DAY – 4(InstaTest-4): Insta 70 Days Revision Plan-2021: Topic – ECONOMY, Subject-wise Test 12, Test 13 and Test 25 Revision, Textbook-wise Tests 1,2 & 3 Revision and July 2020 CA

Solution: D

Mixed Farming

This form of agriculture is found in the highly developed parts of the world, e.g. North-western Europe, Eastern North America, parts of Eurasia and the temperate latitudes of Southern continents.

Mixed farms are moderate in size and usually the crops associated with it are wheat, barley, oats, rye, maize, fodder and root crops. Fodder crops are an important component of mixed farming. Crop rotation and intercropping play an important role in maintaining soil fertility. Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry. Animals like cattle, sheep, pigs and poultry provide the main income along with crops.

Mixed farming is characterized by high capital expenditure on farm machinery and building, extensive use of chemical fertilizers and green manures and also by the skill and expertise of the farmers.

Solution: C

Fair Price Shop means a shop which has been licensed to distribute essential commodities by an order issued under section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, to the ration card holders under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The term is defined in Section 2(4) of National Food Security Act, 2013. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

It is the responsibility of every State Government to establish institutionalized licensing arrangements for fair price shops in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Public Distribution System (Control) Order, 2001 made under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, as amended from time to time for efficient operations of the Targeted Public Distribution System.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

Zero tillage is the process where the crop seed will be sown through drillers without prior land preparation and disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles are present.

Zero tillage not only reduce the cost of cultivation it also reduces the soil erosion, crop duration and irrigation requirement and weed effect which is better than tillage. Zero Tillage (ZT) also called No Tillage or Nil Tillage. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Vertical farming is the practice of growing produce in vertically stacked layers. The practice can use soil, hydroponic or aeroponic growing methods. Vertical farms attempt to produce food in challenging environments, like where arable land is rare or unavailable. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: B

Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) as a Society in 1994 to facilitate agri-business ventures by catalyzing private investment through Venture Capital Assistance (VCA) Scheme in close association with financial institutions.  Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The setting up of State level SFAC as counterpart agency of Central SFAC for agribusiness projects was part of the Scheme.

The main functions of SFAC are:

1. Promotion of development of small agribusiness through VCA scheme;
2. Helping formation and growth of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) / Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs); Hence, statement 2 is correct.
3. (Improving availability of working capital and development of business activities of FPOs/FPCs through Equity Grant and Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme;
4. Implementation of National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Electronic Trading platform. Along with that, SFAC is one of the Central Procurement Agencies for pulses and oilseeds under Price Stabilisation Fund of Department of Consumer Affairs. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: C

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous body responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in India. It reports to the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare , Government of India. Formerly known as Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission on Agriculture. The ICAR has its headquarters at New Delhi.  The Council is the apex body for co-ordinating, guiding and managing research and education in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries and animal sciences in the entire country.

The Union Minister of Agriculture serves as its president. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://icar.org.in/content/about-us

Solution: A

WTO members have taken steps to reform the agriculture sector and to address the subsidies and high trade barriers that distort agricultural trade. The overall aim is to establish a fairer trading system that will increase market access and improve the livelihoods of farmers around the world. The WTO Agreement on Agriculture, which came into force in 1995, represents a significant step towards reforming agricultural trade and making it fairer and more competitive. The Agriculture Committee oversees implementation of the Agreement.

Members continue to conduct negotiations for further reform. In 2015, they adopted a historic decision to abolish agricultural export subsidies and to set rules for other forms of farm export support.

The Agreement in Agriculture contains a “due restraint” or “peace clause” which regulates the application of other WTO agreements to subsidies in respect of agricultural products (Article 13).

The provisions provide that Green Box domestic support measures cannot be the subject of countervailing duty action or other subsidy action under the WTO Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures, nor can they be subject to actions based on non-violation nullification or impairment of tariff concessions under the GATT.

https://www.wto.org/english/tratop_e/agric_e/agric_e.htm

Solution: D

All the factors given above are considered.

While recommending price policy of various commodities under its mandate, the Commission keeps in mind the various Terms of Reference (ToR) given to CACP in 2009. Accordingly, it analyzes
1) demand and supply;
2) cost of production;
3) price trends in the market, both domestic and international;
4) inter-crop price parity;
5) terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture;
6) a minimum of 50 percent as the margin over cost of production; and
7) likely implications of MSP on consumers of that product.
It may be noted that cost of production is an important factor that goes as an input in determination of MSP, but it is certainly not the only factor that determines MSP.

