DAY – 10(InstaTest-10): Insta 70 Days Revision Plan-2021: Topic – GEOGRAPHY, Subject-wise Test 5, 6, 20 Revision , Textbook-wise Tests 8 , August 2020 CA

Solution: D

The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Water vapour is a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. Water vapour also decreases from the equator towards the poles. It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: D

The energy received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation
which in short is termed as insolation.

The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during a day, in a season and in a year. The factors that cause these variations in insolation are :

(i) The rotation of earth on its axis

(ii) The angle of inclination of the sun’s rays

(iii) The length of the day

(iv) The transparency of the atmosphere

(v) The configuration of land in terms of its aspect

Thus, all the given factors cause variation in the amount of insolation.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: D

When the temperature increases with altitude, it is known as temperature inversion. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.

Solution: A

The Iron-Ore Deposits are located in the district of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and Banswara. About 2621 million tones resources of Iron–Ore (Both Hematite & Magnetite) are estimated in the State. The important localities of Iron-Ore are Morija- Neemala (Jaipur), Lalsot (Dausa), Rampura, Dabla (Sikar), Taonda (Jhunjhunu), Pur-Banera, Bigod (Bhilwara), Nathara-Ki-Pal, Thur (Udaipur), Indergarh, Mohanpura (Bundi), Dedrauli, Liloti, Todupura, Khora (Karauli).

To enhance coal production and reduce imports, Coal India Ltd (CIL) has identified 15 new projects with a capacity to produce 160 million tpy. CIL aims to achieve 1 billion t of coal production by 2023 – 2024.

“The focus of the government is on increasing domestic production of coal and to achieve these targets through the allocation of more coal blocks, pursuing with the state government for assistance in land acquisition and co-ordinated efforts with railways for movement of coal […] 15 greenfield projects identified with a capacity of about 160 million tpy to be operated by mine developer cum operator mode,” Coal and Mines Minister, Pralhad Joshi, told Lok Sabha.

In order to enhance domestic production, 25% of coal production has been allowed for the sale of coal for the newly-allocated captive coal blocks, he said and added that commercial mining, with a provision for 100% foreign direct investment, has been allowed by the government.

India is not self-sufficient in coal production and India imports most of its coking coal. Hence Statement 2 and 3 is incorrect.

Solution: D

The Indus receives a number of Himalayan tributaries such as the Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting and the Dras.

It finally emerges out of the hills near Attock where it receives the Kabul river on its right bank. The other important tributaries joining the right bank of the Indus are the Khurram, the Tochi, the Gomal, the Viboa and the Sangar. They all originate in the Sulaiman ranges.

Solution: C

Solution: A

Solution: B

Both the statements given above are correct.

The Antarctic Oscillation (AAO) is the dominant pattern of non-seasonal tropospheric circulation variations south of 20S, and it is characterized by pressure anomalies of one sign centered in the Antarctic and anomalies of the opposite sign centered about 40-50S.

It does not act directly to influence Indian climate but affects the Indian Ocean Meridional Dipole which in turn plays a role in our climatic conditions.

http://research.jisao.washington.edu/data/aao/

Solution: A

Tsunami

Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause the sea-floor to move abruptly resulting in sudden displacement of ocean water in the form of high vertical waves are called tsunamis (harbour waves) or seismic sea waves.

Normally, the seismic waves cause only one instantaneous vertical wave; but, after the initial disturbance, a series of afterwaves are created in the water that oscillate between high crest and low trough in order to restore the water level.

The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon the depth of water. It is more in the shallow water than in the ocean deep. As a result of this, the impact of tsunami is less over the ocean and more near the coast where they cause large-scale devastations. Therefore, a ship at sea is not much affected by tsunami and it is difficult to detect a tsunami in the deeper parts of sea. It is so because over deep water the tsunami has very long wave-length and limited wave-height.

