages and leases
- Promissory notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: D
A debt instrument is a paper or electronic obligation that enables the issuing party to raise funds by promising to repay a lender in accordance with the terms of a contract. It is a method by which finance companies normally source funds.
Examples for different debt instruments:
- Bonds,
- Non-convertible debentures (NCDs),
- Certificates of deposits,
- Commercial papers(CPs),
- Mortgages and leases
- Promissory notes
Incorrect
Solution: D
A debt instrument is a paper or electronic obligation that enables the issuing party to raise funds by promising to repay a lender in accordance with the terms of a contract. It is a method by which finance companies normally source funds.
Examples for different debt instruments:
- Bonds,
- Non-convertible debentures (NCDs),
- Certificates of deposits,
- Commercial papers(CPs),
- Mortgages and leases
- Promissory notes
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following categories is/are listed by RBI under Priority Sector Lending?
- Agriculture
- Education
- Housing
- Renewable Energy
- Weaker Sections
- Scientific Research
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: C
Priority Sector means those sectors which the Government of India and Reserve Bank of India consider as important for the development of the basic needs of the country and are to be given priority over other sectors. The banks are mandated to encourage the growth of such sectors with adequate and timely credit.
The following are the categories listed by RBI under Priority Sector Lending
- Agriculture
- Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
- Export Credit
- Education
- Housing
- Social Infrastructure
- Renewable Energy
Incorrect
Solution: C
Priority Sector means those sectors which the Government of India and Reserve Bank of India consider as important for the development of the basic needs of the country and are to be given priority over other sectors. The banks are mandated to encourage the growth of such sectors with adequate and timely credit.
The following are the categories listed by RBI under Priority Sector Lending
- Agriculture
- Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
- Export Credit
- Education
- Housing
- Social Infrastructure
- Renewable Energy
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to National Institute of Social Defence, which of the following statements is/are correct
- NISD is a Central Advisory Body for Ministry of Home Affairs
- The institute currently focuses on human resource development in the areas of drug abuse prevention, beggary prevention and transgender issues.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: B
National Institute of Social Defence
- The National Institute of Social Defence (NISD) is an Autonomous Body and is registered under Societies Act XXI of 1860 with the Government of National Capital Territory (NCT), Delhi.
- It is a central advisory body for the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- It is the nodal training and research institute in the field of social defence.
- The institute currently focuses on human resource development in the areas of drug abuse prevention, welfare of senior citizens, beggary prevention, transgender and other social defence issues.
- The mandate of the institute is to provide inputs for the social defence programmes of the Government of India through training, research & documentation.
Incorrect
Solution: B
National Institute of Social Defence
- The National Institute of Social Defence (NISD) is an Autonomous Body and is registered under Societies Act XXI of 1860 with the Government of National Capital Territory (NCT), Delhi.
- It is a central advisory body for the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- It is the nodal training and research institute in the field of social defence.
- The institute currently focuses on human resource development in the areas of drug abuse prevention, welfare of senior citizens, beggary prevention, transgender and other social defence issues.
- The mandate of the institute is to provide inputs for the social defence programmes of the Government of India through training, research & documentation.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013 consider the following statements:
- The Act legally entitles up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
- The eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above is mandated to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards under the Act.
- The National Food Security Act, (NFSA) 2013 is being implemented in all the States/UTs, on an all-India basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:
- As passed by the Parliament, Government has notified the National Food Security Act, 2013 on 10th September, 2013.
- The objective is to provide for food and nutritional security in human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate quantity of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity.
Key features:
- The Act provides for coverage of upto 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the population.
- The eligible persons will be entitled to receive 5 Kgs of foodgrains per person per month at subsidised prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.
- The existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households, which constitute the poorest of the poor, will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrains per household per month.
- The Act also has a special focus on the nutritional support to women and children. Besides meal to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth, such women will also be entitled to receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000.
- Children upto 14 years of age will be entitled to nutritious meals as per the prescribed nutritional standards.
- In case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals, the beneficiaries will receive food security allowance.
- The Act also contains provisions for setting up of grievance redressal mechanism at the District and State levels.
- Separate provisions have also been made in the Act for ensuring transparency and accountability.
- The eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above is mandated to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards under the Act.
- The National Food Security Act, (NFSA) 2013 is being implemented in all the States/UTs, on an all-India basis.
Incorrect
Solution: D
National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:
- As passed by the Parliament, Government has notified the National Food Security Act, 2013 on 10th September, 2013.
- The objective is to provide for food and nutritional security in human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate quantity of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity.
Key features:
- The Act provides for coverage of upto 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the population.
- The eligible persons will be entitled to receive 5 Kgs of foodgrains per person per month at subsidised prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.
- The existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households, which constitute the poorest of the poor, will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrains per household per month.
- The Act also has a special focus on the nutritional support to women and children. Besides meal to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth, such women will also be entitled to receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000.
- Children upto 14 years of age will be entitled to nutritious meals as per the prescribed nutritional standards.
- In case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals, the beneficiaries will receive food security allowance.
- The Act also contains provisions for setting up of grievance redressal mechanism at the District and State levels.
- Separate provisions have also been made in the Act for ensuring transparency and accountability.
- The eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above is mandated to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards under the Act.