Solution: D

Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). MSP is price fixed by Government of India to protect the producer – farmers – against excessive fall in price during bumper production years. The minimum support prices are a guarantee price for their produce from the Government. The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. In case the market price for the commodity falls below the announced minimum price due to bumper production and glut in the market, government agencies purchase the entire quantity offered by the farmers at the announced minimum price.

MSP is announced for only selected crops like wheat, rice etc. and MSP price is kept relatively lower than market price.

https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/minimum-support-price

Solution: C

The economic cost of food grains procured by the FCI is a total of MSP and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus the procurement incidentals and distribution cost.

The procurement incidentals are the initial costs incurred during procurement of foodgrains. The distribution costs include freight, handling charges, storage costs in godowns, losses during transit etc.

Solution: C

Cloud seeding is a way to artificially tweak rain. It is also known by other terms such as man-made precipitation enhancement, artificial weather modification, rainmaking and so on.

The technology sprays particles of salts like silver iodide and chloride on clouds using a special aircraft, rockets or from dispersion devices located on the ground. Potassium Iodide and Dry ice are also used for cloud seeding.

These salt particles act as a core (cloud condensation nuclei or ice-nucleating particles) which draw water vapour within the cloud towards them and the moisture latches on, condensing into water droplets leading to the formation of raindrops.

The goal of cloud seeding is to alter the natural development of the cloud to enhance precipitation, suppress hail, dissipate fog, or reduce lightning.

https://india.mongabay.com/2019/08/what-is-cloud-seeding/

https://india.mongabay.com/2019/08/what-is-cloud-seeding/

Solution: A

Nandalal Bose (3 December 1882 – 16 April 1966) was one of the pioneers of modern Indian art and a key figure of Contextual Modernism.

A pupil of Abanindranath Tagore, Bose was known for his “Indian style” of painting. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

He became the principal of Kala Bhavan, Santiniketan in 1922. He was influenced by the Tagore family and the murals of Ajanta; his classic works include paintings of scenes from Indian mythologies, women, and village life. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Constitution of India was not typeset or printed but was handwritten and calligraphed in both English and Hindi. It was entirely handcrafted by the artists of Shantiniketan under the guidance of Acharya Nandalal Bose, with the calligraphy texts done by Prem Behari Narain Raizada in Delhi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Each part of the Constitution begins with a depiction of a phase or scene from India’s national history. At the beginning of each part of the Constitution, Nandalal Bose has depicted a phase or scene from India’s national experience and history.

The artwork and illustrations (22 in all), rendered largely in the miniature style, represent vignettes from the different periods of the history of the Indian subcontinent, ranging from Mohenjodaro in the Indus Valley, the Vedic period, the Gupta and Maurya empires and the Mughal era to the national freedom movement.

Source: Yojana, April 2020

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

By 1966, the United Nations General Assembly adopted two important covenants which are at the same time both general and universal, one dealing with civil and political rights and the other with economic, social and cultural rights. Both the covenants principally deal with rights which were to be enjoyed by individuals.

The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966 and the Optional Protocol dealt with the rights of equality, personal liberty, freedom from arbitrary arrest and detention, freedom from rendering compulsory personal service, freedom of expression and conscience, right to participate in the administration of the country etc.

The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, 1966 deals with the right to work, the right to fair wages, the right to collective bargaining, the right to carry on trade or profession, the right to establish institutions to conserve culture etc

Source: Yojana, April 2020

Solution: D

None of the statements given above are correct.

In recent times, the Apex Court has been taking a lead in protection of the rights of the vulnerable communities like LGBTI etc. and have come up with many landmark judgments.

In the case of National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India, the Supreme Court of India declared transgender people to be a ‘third gender’ and affirmed that the fundamental rights granted under the Constitution of India will be equally applicable to transgender people. The Apex Court directed the Centre and the State governments to take steps to treat them as socially and educationally backward classes and to extend reservation in case of admission in educational institutions and for public appointments. This judgment is a major step towards gender equality in India.

The Supreme Court in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India gave a historic, and unanimous decision on Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, decriminalising homosexuality. The Apex Court ruled that sexual orientation is an intrinsic element of liberty, dignity, privacy, individual autonomy and equality, and that intimacy between consenting adults of the same-sex, is beyond the legitimate interests of the state.

Source: Yojana, April 2020

Solution: C

Both statements given above are correct.

