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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 70 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2021.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2021, and do well in mains – 2021 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Incremental capital output ratio explains the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in GDP.
- Lower capital output ratio shows productivity of capital and technological progress
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Both the statements are correct.
The incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) explains the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in GDP. ICOR is a metric that assesses the marginal amount of investment capital necessary for a country or other entity to generate the next unit of production.
The incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) is a frequently used tool that explains the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in GDP. ICOR indicates the additional unit of capital or investment needed to produce an additional unit of output.
A lower capital output ratio shows that only low level of investment is needed to produce a given growth rate in the economy. This is considered as a desirable situation. Lower capital output ratio shows that capital is very productive or efficient. Hence, lower capital output ratio shows productivity of capital and technological progress.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Both the statements are correct.
The incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) explains the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in GDP. ICOR is a metric that assesses the marginal amount of investment capital necessary for a country or other entity to generate the next unit of production.
The incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) is a frequently used tool that explains the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in GDP. ICOR indicates the additional unit of capital or investment needed to produce an additional unit of output.
A lower capital output ratio shows that only low level of investment is needed to produce a given growth rate in the economy. This is considered as a desirable situation. Lower capital output ratio shows that capital is very productive or efficient. Hence, lower capital output ratio shows productivity of capital and technological progress.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following curve depicts the relationship between distribution of income and inequality in an economy?
Correct
Solution: D
A Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of income inequality or wealth inequality developed by American economist Max Lorenz in 1905. The graph plots percentiles of the population on the horizontal axis according to income or wealth. It plots cumulative income or wealth on the vertical axis, so that an x-value of 45 and a y-value of 14.2 would mean that the bottom 45% of the population controls 14.2% of the total income or wealth. In practice, a Lorenz curve is usually a mathematical function estimated from an incomplete set of observations of income or wealth.
KEY TAKEAWAYS
- A Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of the distribution of income or wealth within a population.
- Lorenz curves graph percentiles of the population against cumulative income or wealth of people at or below that percentile.
- Lorenz curves, along with their derivative statistics, are widely used to measure inequality across a population.
- Because Lorenz curves are mathematical estimates based on fitting a continuous curve to incomplete and discontinuous data, they may be imperfect measures of true inequality.
Incorrect
Solution: D
A Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of income inequality or wealth inequality developed by American economist Max Lorenz in 1905. The graph plots percentiles of the population on the horizontal axis according to income or wealth. It plots cumulative income or wealth on the vertical axis, so that an x-value of 45 and a y-value of 14.2 would mean that the bottom 45% of the population controls 14.2% of the total income or wealth. In practice, a Lorenz curve is usually a mathematical function estimated from an incomplete set of observations of income or wealth.
KEY TAKEAWAYS
- A Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of the distribution of income or wealth within a population.
- Lorenz curves graph percentiles of the population against cumulative income or wealth of people at or below that percentile.
- Lorenz curves, along with their derivative statistics, are widely used to measure inequality across a population.
- Because Lorenz curves are mathematical estimates based on fitting a continuous curve to incomplete and discontinuous data, they may be imperfect measures of true inequality.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following items does/do form the factors of production in a capitalist economy?
- The Entrepreneurship
- Labour
- Capital
- Land
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Factors of production is an economic term that describes the inputs used in the production of goods or services in order to make an economic profit. These include any resource needed for the creation of a good or service. The factors of production include land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Factors of production is an economic term that describes the inputs used in the production of goods or services in order to make an economic profit. These include any resource needed for the creation of a good or service. The factors of production include land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gross Value Added (GVA)
- GVA at factor cost includes no taxes.
- GVA at basic priceswill include production subsidies.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Gross value added (GVA) is defined as the value of output less the value of intermediate consumption. Value added represents the contribution of labour and capital to the production process. When the value of taxes on products (less subsidies on products) is added, the sum of value added for all resident units gives the value of gross domestic product (GDP).
GVA at basic prices will include production taxes and exclude production subsidies available on the commodity. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
On the other hand, GVA at factor cost includes no taxes and excludes no subsidies and GDP at market prices include both production and product taxes and excludes both production and product subsidies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
By formula: GVA at factor cost + (Production taxes less Production subsidies) = GVA at basic prices.
GDP at market prices = GVA at basic prices + Product taxes- Product subsidies
In the revision of National Accounts statistics done by Central Statistical Organization (CSO) in January 2015, it was decided that sector-wise wise estimates of Gross Value Added (GVA) will now be given at basic prices instead of factor cost.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Gross value added (GVA) is defined as the value of output less the value of intermediate consumption. Value added represents the contribution of labour and capital to the production process. When the value of taxes on products (less subsidies on products) is added, the sum of value added for all resident units gives the value of gross domestic product (GDP).
