INSTA 70 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2021
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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding evolution of atmosphere
- The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called degassing.
- The early atmosphere had very little of oxygen
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct
During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth. This started the evolution of the present atmosphere.
The early atmosphere largely contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little of free oxygen. The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called degassing.
Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases to the atmosphere. As the earth cooled, the water vapour released started getting condensed. The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere got dissolved in rainwater and the temperature further decreased causing more
condensation and more rains.
Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis. Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and 2,000 million years ago, oxygen began to flood the atmosphere.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct
During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth. This started the evolution of the present atmosphere.
The early atmosphere largely contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little of free oxygen. The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called degassing.
Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases to the atmosphere. As the earth cooled, the water vapour released started getting condensed. The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere got dissolved in rainwater and the temperature further decreased causing more
condensation and more rains.
Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis. Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and 2,000 million years ago, oxygen began to flood the atmosphere.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Heat Budget
- Roughly 50 percent of heat received from sun is reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface.
- The absorbed amount of radiation by the Earth is called the albedo of the earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
The earth as a whole does not accumulate or loose heat. It maintains its temperature. This can happen only if the amount of heat received in the form of insolation equals the amount lost by the earth through terrestrial radiation. Consider that the insolation received at the top of the atmosphere is 100 per cent. While passing through the atmosphere some amount of energy is reflected, scattered and absorbed. Only the remaining part reaches the earth surface.
Roughly 35 units are reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface. Of these, 27 units are reflected back from the top of the clouds and 2 units from the snow and ice-covered areas of the earth. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo of the earth.
The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
The earth as a whole does not accumulate or loose heat. It maintains its temperature. This can happen only if the amount of heat received in the form of insolation equals the amount lost by the earth through terrestrial radiation. Consider that the insolation received at the top of the atmosphere is 100 per cent. While passing through the atmosphere some amount of energy is reflected, scattered and absorbed. Only the remaining part reaches the earth surface.
Roughly 35 units are reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface. Of these, 27 units are reflected back from the top of the clouds and 2 units from the snow and ice-covered areas of the earth. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo of the earth.
The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- To determine how much water is in Jupiter’s atmosphere
- To map Jupiter’s magnetic and gravity fields, revealing the planet’s deep structure
- Explore and study Jupiter’s magnetosphere near the planet’s poles, especially the auroras.
Which of the statements given above is/are the objectives of the JUNO Mission?
Correct
Solution: C
Juno is a NASA space probe orbiting the planet Jupiter. It was built by Lockheed Martin and is operated by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory. The spacecraft was launched from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station on August 5, 2011 as part of the New Frontiers program.
Juno entered a polar orbit of Jupiter on July 5, 2016 begin a scientific investigation of the planet.
After completing its mission, Juno will be intentionally deorbited into Jupiter’s atmosphere.
Juno will improve our understanding of the solar system’s beginnings by revealing the origin and evolution of Jupiter.
Specifically, Juno will…
- Determine how much water is in Jupiter’s atmosphere, which helps determine which planet formation theory is correct (or if new theories are needed)
- Look deep into Jupiter’s atmosphere to measure composition, temperature, cloud motions and other properties
- Map Jupiter’s magnetic and gravity fields, revealing the planet’s deep structure
- Explore and study Jupiter’s magnetosphere near the planet’s poles, especially the auroras – Jupiter’s northern and southern lights – providing new insights about how the planet’s enormous magnetic force field affects its atmosphere.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Juno is a NASA space probe orbiting the planet Jupiter. It was built by Lockheed Martin and is operated by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory. The spacecraft was launched from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station on August 5, 2011 as part of the New Frontiers program.
Juno entered a polar orbit of Jupiter on July 5, 2016 begin a scientific investigation of the planet.
After completing its mission, Juno will be intentionally deorbited into Jupiter’s atmosphere.
Juno will improve our understanding of the solar system’s beginnings by revealing the origin and evolution of Jupiter.
Specifically, Juno will…
- Determine how much water is in Jupiter’s atmosphere, which helps determine which planet formation theory is correct (or if new theories are needed)
- Look deep into Jupiter’s atmosphere to measure composition, temperature, cloud motions and other properties
- Map Jupiter’s magnetic and gravity fields, revealing the planet’s deep structure
- Explore and study Jupiter’s magnetosphere near the planet’s poles, especially the auroras – Jupiter’s northern and southern lights – providing new insights about how the planet’s enormous magnetic force field affects its atmosphere.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the phenomena of Western Disturbances:
- It is an extra tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings sudden winter rain to the north-western parts of the Indian sub-continent.
- Extra tropical storms are a global phenomenon with moisture usually carried in the lower atmosphere, unlike their tropical counterparts where the moisture is carried in the upper atmosphere
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is Western Disturbance?
It is an extra tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings sudden winter rain to the north-western parts of the Indian sub-continent. It is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies.
Extra tropical storms are a global phenomenon with moisture usually carried in the upper atmosphere, unlike their tropical counterparts where the moisture is carried in the lower atmosphere. In the case of the Indian subcontinent, moisture is sometimes shed as rain when the storm system encounters the Himalayas. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Formation:
Western Disturbance originates in the Mediterranean Sea as extra-tropical cyclones. A high-pressure area over Ukraine and neighbourhood consolidates, causing the intrusion of cold air from Polar Regions towards an area of relatively warmer air with high moisture. This generates favourable conditions for cyclogenesis in the upper atmosphere, which promotes the formation of an eastward-moving extra tropical depression. They gradually travel across the middle-east from Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan to enter the Indian sub-continent.
Impact:
- Plays important role in bringing moderate to heavy rain in low-lying areas and heavy snow to mountainous areas of the Indian Subcontinent.