The Indian Council Acts of 1861, 1892 and 1909 started giving representation to the Indians in the Viceroy’s Councils. Thereafter, the Britishers restored legislative powers back to some provinces (States). They adopted decentralisation of powers between the Centre and States.

Later, with the enactment of the Government of India Act 1919, Legislative Councils came into existence in all the States. The Britishers adopted bicameral structure with separate Central and State Governments. It was for the first time when people could elect their own representatives through direct elections. The Constitution of India later adopted this quasi-federal and bicameral structure of governance.

The enactment of Government of India Act 1935 was one of the most important events in the history of the Constitution as this law divided powers of governance into Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List. Later, the Constitution of India also incorporated this division of powers between the Central and State Governments. This act provided more autonomy of self-governance to the provinces. It had also established the Federal Court which is now called the Supreme Court of India.

Source: Yojana, April 2020

Solution: A

The Governor (Article 213) has the power of making ordinances when both houses of the legislature are not in session, which has the same status as that of a law of the legislature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

His ordinance-making power is coextensive with the legislative power of the state legislature. This means that he can issue ordinances only on those subjects on which the state legislature can make laws.  Hence, statement 1 is correct.

He can withdraw an ordinance at any time. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: Yojana, April 2020

Solution: C

Public Accounts Committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence. At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the RajyaSabha). The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Committee on Public Undertakings was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee. Originally, it had 15 members (10 from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in 1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members of this committee are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The origin of Estimates Committee can be traced to the standing financial committee set up in 1921. The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister. Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956its membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

It examines the budget estimates only alter they have been voted by the Parliament, and not before that. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: Yojana, April 2020

Solution: D

Section 8A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with the disqualification on the grounds of a corrupt practice in relation to an election to the House of the People or to the Council of States

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Recent amendments to RP act

1. Insertion of section 126A which banned publishing exit polls till the time of elections were over.
2. Section 8(4) which allowed convicted MPs, MLAs to stand for elections by filing a complaint was repealed. It is a step towards decriminalising politics.
3. Insertion of Section 62(2), which allowed a person post detention to contest elections as he is no longer ceased to be an elector as his name is included in the electoral roll.
4. Recent amendment included Section 20A of RPA, which now allows NRI to vote from their current residence via postal ballot system.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/08/RP-Act.pdf

Solution: B

At the fourth BRICS Summit in New Delhi (2012), the leaders of Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa considered the possibility of setting up a new Development Bank to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies, as well as in developing countries.

Following the report from the Finance Ministers at the fifth BRICS summit in Durban (2013), the leaders agreed on the feasibility of establishing the New Development Bank and made the decision to do so. It was also agreed that the initial contribution to the Bank should be substantial and sufficient for it to be effective in financing infrastructure.

During the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014), the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank, however the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://www.ndb.int/about-us/essence/history/

https://www.ndb.int/about-us/organisation/members/

Solution: A

The WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) is the most comprehensive multilateral agreement on intellectual property (IP). It plays a central role in facilitating trade in knowledge and creativity, in resolving trade disputes over IP, and in assuring WTO members the latitude to achieve their domestic policy objectives. It frames the IP system in terms of innovation, technology transfer and public welfare. The Agreement is a legal recognition of the significance of links between IP and trade and the need for a balanced IP system.

The WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS), negotiated during the 1986-94 Uruguay Round, introduced intellectual property rules into the multilateral trading system for the first time. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

All the WTO agreements (except for a couple of “plurilateral” agreements) apply to all WTO members. The members each accepted all the agreements as a single package with a single signature — making it, in the jargon, a “single undertaking”.

The TRIPS Agreement is part of that package. Therefore, it applies to all WTO members. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The World Economic Forum publishes a comprehensive series of reports which examine in detail the broad range of global issues it seeks to address with stakeholders as part of its mission of improving the state of the world. Besides reports on its key events and standalone publications such as the Global Competitiveness Report, the Global Risks Report and the Global Gender Gap Report, the Forum produces landmark titles covering the environment, education, individual industries and technologies.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

http://reports.weforum.org/

Solution: D

Astra missile:

• It is the indigenously developed Beyond Visual Range (BVR) air-to-air
• It is an all-weather, state-of-the-art missile developed by DRDO and can engage and destroy enemy aircraft at supersonic speed (1.2 Mach to 1.4 Mach) in head-on (up to 80 km) and tail-chase (up to 20 km) modes.
• The 3.8-metre-tall Astra is a radar homing missile and the smallest of the DRDO-developed missiles and can be launched from different altitudes.
• It can reach up to 110 km when fired from an altitude of 15 km, 44 km when launched from an altitude of eight km and 21 km when fired from sea level.