- The National Food Security Act, (NFSA) 2013 is being implemented in all the States/UTs, on an all-India basis.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Sea: Bordering country
- Red Sea: Djibouti
- Caspian Sea: Azerbaijan
- North Sea: Belgium
- Aral Sea: Turkmenistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
The six countries bordering the Red Sea proper are:
- Eastern shore: Saudi Arabia. Yemen.
- Western shore: Egypt. Sudan. Eritrea. Djibouti.
Russia, Iran, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan – all bordering the Caspian Sea
North Sea: The sea is bordered by the island of Great Britain to the southwest and west, the Orkney and Shetland islands to the northwest, Norway to the northeast, Denmark to the east, Germany and the Netherlands to the southeast, and Belgium and France to the south.
Aral Sea: It straddles the boundary between Kazakhstan to the north and Uzbekistan to the south.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The six countries bordering the Red Sea proper are:
- Eastern shore: Saudi Arabia. Yemen.
- Western shore: Egypt. Sudan. Eritrea. Djibouti.
Russia, Iran, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan – all bordering the Caspian Sea
North Sea: The sea is bordered by the island of Great Britain to the southwest and west, the Orkney and Shetland islands to the northwest, Norway to the northeast, Denmark to the east, Germany and the Netherlands to the southeast, and Belgium and France to the south.
Aral Sea: It straddles the boundary between Kazakhstan to the north and Uzbekistan to the south.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsRatio between two numbers is 4:3 and their sum is 91, then find the smaller number ?
Correct
Solution: B
Given, the ratio of two numbers = 4 : 3
Let the two numbers be 4x and 3x
Given, their sum = 91
=> 4x + 3x = 91
=> x = 13
Smaller number = 3x = 39Incorrect
Solution: B
Given, the ratio of two numbers = 4 : 3
Let the two numbers be 4x and 3x
Given, their sum = 91
=> 4x + 3x = 91
=> x = 13
Smaller number = 3x = 39 -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsTwo numbers are in the ratio 4:7. If 40 is added to each of them, the ratio becomes 2:3. What is the sum of the numbers?
Correct
Solution: D
Given, ratio of two numbers is 4:7
Original numbers are 4x and 7x
Thus, their sum = 11x
It is given that, (4x+40)/(7x+40) = 2/3
= 12 x + 120 = 14 x + 80
= 2x =40
0r x = 20
Therefore, their sum = 20 * 11 = 220
Incorrect
Solution: D
Given, ratio of two numbers is 4:7
Original numbers are 4x and 7x
Thus, their sum = 11x
It is given that, (4x+40)/(7x+40) = 2/3
= 12 x + 120 = 14 x + 80
= 2x =40
0r x = 20
Therefore, their sum = 20 * 11 = 220
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 points6 liters of milk and water mixture has 75% milk in it. How much milk should be added to the mixture to make it 90% pure?
Correct
Solution: B
The given solution has 75% milk.
Milk to be added has 100% milk.
Milk should be added to the given mixture in the ratio (90-75) : (100 – 90) =15 : 10 or 3 : 2
Thus, Quantity of milk to be added = (3 / 2) × 6 = 9 liters.Incorrect
Solution: B
The given solution has 75% milk.
Milk to be added has 100% milk.
Milk should be added to the given mixture in the ratio (90-75) : (100 – 90) =15 : 10 or 3 : 2
Thus, Quantity of milk to be added = (3 / 2) × 6 = 9 liters. -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe respective ratio of the ages of Ramya and her mother is 1 : 2, after 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 20. What was the respective ratio of their ages before 9 years?
Correct
Solution: B
Let the present age of Ramya and her mother be X and 2X respectively.
After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 20
= (X + 6)/(2X + 6) = 11/20
= 20X + 120 = 22X + 66
= 2X = 54 or X = 27
So, present age of Ramya = 27 yrs
Present age of her mother = 54 yrs
Therefore, before 9 years, ratio of Ramya and her mother
= (27 – 9)/(54 – 9)
= 18/45
= 2 : 5.Incorrect
Solution: B
Let the present age of Ramya and her mother be X and 2X respectively.
After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 20
= (X + 6)/(2X + 6) = 11/20
= 20X + 120 = 22X + 66
= 2X = 54 or X = 27
So, present age of Ramya = 27 yrs
Present age of her mother = 54 yrs
Therefore, before 9 years, ratio of Ramya and her mother
= (27 – 9)/(54 – 9)
= 18/45
= 2 : 5. -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsWhen water heats up, it takes up more space. That means as oceans warm, sea levels rise. The study says this effect alone could make sea levels rise 30cm (12 inches) by the end of the century.
“That doesn’t sound like much, but there are many large cities around the world, much built on reclaimed land, that are not more than 30cm above sea level,” says Stephen Simpson, associate professor in marine biology and global change at the University of Exeter, in the UK. “Millions and millions of people would be displaced.” But on top of that, warming oceans are causing polar ice sheets to melt faster, which will make sea levels rise even more.Which of the following is the most logical and critical corollary to the above passage?
Correct
Ans. A.
The passage states that coastal cities built on reclaimed land need to worry. However the last line also says that sea levels could rise much more than 30cm. This means that the logical corollary is for all coastal cities to safeguard themselves against rising sea level.
Incorrect
Ans. A.
The passage states that coastal cities built on reclaimed land need to worry. However the last line also says that sea levels could rise much more than 30cm. This means that the logical corollary is for all coastal cities to safeguard themselves against rising sea level.
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