- This disturbance is usually associated with cloudy sky, higher night temperatures and unusual rain. This precipitation has great importance in agriculture, particularly for the Rabi crops. Wheat among them is one of the most important crops, which helps to meet India’s food security.
- Excessive precipitation due to this disturbance can cause crop damage, landslides, floods and avalanches. Over the Indo-Gangetic plains, it occasionally bring cold wave conditions and dense fog. These conditions remain stable until disturbed by another western disturbance. When western disturbances move across northwest India before the onset of monsoon, a temporary advancement of monsoon current appears over the region.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is Western Disturbance?
It is an extra tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings sudden winter rain to the north-western parts of the Indian sub-continent. It is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies.
Extra tropical storms are a global phenomenon with moisture usually carried in the upper atmosphere, unlike their tropical counterparts where the moisture is carried in the lower atmosphere. In the case of the Indian subcontinent, moisture is sometimes shed as rain when the storm system encounters the Himalayas. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Formation:
Western Disturbance originates in the Mediterranean Sea as extra-tropical cyclones. A high-pressure area over Ukraine and neighbourhood consolidates, causing the intrusion of cold air from Polar Regions towards an area of relatively warmer air with high moisture. This generates favourable conditions for cyclogenesis in the upper atmosphere, which promotes the formation of an eastward-moving extra tropical depression. They gradually travel across the middle-east from Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan to enter the Indian sub-continent.
Impact:
- Plays important role in bringing moderate to heavy rain in low-lying areas and heavy snow to mountainous areas of the Indian Subcontinent.
- This disturbance is usually associated with cloudy sky, higher night temperatures and unusual rain. This precipitation has great importance in agriculture, particularly for the Rabi crops. Wheat among them is one of the most important crops, which helps to meet India’s food security.
- Excessive precipitation due to this disturbance can cause crop damage, landslides, floods and avalanches. Over the Indo-Gangetic plains, it occasionally bring cold wave conditions and dense fog. These conditions remain stable until disturbed by another western disturbance. When western disturbances move across northwest India before the onset of monsoon, a temporary advancement of monsoon current appears over the region.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding El Niño Modoki
- El Niño Modoki is associated with strong anomalous warming in the central tropical Pacific and cooling in the eastern and western tropical Pacific.
- ENSO Modoki influences the rainfall over India and South Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The El Niño Modoki
- El Niño Modoki is a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon in the tropical Pacific.
- It is different from another coupled phenomenon in the tropical Pacific namely, El Niño.
- Conventional El Niño is characterized by strong anomalous warming in the eastern equatorial Pacific.
- Whereas, El Niño Modoki is associated with strong anomalous warming in the central tropical Pacific and cooling in the eastern and western tropical Pacific
El Niño Modoki Impacts
- The El Niño Modoki phenomenon is characterized by the anomalously warm central equatorial Pacific flanked by anomalously cool regions in both west and east.
- Such zonal gradients result in anomalous two-cell Walker Circulation over the tropical Pacific, with a wet region in the central Pacific.
El Nino Modoki has recently been identified as a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon in the tropical Pacific Ocean and has been shown to be quite different from the canonical El Nino/Southern Oscillation (ENSO) in terms of its spatial and temporal characteristics as well as its tele connection patterns.
Traditionally the term “El Nino” was used for the canonical El Nino associated with warming in the eastern tropical Pacific. However, as we realize now, during El Nino Modoki the sea surface temperature (SST) anomaly in eastern Pacific is not affected, but a warm anomaly arises in the central Pacific flanked by cold anomalies on both sides of the basin.
Together with its counterpart La Nina Modoki, when colder central Pacific is flanked by warmer eastern and western Pacific, the new phenomenon is now called as the ENSO Modoki that assumes both warm and cold phases of its behavior. Several studies have shown that the ENSO Modoki has become more prominent in recent times, as compared to ENSO, and thereby changing the teleconnection pattern arising from the tropical Pacific. Moreover, the associated decadal changes in the sea level are shown to affect not only the islands of central Pacific but remote regions off California and southwestern Indian Ocean.
The ENSO Modoki has distinct teleconnections and affect many parts of the world. For example, the West Coast of United States of America is wet during El Nino but dry during El Nino Modoki (e.g. Weng et al. 2008). Recent studies show that teleconnections associated with ENSO Modoki influence the rainfall over India and South Africa
Incorrect
Solution: C
The El Niño Modoki
- El Niño Modoki is a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon in the tropical Pacific.
- It is different from another coupled phenomenon in the tropical Pacific namely, El Niño.
- Conventional El Niño is characterized by strong anomalous warming in the eastern equatorial Pacific.
- Whereas, El Niño Modoki is associated with strong anomalous warming in the central tropical Pacific and cooling in the eastern and western tropical Pacific
El Niño Modoki Impacts
- The El Niño Modoki phenomenon is characterized by the anomalously warm central equatorial Pacific flanked by anomalously cool regions in both west and east.
- Such zonal gradients result in anomalous two-cell Walker Circulation over the tropical Pacific, with a wet region in the central Pacific.
El Nino Modoki has recently been identified as a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon in the tropical Pacific Ocean and has been shown to be quite different from the canonical El Nino/Southern Oscillation (ENSO) in terms of its spatial and temporal characteristics as well as its tele connection patterns.
Traditionally the term “El Nino” was used for the canonical El Nino associated with warming in the eastern tropical Pacific. However, as we realize now, during El Nino Modoki the sea surface temperature (SST) anomaly in eastern Pacific is not affected, but a warm anomaly arises in the central Pacific flanked by cold anomalies on both sides of the basin.