Thus, a tsunami wave raises the ship only a metre or two and each rise and fall takes several minutes. As opposed to this, when a tsunami enters shallow water, its wave-length gets reduced and the period remains unchanged, which increases the waveheight.

Sometimes, this height can be up to 15m or more, which causes large-scale destructions along the shores. Thus, these are also called Shallow Water Waves. Tsunamis are frequently observed along the Pacific ring of fire, particularly along the coast of Alaska, Japan, Philippines, and other islands of Southeast Asia, Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and India etc.

Solution: D

Duar formations

As compared to the other sections of the Himalayas, these along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the Shiwalik formations.

In place of the Shiwaliks here, the ‘duar formations’ are important, which have also been used for the development of tea gardens.

The Dooars or Duars are the alluvial floodplains in northeastern India that lie south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and north of the Brahmaputra River basin.

The Duars are found in northeastern India.

Solution: D

None of the statements given above are correct.

Right to Information is an act of the Parliament of India which sets out the rules and procedures regarding citizens’ right to information. It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act, 2002.

As per section 3 of the RTI Act any Indian citizen can seek information under the Act.

“Right to information” means the right to information accessible under the Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority and includes the right to—

(i) inspection of work, documents, records;
(ii) taking notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records;
(iii) taking certified samples of material;
(iv) Obtaining information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts where such information is stored in a computer or in any other device.

Intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule to the Act are exempt from furnishing information under the Act.  However, this exemption does not apply if the requested information pertains to the allegations of corruption and human rights violations.

Source: Yojana, September 2020

Solution: A

The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels—the Centre and the state.

He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and pensions of persons serving in that office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to the vote of Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

 Source: Yojana, September, 2020

Solution: A

The Press Council of India was first set up in the year 1966 on the recommendations of the First Press Commission. In the discharge of its two-fold function of preserving the freedom of the press and maintaining and improving the standards of the press, the Council performs a multifaceted role.

It acts on the one hand as a quasi-judicial authority with all powers of the civil court and on the other, in its advisory capacity; it guides the press as well as the authorities on any matter that may have a bearing on the freedom of the press and on its preservation.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Press Council is headed by a Chairman who has by convention been a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. Besides, the Council consists of 28 other members, of whom 20 represent the press, five are from the two Houses of Parliament and three represents the cultural, literary and legal fields who are nominated by Government of India from the Sahitya Academy, University Grants Commission and the Bar Council of India. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

The Council is funded by the revenue collected by it as fee levied on the registered newspapers in the country on the basis of their circulation; the deficit is made good by way of the grant by the Central Government. Though to some extent, the Council is dependent on the government for finances, yet in so far as functional autonomy is concerned, it has remained completely uninfluenced by any extraneous considerations in the discharge of its quasi-judicial functions.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://presscouncil.nic.in/WriteReadData/Pdf/RESUMENINTYN.pdf

Source: Yojana, September 2020.

Solution: B

The Government of India has notified the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018 vide Gazette Notification No. 20 dated January 02, 2018.

As per provisions of the Scheme, Electoral Bonds may be purchased by a person (as defined in item No. 2 (d) of Gazette Notification), who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India.

A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.

Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

The Electoral Bonds shall be encashed by an eligible Political Party only through a Bank account with the Authorised Bank. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

A bearer instrument does not carry any information about the buyer or payee and the holder of the instrument (which is the political party) is presumed to be its owner.

The bonds are sold in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore, and the State Bank of India (SBI) is the only bank authorised to sell them. Donors can purchase and subsequently donate the bonds to their party of choice, which the party can then cash through its verified account within 15 days. There is no limit on the number of bonds an individual or company can purchase. SBI deposits bonds that a political party hasn’t enchased within 15 days into the Prime Minister’s Relief Fund.

Through an amendment to the Finance Act 2017, the Union government has exempted political parties from disclosing donations received through electoral bonds. In other words, they don’t have to disclose details of those contributing by way of electoral bonds in their contribution reports filed mandatorily with the Election Commission every year. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Source: Yojana, September, 2020

Solution: C

The Benami Transaction (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016 seeks to amend the Benami Transactions Act, 1988.  The Act prohibits benami transactions and provides for confiscating benami properties.