GVA at basic prices will include production taxes and exclude production subsidies available on the commodity. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
On the other hand, GVA at factor cost includes no taxes and excludes no subsidies and GDP at market prices include both production and product taxes and excludes both production and product subsidies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
By formula: GVA at factor cost + (Production taxes less Production subsidies) = GVA at basic prices.
GDP at market prices = GVA at basic prices + Product taxes- Product subsidies
In the revision of National Accounts statistics done by Central Statistical Organization (CSO) in January 2015, it was decided that sector-wise wise estimates of Gross Value Added (GVA) will now be given at basic prices instead of factor cost.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsAn increase in tax to GDP ratio of a country may indicate which of the following?
- Growing economy.
- Efficient tax administration
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Ideally with increase in GDP, the tax collection should also increase. If the economy is growing and business is doing well, naturally, profits will be better and therefore taxes should also be higher.
Efficient tax administration helps in higher tax collection and reduces the tax evasion.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Ideally with increase in GDP, the tax collection should also increase. If the economy is growing and business is doing well, naturally, profits will be better and therefore taxes should also be higher.
Efficient tax administration helps in higher tax collection and reduces the tax evasion.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- India is the 6th largest economy in the world in terms of GDP at current prices.
- For the last decade, the GDP growth rate of Indian economy has been decreasing consistently.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
India is likely to emerge as the world’s third largest economy in 2031 (fiscal 2031-32), suggests a recent report by BofA Securities, and should touch Japan’s nominal GDP (in USD) that year.
The projections have assumed 6 per cent real growth rate, 5 per cent inflation and 2 per cent depreciation. Currently, India is the world’s sixth-largest economy by nominal GDP and the third-largest by purchasing power parity (PPP).
Incorrect
Solution: A
India is likely to emerge as the world’s third largest economy in 2031 (fiscal 2031-32), suggests a recent report by BofA Securities, and should touch Japan’s nominal GDP (in USD) that year.
The projections have assumed 6 per cent real growth rate, 5 per cent inflation and 2 per cent depreciation. Currently, India is the world’s sixth-largest economy by nominal GDP and the third-largest by purchasing power parity (PPP).
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following measures is/are examples of expansionary fiscal
policy?- Decreasing the subsidies
- Tax rebate to companies
- Providing loans at higher interest rates
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Correct
Solution: C
Expansionary fiscal policy is a form of fiscal policy that involves decreasing taxes, increasing government expenditures or both, in order to fight recessionary pressures.
Increasing the subsidies decreases the out of pocket expenditure. Thus, increases the spending capacity. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Tax rebate to companies increase the profit to companies. This further helps in reducing the prices of goods and services. Thus, increase the demand in the economy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Providing loans at higher interest rate decreases the demand for the loans. Thus, it decreases the liquidity in the market and leads to decreases the spending capacity. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Expansionary fiscal policy is a form of fiscal policy that involves decreasing taxes, increasing government expenditures or both, in order to fight recessionary pressures.
Increasing the subsidies decreases the out of pocket expenditure. Thus, increases the spending capacity. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Tax rebate to companies increase the profit to companies. This further helps in reducing the prices of goods and services. Thus, increase the demand in the economy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Providing loans at higher interest rate decreases the demand for the loans. Thus, it decreases the liquidity in the market and leads to decreases the spending capacity. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following measures can be adopted to promote the Fiscal
Consolidation?- Decreasing the subsidies
- Farm loan waiver
- Rationalization of tax base
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Correct
Solution: B
Fiscal consolidation is defined as concrete policies aimed at reducing government deficits and debt accumulation. These consolidation plans and detailed measures are given as a per cent of nominal GDP. All measures are quantified to the extent possible. Most of the measures announced in this publication appear to be structural and could improve the underlying primary balance, but some important exceptions exist for pension accounting changes, one-off or temporary measures and rolling back stimulus measures.
Fiscal Consolidation refers to the policies undertaken by Governments (national and sub-national levels) to reduce their deficits and accumulation of debt stock.