Together with its counterpart La Nina Modoki, when colder central Pacific is flanked by warmer eastern and western Pacific, the new phenomenon is now called as the ENSO Modoki that assumes both warm and cold phases of its behavior. Several studies have shown that the ENSO Modoki has become more prominent in recent times, as compared to ENSO, and thereby changing the teleconnection pattern arising from the tropical Pacific. Moreover, the associated decadal changes in the sea level are shown to affect not only the islands of central Pacific but remote regions off California and southwestern Indian Ocean.
The ENSO Modoki has distinct teleconnections and affect many parts of the world. For example, the West Coast of United States of America is wet during El Nino but dry during El Nino Modoki (e.g. Weng et al. 2008). Recent studies show that teleconnections associated with ENSO Modoki influence the rainfall over India and South Africa
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding tropical cyclone
- The eye is a region of calm with subsiding air.
- The wind velocity is minimum in the eye wall region.
- From the eye wall rain bands may radiate and trains of cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds may drift into the outer region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
A mature tropical cyclone is characterized by the strong spirally circulating wind around the centre, called the eye. The diameter of the circulating system can vary between 150 and 250 km.
The eye is a region of calm with subsiding air. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Around the eye is the eye wall, where there is a strong spiraling ascent of air to greater height reaching the tropopause. The wind reaches maximum velocity in this region, reaching as high as 250 km per hour. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Torrential rain occurs here. From the eye wall rain bands may radiate and trains of cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds may drift into the outer region. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
The diameter of the storm over the Bay of Bengal, Arabian sea and Indian ocean is between 600 – 1200 km. The system moves slowly about 300 – 500 km per day. The cyclone creates storm surges and they inundate the coastal low lands. The storm peters out on the land.
Incorrect
Solution: A
A mature tropical cyclone is characterized by the strong spirally circulating wind around the centre, called the eye. The diameter of the circulating system can vary between 150 and 250 km.
The eye is a region of calm with subsiding air. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Around the eye is the eye wall, where there is a strong spiraling ascent of air to greater height reaching the tropopause. The wind reaches maximum velocity in this region, reaching as high as 250 km per hour. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Torrential rain occurs here. From the eye wall rain bands may radiate and trains of cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds may drift into the outer region. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
The diameter of the storm over the Bay of Bengal, Arabian sea and Indian ocean is between 600 – 1200 km. The system moves slowly about 300 – 500 km per day. The cyclone creates storm surges and they inundate the coastal low lands. The storm peters out on the land.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following ways the extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical cyclone?
- The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones.
- The extra tropical cyclones cover a larger area and can originate only over sea.
- The extra tropical cyclones move from east to west but tropical cyclones, move from west to east.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
The extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical cyclone in number of ways. The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones.
They cover a larger area and can originate over the land and sea. Whereas the tropical cyclones originate only over the seas and on reaching the land they dissipate. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher and it is more destructive.
The extra tropical cyclones move from west to east but tropical cyclones, move from east to west. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical cyclone in number of ways. The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones.
They cover a larger area and can originate over the land and sea. Whereas the tropical cyclones originate only over the seas and on reaching the land they dissipate. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher and it is more destructive.
The extra tropical cyclones move from west to east but tropical cyclones, move from east to west. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mediterranean Climate
- It is entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses.
- The basic cause of this type of climate is the shifting of the wind belts.
- The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Mediterranean Climate
- Entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north and south of the equator.
- The basic cause of this type of climate is the shifting of the wind belts.
- Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of ‘winter rain climate’, and gives rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.
Rainfall in winter with on-shore Westerlies
- The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift equator wards.
- In the northern hemisphere, the prevailing on-shore Westerlies bring much cyclonic rain from the Atlantic (Typical to Mediterranean Climate).
- The rain comes in heavy showers and only on a few days with bright sunny periods between them. This is another characteristic feature of the Mediterranean winter rain.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Mediterranean Climate
- Entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north and south of the equator.
- The basic cause of this type of climate is the shifting of the wind belts.
- Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of ‘winter rain climate’, and gives rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.
Rainfall in winter with on-shore Westerlies
- The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift equator wards.
- In the northern hemisphere, the prevailing on-shore Westerlies bring much cyclonic rain from the Atlantic (Typical to Mediterranean Climate).
- The rain comes in heavy showers and only on a few days with bright sunny periods between them. This is another characteristic feature of the Mediterranean winter rain.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding western cyclonic disturbances
- They enter the Indian subcontinent during the winter months and are brought by the westerly jet stream.
- A decrease in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance in the arrival of these cyclones’ disturbances.
- It is highly beneficial for kharif crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The western cyclonic disturbances which enter the Indian subcontinent from the west and the northwest during the winter months, originate over the Mediterranean Sea and are brought into India by the westerly jet stream.
An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance in the arrival of these cyclones’ disturbances.
In northwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. Although the amount is meagre, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The western cyclonic disturbances which enter the Indian subcontinent from the west and the northwest during the winter months, originate over the Mediterranean Sea and are brought into India by the westerly jet stream.
An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance in the arrival of these cyclones’ disturbances.
In northwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. Although the amount is meagre, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Air Masses
- It is defined as a large body of air having little horizontal variation in temperature and moisture.
- Warm tropical and subtropical oceans are source regions for formation of air masses.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Air Masses
When the air remains over a homogenous area for a sufficiently longer time, it acquires the characteristics of the area. The homogenous regions can be the vast ocean surface or vast plains. The air with distinctive characteristics in terms of temperature and humidity is called an air mass. It is defined as a large body of air having little horizontal variation in temperature and moisture. The homogenous surfaces, over which air masses form, are called the source regions.