Solution: B

Hope mission:

• Launched by UAE
• The Hope mission is a Mars orbiter spacecraft, which will study the thin atmosphere of Mars.
• The mission is officially named the Emirates Mars Mission (EMM) and the orbiter has been named Hope or ‘Al Amal’.
• It is the first interplanetary mission for the Arab World.

solution: C

Bon Bibi:

• It is a deity of the Sunderban forest, West Bengal
• Bonbibi is a unique deity who brings together Hindus and Muslims residing in Bengal’s Sunderbans.
• The followers of Bon Bibi are fishermen, crab-collectors and honey-gatherers who live in the mangroves with wild animals such as tigers and crocodiles to earn a livelihood.
• They believe that only Bon Bibi protects them when they enter the forest.
• People express their belief in Bon Bibi is through Bon Bibi’r Palagaan.

Solution: D

Zoonotic diseases:

• Zoonotic diseases are those that are transmitted from animals to humans and account for over 60% of infectious outbreaks.
• It is a disease that passes into the human population from an animal source directly or through an intermediary species.
• Zoonotic infections can be bacterial, viral, or parasitic in nature, with animals playing a vital role in maintaining such infections.

Examples of Zoonotic diseases: HIV-AIDS, Ebola, Lyme disease, Malaria, Rabies, West Nile fever, and Coronavirus disease (COVID-19).

Solution: C

Mediterranean Sea:

The Mediterranean is a vast sea positioned between Europe to the north, Africa to the south, and Asia to the east.

The Mediterranean Sea connects:

• to the Atlantic Oceanby the Strait of Gibraltar (known in Homer‘s writings as the “Pillars of Hercules“) in the west
• to the Sea of Marmaraand the Black Sea, by the Straits of the Dardanelles and the Bosporus respectively, in the east
• The 163 km (101 mi) long artificial Suez Canalin the southeast connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.

Bordering Countries: Albania, Algeria, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovnia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Morocco, Monaco, Montenegro, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia and Turkey.

Solution: C

From the given data:

1/A + 1/B = 1/12

1/B+ 1/C = 1/16

1/A + 1/C = 1/24

Adding them together we get,

2(1/A + 1/B + 1/C) = 1/12 + 1/16 + 1/24

2(1/A + 1/B + 1/C) = (4+3+2)/48

Or 2(1/A + 1/B + 1/C) = 9/48

Or (1/A + 1/B + 1/C) = 9/96

Total time required = 96/9 = 10 (2/3)

Solution: A

Daily wage of B = 5/4 x A— (1)

Daily wage of C = 3/2 x A — (2)

It is also given that,

(A+B+C)/3 = 3000

Or (A+B+C) = 9000

Substituting the value of B and C from eqn (1) and (2), we get

A + (5/4 x A) + (3/2 x A) = 9000

Or A + 5A/4 + 3A/2 = 9000

Or (4A + 5A + 6A)/4 =9000

Or 15A = 36000

Or A = 36000/15 = 2400

B= 5/4 x 2400 = 3000

C = 3/2 x 2400 = 3600

Solution: D

It is given that, 24 men completed 40 % of work in 10 days.

Therefore, 24 men can complete 60% of work in 15 days.

Remaining work, when 24 women joined = 100 – 60 = 40%

Efficiency of women is half to that of men, this means that 2 women complete same work as one man.

Therefore, 24 women can complete the work equal to 12 men.

Thus, total workforce is equal to that of 36 men.

Therefore, to complete the remaining 40 % work by 36 men it requires

2/3 x 10days = 6 (2/3) days.

Therefore, total time taken = 15 + 6 (2/3) = 21 (2/3) days

Solution: B

Let R alone takes x days to complete the work.

Work done by P in one day = 1/15

Work done by Q in one day = 1/12

Work done by R in one day = 1/x

Now,

1/15 + 1/12 + 1/x = 1/6

Or 1/x = 1/6 – (1/15 +1/12)

Or 1/x = (10 -4 -5)/60

Or 1/x = 1/60.

Therefore, R alone takes 60 days to complete the work.

Thus, ratio of work done by P:Q:R = 4:5:1

Thus R’s share = (1/10)*1200 = 120

Ans. B.

The focus of the passage is on explaining that authority of public service remains till the time they enjoy the trust of the public. Ethical dilemmas if encountered, needs to be resolved successfully to continue enjoying the trust of the public. Hence A is the most logical and critical inference.