Farm loan waiver increases the expenditure of government. Thus, it will go against the principle of fiscal consolidation. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Rationalization of tax base. Thus, it increases the revenue for the government and promotes the fiscal consolidation. Decreasing the subsidies improves fiscal consolidation.
https://www.oecd.org/gov/budgeting/Fiscal%20Consolidation%20Targets,%20Plans%20and%20Measures.pdf
Incorrect
Solution: B
Fiscal consolidation is defined as concrete policies aimed at reducing government deficits and debt accumulation. These consolidation plans and detailed measures are given as a per cent of nominal GDP. All measures are quantified to the extent possible. Most of the measures announced in this publication appear to be structural and could improve the underlying primary balance, but some important exceptions exist for pension accounting changes, one-off or temporary measures and rolling back stimulus measures.
Fiscal Consolidation refers to the policies undertaken by Governments (national and sub-national levels) to reduce their deficits and accumulation of debt stock.
Farm loan waiver increases the expenditure of government. Thus, it will go against the principle of fiscal consolidation. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Rationalization of tax base. Thus, it increases the revenue for the government and promotes the fiscal consolidation. Decreasing the subsidies improves fiscal consolidation.
https://www.oecd.org/gov/budgeting/Fiscal%20Consolidation%20Targets,%20Plans%20and%20Measures.pdf
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding five-year planning in India
- There were annual plans for three consecutive years between the second and third five-year plans.
- Indicative planning in India started from eleventh five-year plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Five-Year Plans (FYPs) are centralized and integrated national economic programs. Joseph Stalin implemented the first Five-Year Plan in the Soviet Union in 1928. Most communist states and several capitalist countries subsequently have adopted them.
China continues to use FYPs, although China renamed its Eleventh FYP, from 2006 to 2010, a guideline (guihua), rather than a plan (jihua), to signify the central government’s more hands-off approach to development. India launched its First FYP in 1951, immediately after independence, under the socialist influence of India’s first prime minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.
The First Five-year Plan was launched in 1951 which mainly focused in development of the primary sector. The total planned budget of Rs.2069 crore (2378 crore later) was allocated to seven broad areas: irrigation and energy (27.2%), agriculture and community development (17.4%), transport and communications (24%), industry (8.4%), social services (16.6%), rehabilitation of landless farmers (4.1%), and for other sectors and services (2.5%).
The period of the three consecutive Annual Plans was 1966–69. It was the period between the third and fourth five year plans. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In indicative Planning, the planning authority sets the broad goals for the economy. The implementation of the plan requires the co-ordination of the various units in the economy. This type of planning in India since the 8th Five-Year Plan. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Five-Year Plans (FYPs) are centralized and integrated national economic programs. Joseph Stalin implemented the first Five-Year Plan in the Soviet Union in 1928. Most communist states and several capitalist countries subsequently have adopted them.
China continues to use FYPs, although China renamed its Eleventh FYP, from 2006 to 2010, a guideline (guihua), rather than a plan (jihua), to signify the central government’s more hands-off approach to development. India launched its First FYP in 1951, immediately after independence, under the socialist influence of India’s first prime minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.
The First Five-year Plan was launched in 1951 which mainly focused in development of the primary sector. The total planned budget of Rs.2069 crore (2378 crore later) was allocated to seven broad areas: irrigation and energy (27.2%), agriculture and community development (17.4%), transport and communications (24%), industry (8.4%), social services (16.6%), rehabilitation of landless farmers (4.1%), and for other sectors and services (2.5%).
The period of the three consecutive Annual Plans was 1966–69. It was the period between the third and fourth five year plans. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In indicative Planning, the planning authority sets the broad goals for the economy. The implementation of the plan requires the co-ordination of the various units in the economy. This type of planning in India since the 8th Five-Year Plan. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 points‘Fiscal Monitor Report’ is prepared by
Correct
Solution: A
With increasing fiscal challenges in the aftermath of the global financial crisis, multilateral surveillance of fiscal developments, a key part of the IMF’s surveillance responsibilities, has gained further importance.
In response, the Fiscal Monitor was launched in 2009 to survey and analyze the latest public finance developments, update fiscal implications of the crisis and medium-term fiscal projections, and assess policies to put public finances on a sustainable footing.
The Fiscal Monitor is prepared twice a year by the IMF’s Fiscal Affairs Department. Its projections are based on the same database used for the World Economic Outlook (WEO) and the Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR).
The fiscal projections for individual countries have been prepared by IMF desk economists, and, in line with the WEO guidelines, assume that announced policies will be implemented.
Key Publications of IMF
Other Key Publications
- World economic outlook
- Global financial stability report
- Regional economic prospects
- Finance and Development
Incorrect
Solution: A
With increasing fiscal challenges in the aftermath of the global financial crisis, multilateral surveillance of fiscal developments, a key part of the IMF’s surveillance responsibilities, has gained further importance.