The air masses are classified according to the source regions. There are five major source regions. These are: (i) Warm tropical and subtropical oceans; (ii) The subtropical hot deserts; (iii) The relatively cold high latitude oceans; (iv) The very cold snow covered continents in high latitudes; (v) Permanently ice covered continents in the Arctic and Antarctica. Accordingly, following types of air masses are recognized: (i) Maritime tropical(mT); (ii) Continental tropical (cT); (iii) Maritime polar (mP); (iv) Continental polar (cP); (v) Continental arctic (cA). Tropical air masses are warm and polar air masses are cold.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Air Masses
When the air remains over a homogenous area for a sufficiently longer time, it acquires the characteristics of the area. The homogenous regions can be the vast ocean surface or vast plains. The air with distinctive characteristics in terms of temperature and humidity is called an air mass. It is defined as a large body of air having little horizontal variation in temperature and moisture. The homogenous surfaces, over which air masses form, are called the source regions.
The air masses are classified according to the source regions. There are five major source regions. These are: (i) Warm tropical and subtropical oceans; (ii) The subtropical hot deserts; (iii) The relatively cold high latitude oceans; (iv) The very cold snow covered continents in high latitudes; (v) Permanently ice covered continents in the Arctic and Antarctica. Accordingly, following types of air masses are recognized: (i) Maritime tropical(mT); (ii) Continental tropical (cT); (iii) Maritime polar (mP); (iv) Continental polar (cP); (v) Continental arctic (cA). Tropical air masses are warm and polar air masses are cold.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following technologies is/are considered as part of Fourth Industrial Revolution, Industry 4.0:
- Advent of Steam Power
- Blockchain Technology
- Robotics
- Big Data
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
The first industrial revolution came with the advent of mechanisation, steam power and water power. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The second industrial revolution revolved around mass production and assembly lines using electricity.
The third industrial revolution came with electronic and IT systems and automation.
The fourth industrial revolution is associated with cyber-physical systems. Industry 4.0 describes the growing trend towards automation and data exchange in technology and processes within the manufacturing industry, including: The Internet of Things (IoT), The Industrial Internet of Things (IIoT), Cyber-physical Systems (CPS), Smart Manufacturing, Smart Factories, Cloud Computing, Additive Manufacturing, Big Data, Robotics, Cognitive Computing, Artificial Intelligence & Blockchain etc.
This automation creates a manufacturing system whereby the machines in factories are augmented with wireless connectivity and sensors to monitor and visualise an entire production process and make autonomous decisions.
Source: Yojana, June 2020
Incorrect
Solution: B
The first industrial revolution came with the advent of mechanisation, steam power and water power. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The second industrial revolution revolved around mass production and assembly lines using electricity.
The third industrial revolution came with electronic and IT systems and automation.
The fourth industrial revolution is associated with cyber-physical systems. Industry 4.0 describes the growing trend towards automation and data exchange in technology and processes within the manufacturing industry, including: The Internet of Things (IoT), The Industrial Internet of Things (IIoT), Cyber-physical Systems (CPS), Smart Manufacturing, Smart Factories, Cloud Computing, Additive Manufacturing, Big Data, Robotics, Cognitive Computing, Artificial Intelligence & Blockchain etc.
This automation creates a manufacturing system whereby the machines in factories are augmented with wireless connectivity and sensors to monitor and visualise an entire production process and make autonomous decisions.
Source: Yojana, June 2020
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are considered to be the pillars of the Digital India Programme:
- Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity
- Public Internet Access Programme
- e-Kranti – Electronic Delivery of Services
- Broadband Highways
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Nine pillars of Digital India
- Broadband Highways
- Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity
- Public Internet Access Programme
- e-Governance: Reforming Government through Technology
- e-Kranti – Electronic Delivery of Services
- Information for All
- Electronics Manufacturing
- IT for Jobs
- Early Harvest Programmes
Read more from the below link:
https://vikaspedia.in/e-governance/digital-india/nine-pillars-of-digital-india
Source: Yojana, June 2020
Incorrect
Solution: D
Nine pillars of Digital India
- Broadband Highways
- Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity
- Public Internet Access Programme
- e-Governance: Reforming Government through Technology
- e-Kranti – Electronic Delivery of Services
- Information for All
- Electronics Manufacturing
- IT for Jobs
- Early Harvest Programmes
Read more from the below link:
https://vikaspedia.in/e-governance/digital-india/nine-pillars-of-digital-india
Source: Yojana, June 2020
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the cyber- physical system (CPS):
- It is controlled or monitored by computer-based algorithms.
- Smart Grid is one of the examples for the cyber- physical system (CPS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solutions: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
A cyber-physical system (CPS) is a computer system in which a mechanism is controlled or monitored by computer-based algorithms. In cyber-physical systems, physical and software components are deeply intertwined, able to operate on different spatial and temporal scales, exhibit multiple and distinct behavioral modalities, and interact with each other in ways that change with context.
Examples of CPS include smart grid, autonomous automobile systems, medical monitoring, industrial control systems, robotics systems, and automatic pilot avionics.
Precursors of cyber-physical systems can be found in areas as diverse as aerospace, automotive, chemical processes, civil infrastructure, energy, healthcare, manufacturing, transportation, entertainment, and consumer appliances.
Incorrect
Solutions: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
A cyber-physical system (CPS) is a computer system in which a mechanism is controlled or monitored by computer-based algorithms. In cyber-physical systems, physical and software components are deeply intertwined, able to operate on different spatial and temporal scales, exhibit multiple and distinct behavioral modalities, and interact with each other in ways that change with context.
Examples of CPS include smart grid, autonomous automobile systems, medical monitoring, industrial control systems, robotics systems, and automatic pilot avionics.