It seeks to prohibit the benami transactions irrespective of the method by which the benami property is acquired. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Central Government shall, by notification, appoint one or more Adjudicating Authorities to exercise jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred by or under this Act.

The Adjudicating Authority shall not be bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and, subject to the other provisions of this Act, the Authority shall have powers to regulate its own procedure.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Source: Yojana, September 2020

Solution: A

The landmark legislation Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 (RERA), marking the beginning of a new era in the Indian real estate sector and a step towards reforming the real estate sector in India, encouraging greater transparency, citizen centricity, accountability and financial discipline.

The Real Estate Act makes it mandatory for each state and union territory, to form its own regulator and frame the rules to govern the functioning of the regulator.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Real estate projects need to be registered with State Real Estate Regulatory Authority. Promoters cannot book or offer these projects for sale without registering them. Real Estate Agents dealing in these projects also need to register with Real Estate Regulatory Authorities.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

70% of the collected amount from buyers must be deposited in an escrow bank account for construction of that project only and the withdrawals have to be certified by Architects, CA and Project Engineers.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

http://mohua.gov.in/cms/real-estate-regulation-and-development-act-2016.php

Source: Yojana, September 2020

Solution: A

Chanakya, also called Kautilya or Vishnugupta, (flourished 300 BCE), Hindu statesman and philosopher who wrote a classic treatise on polity, Artha-shastra (“The Science of Material Gain”), a compilation of almost everything that had been written in India up to his time regarding artha (property, economics, or material success).

Chanakya became a counselor and adviser to Chandragupta (reigned c. 321–c. 297), founder of the Mauryan empire of northern India, but lived by himself. He was instrumental in helping Chandragupta overthrow the powerful Nanda dynasty at Pataliputra, in the Magadha region.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: B

Harvest festival of Kerala, Onam is celebrated for 10 days with great enthusiasm. The 10 days of September are dedicated to the arrival of Mahabali, a legendary emperor and also known as the king of Asuras (demons). People of Kerala celebrate a successful harvest and offer gratitude to the deities.

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Every year, the people of Assam celebrate Bhogali Bihu with traditional dances and games in mid-April. The festival is to offer gratitude and to cherish the process of cultivation and reap the benefits.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Grand harvest festival of Maharashtra, Gudi Padwa marks the beginning of an auspicious new year with celebrating a successful crop. Being a springtime festival, Gudi Padwa is celebrated on the first day of ‘Chaitra’ month, the first day of Hindu new year i.e. mid-March.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Solution: B

The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.

Originally, the Constitution provided for seven Fundamental Rights viz,

1. Right to equality (Articles 14–18)
2. Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)
3. Right against exploitation (Articles 23–24)
4. Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25–28)
5. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29–30)
6. Right to property (Article 31)
7. Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)

However, the right to property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.

It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution. So at present, there are only six Fundamental Rights.

Right to travel abroad comes under the ambit of Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty) of the Indian Constitution.

Solution: C

Channapatna Toys:

Channapatna toys are a particular form of wooden toys (and dolls) that are manufactured in the town of Channapatna in the Ramanagara district of Karnataka state.

• This traditional craft is protected as a geographical indication(GI).
• As a result of the popularity of these toys, Channapatna is known as Gombegala Ooru (toy-town) of Karnataka.

Solution: B

 BeiDou navigation system:

China has recently completed its BeiDou Navigation Satellite System constellation.

It is Chinese Satellite Navigation System.

The system uses a network of satellites and can provide positional accuracies of under ten metres (GPS provides positioning accuracies of under 2.2 metres).

• China initiated BeiDou in 1994 with aims to integrate its application in different sectors, including fishery, agriculture, special care, mass-market applications, forestry and public security.
• BeiDou offers services including accurate positioning, navigation and timing as well as short message communication.