In response, the Fiscal Monitor was launched in 2009 to survey and analyze the latest public finance developments, update fiscal implications of the crisis and medium-term fiscal projections, and assess policies to put public finances on a sustainable footing.
The Fiscal Monitor is prepared twice a year by the IMF’s Fiscal Affairs Department. Its projections are based on the same database used for the World Economic Outlook (WEO) and the Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR).
The fiscal projections for individual countries have been prepared by IMF desk economists, and, in line with the WEO guidelines, assume that announced policies will be implemented.
Key Publications of IMF
Other Key Publications
- World economic outlook
- Global financial stability report
- Regional economic prospects
- Finance and Development
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):
- It aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks in support of sustainable development.
- India and China are the founding members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is a partnership of national governments, UN agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and knowledge institutions that aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks in support of sustainable development. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
CDRI promotes rapid development of resilient infrastructure to respond to the Sustainable Development Goals’ imperatives of expanding universal access to basic services, enabling prosperity and decent work.
Member Countries:
China is not a member of this coalition. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Member Organizations:
https://cdri.world/cdri-overview
Source: Yojana 2020
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is a partnership of national governments, UN agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and knowledge institutions that aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks in support of sustainable development. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
CDRI promotes rapid development of resilient infrastructure to respond to the Sustainable Development Goals’ imperatives of expanding universal access to basic services, enabling prosperity and decent work.
Member Countries:
China is not a member of this coalition. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Member Organizations:
https://cdri.world/cdri-overview
Source: Yojana 2020
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) to establish the Peace Forest Initiative (PFI)?
Correct
Solution: C
The UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and the Government of the Republic of Korea Forest Service (KFS) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish the Peace Forest Initiative (PFI). The Initiative will support land and forest rehabilitation in post conflict areas to reduce peace and security challenges stemming from natural resource degradation. Hence, option (c) is correct.
The PFI was initially launched on 10 September 2019 during the 14th Conference of the Parties to the UNCCD in New Delhi, India.
In supporting needs assessments, the Initiative will engender collaboration, provide guidance, support transparency and support local parties to conflict to resolve their disputes and grievances. The PFI also aims to contribute to land degradation neutrality (LDN) implementation through partnerships that build peace and security.
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/unccd-kfs-sign-mou-establishing-peace-forest-initiative/
Source: Yojana – January 2020
Incorrect
Solution: C
The UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and the Government of the Republic of Korea Forest Service (KFS) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish the Peace Forest Initiative (PFI). The Initiative will support land and forest rehabilitation in post conflict areas to reduce peace and security challenges stemming from natural resource degradation. Hence, option (c) is correct.
The PFI was initially launched on 10 September 2019 during the 14th Conference of the Parties to the UNCCD in New Delhi, India.
In supporting needs assessments, the Initiative will engender collaboration, provide guidance, support transparency and support local parties to conflict to resolve their disputes and grievances. The PFI also aims to contribute to land degradation neutrality (LDN) implementation through partnerships that build peace and security.
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/unccd-kfs-sign-mou-establishing-peace-forest-initiative/
Source: Yojana – January 2020
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 points‘Women-led Water, Sanitation, Hygiene and Resilient Practices Project’ or W-SHARP has been implemented in the state of:
Correct
Solution: C
Almost 70% of Maharashtra state’s geographical area lies in the semi-arid region, rendering it vulnerable to water scarcity.
Women were disproportionately affected by scarcity. This increased their burden in terms of household tasks as they need to travel further in order to search for water, fuel and fodder. This has a direct impact on their sanitation, hygiene and nutritional outcomes, which also affect their next generations.
In order to address the problem, UNICEF along with the government of Maharashtra implemented ‘Women-led Water, Sanitation, Hygiene and Resilient Practices Project’ or W-SHARP in 2018 in the region. The Project sought to enhance water, livelihood and food security across 100 villages which include 10,000 families in two drought-affected areas of the state.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Source: Yojana – January 2020.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Almost 70% of Maharashtra state’s geographical area lies in the semi-arid region, rendering it vulnerable to water scarcity.
Women were disproportionately affected by scarcity. This increased their burden in terms of household tasks as they need to travel further in order to search for water, fuel and fodder. This has a direct impact on their sanitation, hygiene and nutritional outcomes, which also affect their next generations.
In order to address the problem, UNICEF along with the government of Maharashtra implemented ‘Women-led Water, Sanitation, Hygiene and Resilient Practices Project’ or W-SHARP in 2018 in the region. The Project sought to enhance water, livelihood and food security across 100 villages which include 10,000 families in two drought-affected areas of the state.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Source: Yojana – January 2020.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mission:
- It is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India.