Precursors of cyber-physical systems can be found in areas as diverse as aerospace, automotive, chemical processes, civil infrastructure, energy, healthcare, manufacturing, transportation, entertainment, and consumer appliances.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsThe Mentor India Campaign is an initiative of:
Correct
Solution: A
Atal Innovation Mission Recognising this need, the Government of India has set up Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in the country.
AIM’s objective is to develop new programmes and policies for fostering innovation in different sectors of the economy, provide platform and collaboration opportunities for different stakeholders, create awareness and create an umbrella structure to oversee innovation ecosystem of the country.
Six major initiatives taken in first year of its establishment:
- Atal Tinkering Labs– Creating problem-solving mindset across schools in India
- Atal Incubation Centres– Fostering world-class startups and adding a new dimension to the incubator model.
- Atal New India Challenges– Fostering product innovations and aligning them to the needs of various sectors/ministries.
- Mentor India Campaign– A national Mentor network in collaboration with public sector, corporates and institutions, to support all the initiatives of the mission. Hence, option (c) is correct.
- Atal Community Innovation Centre– To stimulate community centric innovation and ideas in the unserved /underserved regions of the country including Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.
- ARISE- To stimulate innovation and research in the MSME industry
Source: Yojana, June 2020
Incorrect
Solution: A
Atal Innovation Mission Recognising this need, the Government of India has set up Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in the country.
AIM’s objective is to develop new programmes and policies for fostering innovation in different sectors of the economy, provide platform and collaboration opportunities for different stakeholders, create awareness and create an umbrella structure to oversee innovation ecosystem of the country.
Six major initiatives taken in first year of its establishment:
- Atal Tinkering Labs– Creating problem-solving mindset across schools in India
- Atal Incubation Centres– Fostering world-class startups and adding a new dimension to the incubator model.
- Atal New India Challenges– Fostering product innovations and aligning them to the needs of various sectors/ministries.
- Mentor India Campaign– A national Mentor network in collaboration with public sector, corporates and institutions, to support all the initiatives of the mission. Hence, option (c) is correct.
- Atal Community Innovation Centre– To stimulate community centric innovation and ideas in the unserved /underserved regions of the country including Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.
- ARISE- To stimulate innovation and research in the MSME industry
Source: Yojana, June 2020
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Going Online As Leaders (GOAL) programme for tribal youth:
- It has been launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MoHRD)
- It is designed to provide mentorship to tribal youth through digital mode.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The GOAL (Going Online As Leaders) programme of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) has been launched in partnership with Facebook.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The programme is designed to provide mentorship to tribal youth through digital mode.
The digitally-enabled program envisages to act as a catalyst to explore hidden talents of the tribal youth, which will help in their personal development as well as contribute to all-round upliftment of their society.
The programme intends to upskill and empower 5,000 tribal youths in the current phase to harness the full potential of digital platforms and tools to learn new ways of doing business, explore and connect with domestic and international markets as is the vision of the Prime Minister
Source: Yojana, June 2020
Incorrect
Solution: B
The GOAL (Going Online As Leaders) programme of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) has been launched in partnership with Facebook.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The programme is designed to provide mentorship to tribal youth through digital mode.
The digitally-enabled program envisages to act as a catalyst to explore hidden talents of the tribal youth, which will help in their personal development as well as contribute to all-round upliftment of their society.
The programme intends to upskill and empower 5,000 tribal youths in the current phase to harness the full potential of digital platforms and tools to learn new ways of doing business, explore and connect with domestic and international markets as is the vision of the Prime Minister
Source: Yojana, June 2020
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Tiger Reserves States:
- Kanha Tiger Reserve Maharashtra
- Rajaji National Park Rajasthan
- Jim Corbett National Park Uttarakhand
- Bhadra Tiger Reserve Karnataka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Kanha Tiger Reserve, also known as Kanha–Kisli National Park, is one of the tiger reserves of India and the largest national park of the state of Madhya Pradesh.
Rajaji National Park is an Indian national park and tiger reserve that encompasses the Shivaliks, near the foothills of the Himalayas. It is spread over 820 km²., and three districts of Uttarakhand.
Jim Corbett National Park is a forested wildlife sanctuary in northern India’s Uttarakhand State. Rich in flora and fauna, it’s known for its Bengal tigers.
Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary is the protected area and the tiger reserve as part of the Project Tiger, situated in the state of Karnataka.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Kanha Tiger Reserve, also known as Kanha–Kisli National Park, is one of the tiger reserves of India and the largest national park of the state of Madhya Pradesh.
Rajaji National Park is an Indian national park and tiger reserve that encompasses the Shivaliks, near the foothills of the Himalayas. It is spread over 820 km²., and three districts of Uttarakhand.
Jim Corbett National Park is a forested wildlife sanctuary in northern India’s Uttarakhand State. Rich in flora and fauna, it’s known for its Bengal tigers.
Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary is the protected area and the tiger reserve as part of the Project Tiger, situated in the state of Karnataka.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Additive manufacturing technology:
- It is an appropriate name to describe the technologies that build 3D objects.