Solution: A

Arctic Council:

• It was established by Ottawa declaration in 1996.
• It is an Intergovernmental forum which addresses issues faced by the Arctic governments and people living in the Arctic region
• It is Not a treaty-based international organization but rather an international forum that operates on the basis of consensus.
• The decisions, recommendations or guidelines of the Arctic Council are non-enforceable and strictly the prerogative of the individual state.
• Its mandate explicitly excludes military security.

The Ottawa Declaration lists the following countries as Members of the Arctic Council: Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States.

In addition, six organizations representing Arctic indigenous peoples have status as Permanent Participants. The category of Permanent Participant was created to provide for active participation and full consultation with the Arctic indigenous peoples within the Council. They include: the Aleut International Association, the Arctic Athabaskan Council, Gwich’in Council International, the Inuit Circumpolar Council, Russian Association of Indigenous Peoples of the North and the Saami Council.

India, along with 12 other countries, is Observers to the Arctic Council. So are 13 intergovernmental and inter-parliamentary organisations like the UN Environment Programme, and the UN Development Programme, and 12 other non-governmental organisations. The Observers are not part of the decision-making processes, but they are invited to attend the meetings of the Council, especially at the level of the working groups.

Solution: C

 Rohtang Pass:

• It is a high mountain pass (elevation 3,980 m) on the eastern Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas around 51 km from Manali.
• It connects the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti Valleys of Himachal Pradesh, India.
• The pass lies on the watershed between the Chenab and Beas basins.
• On the southern side of this pass, the Beas River emerges from underground and flows southward and on its northern side, the Chandra River, a source stream of the river Chenab, flows westward.

Solution: A

Innovation Challenge Fund:

• • Launched by UK in India
  • The fund aims to support scientists in academia and industry to tackle the most acute global challenges like Covid-19 and the threat to the environment.
  • The fund will help to build on the UK-India Tech partnership which was launched in 2018 by the Indian and British Prime Ministers.

Solution: A

Percentage strength of the acid in the mixture = Quantity (volume) of the acid in the mixture/Total volume × 100
= [(5*20/100)+ (7.5*80/100)/(5+7.5)] *100 = (5*20+7.5*80) /(5+7.5) = 56%.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: B

Let the income of Ramesh and Suresh be 4x and 3x respectively
And the Expenses of Ramesh and Suresh are 3y and 2y respectively.
As it is given that each of them saves Rs. 6000 monthly.
Therefore,
Savings of Ramesh = 4x – 3y = 6000……(Eq1)
Saving of Suresh = 3x -2y = 6000     …….(Eq2)
Subtracting (2) from (1) gives
x –y = 0, i.e. x = y…………….(Eq3)
Using (Eq3) in (Eq1) we get,x = 6000.
So, Ramesh’s Income = 4x = 24000
Suresh’s income = 3x =18000
Net difference = 24000 – 18000 = 6000
Required percentage = 6000/18000 × 100% = 33.33%
Hence, option (b) is the correct

Solution: C

Let the total number of boys be 11x and total number of girls be 13x.

Therefore, total students will be 24x.

Therefore, total number of students appearing in the examination must be a multiple of 24.

Looking at the options, option (b) and option (d) can be directly eliminated as they are odd numbers.

By looking at remaining options, it can be clearly seen that 240 is completely divisible by 24.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: D

Let the initial quantity of milk in vessel be T litres.

Let us say x litres of the mixture is taken out and replaced by water for n times, alternatively.

Quantity of milk finally in the vessel is then given by [(T – x)/T]ⁿ * T

For the given problem, T = 90, x = 9 and n = 2.

Hence, quantity of milk finally in the vessel

= [(90 – 9)/90]² (90) = 72.9 litres.

Ans. B.

The focus of the passage is on explaining the high dependency of Indian economy on agriculture even when the other sectors of the economy start doing well. Hence B