- One of the key advantages of the additive manufacturing technology is the ability to produce very complex shapes or geometries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
Additive Manufacturing (AM) is an appropriate name to describe the technologies that build 3D objects by adding layer-upon-layer of material, whether the material is plastic, metal, concrete etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
One of the key advantages of 3D printing is the ability to produce very complex shapes or geometries that would be otherwise impossible to construct by hand, including hollow parts or parts with internal truss structures to reduce weight. Fused deposition modeling (FDM), which uses a continuous filament of a thermoplastic material, is the most common 3D printing process in use as of 2020
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
Additive Manufacturing (AM) is an appropriate name to describe the technologies that build 3D objects by adding layer-upon-layer of material, whether the material is plastic, metal, concrete etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
One of the key advantages of 3D printing is the ability to produce very complex shapes or geometries that would be otherwise impossible to construct by hand, including hollow parts or parts with internal truss structures to reduce weight. Fused deposition modeling (FDM), which uses a continuous filament of a thermoplastic material, is the most common 3D printing process in use as of 2020
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Agriculture Market (eNAM):
- It aims to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
National Agriculture Market (eNAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
VISION
To promote uniformity in agriculture marketing by streamlining of procedures across the integrated markets, removing information asymmetry between buyers and sellers and promoting real time price discovery based on actual demand and supply.MISSION
Integration of APMCs across the country through a common online market platform to facilitate pan-India trade in agriculture commodities, providing better price discovery through transparent auction process based on quality of produce along with timely online payment.
Source: Yojana, June 2020
Incorrect
Solution: A
National Agriculture Market (eNAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
VISION
To promote uniformity in agriculture marketing by streamlining of procedures across the integrated markets, removing information asymmetry between buyers and sellers and promoting real time price discovery based on actual demand and supply.MISSION
Integration of APMCs across the country through a common online market platform to facilitate pan-India trade in agriculture commodities, providing better price discovery through transparent auction process based on quality of produce along with timely online payment.
Source: Yojana, June 2020
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are general features of Cloud Computing?
- It greatly reduces the capital expense of buying hardware and software for customers.
- It makes data backup, disaster recovery and business continuity easier and less expensive
- One of the benefits of cloud computing services includes the ability to scale elastically.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Simply put, cloud computing is the delivery of computing services—including servers, storage, databases, networking, software, analytics, and intelligence—over the Internet (“the cloud”) to offer faster innovation, flexible resources, and economies of scale.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/overview/what-is-cloud-computing/
Source: Yojana, June 2020
Incorrect
Solution: D
Simply put, cloud computing is the delivery of computing services—including servers, storage, databases, networking, software, analytics, and intelligence—over the Internet (“the cloud”) to offer faster innovation, flexible resources, and economies of scale.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/overview/what-is-cloud-computing/
Source: Yojana, June 2020
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsMajuli Islands, the longest riverine islands, is located on:
Correct
Solution: C
Majuli is a river island in the Brahmaputra River, Assam and in 2016 it became the first island to be made a district in India.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Majuli is a river island in the Brahmaputra River, Assam and in 2016 it became the first island to be made a district in India.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsGlobal Environment Facility (GEF) funds are available for which of the following focal areas?
- Land degradation
- Persistent organic pollutants
- Climate change
- International waters
- Biodiversity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Correct
Solution: D
Global Environment Facility (GEF):
- The Global Environment Facility was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems.
- It is an international partnership of 183 countries, international institutions, civil society organizations and the private sector that addresses global environmental issues.
- GEF funds are available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition to meet the objectives of the international environmental conventions and agreements.
- The World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee, administering the GEF Trust Fund.
The GEF serves as “financial mechanism” to five conventions:
- Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
- United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
- UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and
- Minamata Convention on Mercury.
GEF funds are available for activities in the following seven focal areas:
- Biodiversity
- Climate change
- International waters
- Land degradation
- Sustainable forest management
- Ozone layer depletion
- Persistent organic pollutants
Incorrect
Solution: D
Global Environment Facility (GEF):
- The Global Environment Facility was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems.
- It is an international partnership of 183 countries, international institutions, civil society organizations and the private sector that addresses global environmental issues.
- GEF funds are available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition to meet the objectives of the international environmental conventions and agreements.
- The World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee, administering the GEF Trust Fund.
The GEF serves as “financial mechanism” to five conventions:
- Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
- United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
- UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and
- Minamata Convention on Mercury.
GEF funds are available for activities in the following seven focal areas:
- Biodiversity
- Climate change
- International waters
- Land degradation
- Sustainable forest management
- Ozone layer depletion
- Persistent organic pollutants
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- All members of the UN are parties to the statute of the International Court of Justice (ICJ).
- India is not a party to international criminal justice
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
International Court of Justice (ICJ)
- The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial body of the UN. Established in 1946 to replace the Permanent Court of International Justice, the ICJ mainly operates under the statute of its predecessor, which is included in the UN Charter.
- It has two primary functions: to settle legal disputes submitted by States in accordance with established international laws, and to act as an advisory board on issues submitted to it by authorized international organizations.
- All members of the UN are parties to the statute of the ICJ, and non-members may also become parties.
International Criminal Court (ICC):
- The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is the court of last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
- It is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
- Its founding treaty, the Rome Statute, entered into force on July 1, 2002.
- Funding: Although the Court’s expenses are funded primarily by States Parties, it also receives voluntary contributions from governments, international organisations, individuals, corporations and other entities.
- India is not a party to Rome Statute along with US and China.
Incorrect
Solution: C
International Court of Justice (ICJ)
- The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial body of the UN. Established in 1946 to replace the Permanent Court of International Justice, the ICJ mainly operates under the statute of its predecessor, which is included in the UN Charter.
- It has two primary functions: to settle legal disputes submitted by States in accordance with established international laws, and to act as an advisory board on issues submitted to it by authorized international organizations.
- All members of the UN are parties to the statute of the ICJ, and non-members may also become parties.
International Criminal Court (ICC):
- The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is the court of last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
- It is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
- Its founding treaty, the Rome Statute, entered into force on July 1, 2002.
- Funding: Although the Court’s expenses are funded primarily by States Parties, it also receives voluntary contributions from governments, international organisations, individuals, corporations and other entities.
- India is not a party to Rome Statute along with US and China.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)
- NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster.
- NDRF is Located in the Public Accounts of India under Reserve Funds not bearing interest.
- As per Disaster Management Act, 2005, There is no provision for audit of NDRF Funds by CAG.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF):
- Defined in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DM Act).
- It is a fund managed by the Central Government for meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster.
- Constituted to supplement the funds of the State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF) of the states to facilitate immediate relief in case of calamities of a severe nature.
- National Calamity Contingency Fund (NCCF) was renamed as National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) with the enactment of the Disaster Management Act in 2005.
What is it to be used for?
- NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation.
- For projects exclusively for the purpose of mitigation, i.e, measures aimed at reducing the risk, impact or effect of a disaster or threatening disaster situation a separate fund called National Disaster Mitigation Fund has to be constituted.
Sources of Financing NDRF:
- Financed through the levy of a cess on certain items, chargeable to excise and customs duty, and approved annually through the Finance Bill.
- The requirement for funds beyond what is available under the NDRF is met through general budgetary resources.
- Currently, a National Calamity Contingency Duty (NCCD) is levied to finance the NDRF and additional budgetary support is provided as and when necessary.
- A provision also exists in the DM Act to encourage any person or institution to make a contribution to the NDRF.
Key features of NDRF:
- Located in the “Public Accounts” of Government of India under “Reserve Funds not bearing interest“.
- Monitoring: Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under Ministry of Agriculture (MoA) monitors relief activities for calamities associated with drought, hailstorms, pest attacks and cold wave /frost while rest of the natural calamities are monitored by Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
- Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audits the accounts of NDRF.
Incorrect
Solution: C
National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF):
- Defined in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DM Act).
- It is a fund managed by the Central Government for meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster.
- Constituted to supplement the funds of the State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF) of the states to facilitate immediate relief in case of calamities of a severe nature.
- National Calamity Contingency Fund (NCCF) was renamed as National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) with the enactment of the Disaster Management Act in 2005.
What is it to be used for?
- NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation.
- For projects exclusively for the purpose of mitigation, i.e, measures aimed at reducing the risk, impact or effect of a disaster or threatening disaster situation a separate fund called National Disaster Mitigation Fund has to be constituted.
Sources of Financing NDRF:
- Financed through the levy of a cess on certain items, chargeable to excise and customs duty, and approved annually through the Finance Bill.
- The requirement for funds beyond what is available under the NDRF is met through general budgetary resources.
- Currently, a National Calamity Contingency Duty (NCCD) is levied to finance the NDRF and additional budgetary support is provided as and when necessary.
- A provision also exists in the DM Act to encourage any person or institution to make a contribution to the NDRF.
Key features of NDRF:
- Located in the “Public Accounts” of Government of India under “Reserve Funds not bearing interest“.
- Monitoring: Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under Ministry of Agriculture (MoA) monitors relief activities for calamities associated with drought, hailstorms, pest attacks and cold wave /frost while rest of the natural calamities are monitored by Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
- Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audits the accounts of NDRF.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsIn the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?
Correct
Solution: C
Index of Industrial Production
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which details out the growth of various sectors in an economy such as mineral mining, electricity,manufacturing, etc.
- It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation six weeks after the reference month ends, i.e a lag of six weeks.
- The Base Year of the Index of Eight Core Industries has been revised from the year 2004-05 to 2011-12 from April, 2017.
The weightage of Eight Core Industries as follows:
- Refinery products (28.04%)
- Electricity (19.85%)
- Steel (17.92%)
- Coal (10.33%)
- Crude oil (8.98%)
- Natural gas (6.88%)
- Cement (5.37%)
- Fertilizers (2.63%)
Incorrect
Solution: C
Index of Industrial Production
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which details out the growth of various sectors in an economy such as mineral mining, electricity,manufacturing, etc.
- It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation six weeks after the reference month ends, i.e a lag of six weeks.
- The Base Year of the Index of Eight Core Industries has been revised from the year 2004-05 to 2011-12 from April, 2017.
The weightage of Eight Core Industries as follows:
- Refinery products (28.04%)
- Electricity (19.85%)
- Steel (17.92%)
- Coal (10.33%)
- Crude oil (8.98%)
- Natural gas (6.88%)
- Cement (5.37%)
- Fertilizers (2.63%)
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsHe was part of Non-Cooperation movement, played a key role in the Kakori conspiracy, he was reorganised Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) as Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA). He was
Correct
Solution: D
Chandra Shekhar Azad:
- Born on July 23, 1906, at Bhavra, Alirajpur District in present-day Madhya Pradesh.
- He took part in non-cooperation movement when he was 15.
- After the suspension of the non-cooperation movement in 1922 by Gandhi, Azad joined Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).
- HRA was later reorganised as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) in 1928.
- Azad was involved in the 1925 Kakori Conspiracy.
- He died at Azad Park in Allahabad on 27th February 1931.
- Other cases Azad was involved in include the 1926 attempt to blow up the viceroy’s train, and the shooting of J P Saunders in 1928. Saunders was assassinated to avenge the death of Lala Lajpat Rai.
Why he is called “Azad”?
He was arrested because of his participation in the non-cooperation movement. When produced by the magistrate, he proudly announced his name as ‘Azad’, his father’s name as ‘Swatantrata’ and his place of dwelling as ‘Jail’. It was from then on that the name ‘Azad’ stuck to him.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Chandra Shekhar Azad:
- Born on July 23, 1906, at Bhavra, Alirajpur District in present-day Madhya Pradesh.
- He took part in non-cooperation movement when he was 15.
- After the suspension of the non-cooperation movement in 1922 by Gandhi, Azad joined Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).
- HRA was later reorganised as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) in 1928.
- Azad was involved in the 1925 Kakori Conspiracy.
- He died at Azad Park in Allahabad on 27th February 1931.
- Other cases Azad was involved in include the 1926 attempt to blow up the viceroy’s train, and the shooting of J P Saunders in 1928. Saunders was assassinated to avenge the death of Lala Lajpat Rai.
Why he is called “Azad”?
He was arrested because of his participation in the non-cooperation movement. When produced by the magistrate, he proudly announced his name as ‘Azad’, his father’s name as ‘Swatantrata’ and his place of dwelling as ‘Jail’. It was from then on that the name ‘Azad’ stuck to him.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThe average speed of a bus is 4/5th the speed of a train. If the train covers 320 km in 8 hours, then how much distance will the bus cover in 10 hours?
Correct
Solution: A
It is given that the train covers 320 km in 8 hours.
As we know that, Speed = Distance/TimePutting the given values in the above formula we get,
Speed of train = 320/8 = 40 kmph.
Now, Speed of bus = 4/5th of the speed of train = (4/5) × 40 = 32 kmph.
So, the distance travelled by bus = speed × time = 32 ×10 = 320 km.Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
It is given that the train covers 320 km in 8 hours.
As we know that, Speed = Distance/TimePutting the given values in the above formula we get,
Speed of train = 320/8 = 40 kmph.
Now, Speed of bus = 4/5th of the speed of train = (4/5) × 40 = 32 kmph.
So, the distance travelled by bus = speed × time = 32 ×10 = 320 km.Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsAmar walks to work at a average speed of 10 Kmph. The time taken to cover the first 60% of the distance is 30 minutes more than the time taken to cover the remaining distance. How far is his office?
Correct
Solution: A
Let total distance to office = x km, while the average Speed = 10 kmph.
Time to cover first 0.6x distance is 30 min or 1/2 hour more than time to cover the rest of the distance, i.e. 0.4x.
Time = distance / speed
Or 0.6x/10 = 0.4x/10 + ½
Or 0.2x/10= ½
Or 0.2x= 5 kmTherefore, x= 50/2 = 25 kms
Hence, option(a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Let total distance to office = x km, while the average Speed = 10 kmph.
Time to cover first 0.6x distance is 30 min or 1/2 hour more than time to cover the rest of the distance, i.e. 0.4x.
Time = distance / speed
Or 0.6x/10 = 0.4x/10 + ½
Or 0.2x/10= ½
Or 0.2x= 5 kmTherefore, x= 50/2 = 25 kms
Hence, option(a) is correct.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsMr. Amar drives to his office situated 60 km from his residence. Though he always reaches office on time, one day his car developed a glitch which reduced its speed by 20%, which made him late by 10 minutes. What is the
normal speed of his car?Correct
Solution: B
The speed gets reduced by 20%. Hence, the time taken to reach office will increase by 25%.
As the distance is speed*time and is constant, if the speed is decreased the time should increase in the same proportion. (0.8 x 1.25 = 1)
Now, 25% increase in time is equivalent to 10 minutes. Hence, 100% is equivalent to 40 minutes.Hence, his original speed = Total distance/Original time = 60/40 = 1.5 Km/minute = 90 Km/hr
Hence, option(b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The speed gets reduced by 20%. Hence, the time taken to reach office will increase by 25%.
As the distance is speed*time and is constant, if the speed is decreased the time should increase in the same proportion. (0.8 x 1.25 = 1)
Now, 25% increase in time is equivalent to 10 minutes. Hence, 100% is equivalent to 40 minutes.Hence, his original speed = Total distance/Original time = 60/40 = 1.5 Km/minute = 90 Km/hr
Hence, option(b) is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsIf Mahesh runs 1600 m in 10 minutes and Umesh runs 600 m in 5 minutes at a uniform speed, then what is the ratio of the distances
that they travel in one minute?Correct
Solution: A
Speed of Mahesh = Distance/time = 1600/10 = 160 m/minute
Similarly, speed of Usha = 600/5 = 120 m/minute
Ratio of distances run by them in the same time will be the same as the ratio of their speeds.
So the required ratio = 160/120 = 4:3.Hence, option(a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Speed of Mahesh = Distance/time = 1600/10 = 160 m/minute
Similarly, speed of Usha = 600/5 = 120 m/minute
Ratio of distances run by them in the same time will be the same as the ratio of their speeds.
So the required ratio = 160/120 = 4:3.Hence, option(a) is correct.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsThe valour and sacrifices of Indian warrior kings, queens and soldiers against foreign domination is legend. But most acclaimed by historians, is the heroism of our soldiers on World War I fronts under British commanders, especially in West Asia. Indian troops of the 15th Cavalry Brigade formed the largest component of allied forces that fought and liberated Palestine from four centuries of despotic Turkish rule. Their final battle in the campaign was to gain control over the strategic port city of Haifa, an essential sea route for landing supplies, armaments and men.
Which of the following is the most crucial and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?Correct
Ans. A.
Statement B is a statement which has not been referred to or implied in the passage. Statement C is again not implied in the passage as there might have been several factors that helped the Allies win World War 1, those factors are not being discussed here. Statement D is rational but not the most crucial as the focus of the passage is on emphasizing the role played by Indian soldiers in World War 1. Hence A is the most crucial and rational inference.
Incorrect
Ans. A.
Statement B is a statement which has not been referred to or implied in the passage. Statement C is again not implied in the passage as there might have been several factors that helped the Allies win World War 1, those factors are not being discussed here. Statement D is rational but not the most crucial as the focus of the passage is on emphasizing the role played by Indian soldiers in World War 1. Hence A is the most crucial and rational inference.
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