- It includes extensive Information, Education and communication as a key component of the mission
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Jal Jeevan Mission, is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India.
The programme will also implement source sustainability measures as mandatory elements, such as recharge and reuse through grey water management, water conservation, rain water harvesting.
The Jal Jeevan Mission will be based on a community approach to water and will include extensive Information, Education and communication as a key component of the mission.
The Mission was launched on August 15, 2019.
https://vikaspedia.in/health/sanitation-and-hygiene/jal-jeevan-mission
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Jal Jeevan Mission, is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India.
The programme will also implement source sustainability measures as mandatory elements, such as recharge and reuse through grey water management, water conservation, rain water harvesting.
The Jal Jeevan Mission will be based on a community approach to water and will include extensive Information, Education and communication as a key component of the mission.
The Mission was launched on August 15, 2019.
https://vikaspedia.in/health/sanitation-and-hygiene/jal-jeevan-mission
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsThe Western Ghats has spread over which of the following states?
- Gujarat
- Goa
- Maharashtra
- Karnataka
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The Western Ghats aka Sahyadri is a mountain range that covers an area of 160,000 km² in a stretch of 1,600 km parallel to the western coast of the Indian peninsula, traversing the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat and Union territory of Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Western Ghats aka Sahyadri is a mountain range that covers an area of 160,000 km² in a stretch of 1,600 km parallel to the western coast of the Indian peninsula, traversing the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat and Union territory of Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsThe total income received by the country from its residents and businesses regardless of their location of residence in a set time period is
Correct
Solution: A
GNI calculates the total income earned by a nation’s people and businesses, including investment income, regardless of where it was earned. It also covers money received from abroad such as foreign investment and economic development aid.
- GDP is the total market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country in a set time period.
- GNI is the total income received by the country from its residents and businesses regardless of whether they are located in the country or abroad. Hence, option (a) is correct.
- GNP includes the income of all of a country’s residents and businesses whether it flows back to the country or is spent abroad. It also adds subsidies and taxes from foreign sources.
Incorrect
Solution: A
GNI calculates the total income earned by a nation’s people and businesses, including investment income, regardless of where it was earned. It also covers money received from abroad such as foreign investment and economic development aid.
- GDP is the total market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country in a set time period.
- GNI is the total income received by the country from its residents and businesses regardless of whether they are located in the country or abroad. Hence, option (a) is correct.
- GNP includes the income of all of a country’s residents and businesses whether it flows back to the country or is spent abroad. It also adds subsidies and taxes from foreign sources.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are e-wastes?
- Lead
- Mercury
- Cadmium
- Beryllium
- Polyvinyl Chloride
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
E-waste broadly covers waste from all electronic and electrical appliances and comprises of items such as computers, mobile phones, digital music recorders/players, refrigerators, washing machines, televisions (TVs) and many other household consumer items.
A computer contains highly toxic chemicals like lead, cadmium, mercury, beryllium, BFR, polyvinyl chloride and phosphor compounds.
https://vikaspedia.in/energy/environment/waste-management/e-waste-management/e-waste-hazard
Incorrect
Solution: D
E-waste broadly covers waste from all electronic and electrical appliances and comprises of items such as computers, mobile phones, digital music recorders/players, refrigerators, washing machines, televisions (TVs) and many other household consumer items.
A computer contains highly toxic chemicals like lead, cadmium, mercury, beryllium, BFR, polyvinyl chloride and phosphor compounds.
https://vikaspedia.in/energy/environment/waste-management/e-waste-management/e-waste-hazard
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsGadgil Committee and Kasturi Rangan Committee, often seen in news, is related to:
Correct
Solution: B
Both are related to the categorisation of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESA).
What did the Gadgil Committee say?
It defined the boundaries of the Western Ghats for the purposes of ecological management. It proposed that this entire area be designated as ecologically sensitive area (ESA).
Within this area, smaller regions were to be identified as ecologically sensitive zones (ESZ) I, II or III based on their existing condition and nature of threat.
None of the six concerned states agreed with the recommendations of the Gadgil Committee, which submitted its report in August 2011.
In August 2012, then Environment Minister constituted a High-Level Working Group on Western Ghats under Kasturirangan to “examine” the Gadgil Committee report in a “holistic and multidisciplinary fashion in the light of responses received” from states, central ministries and others.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Both are related to the categorisation of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESA).
What did the Gadgil Committee say?
It defined the boundaries of the Western Ghats for the purposes of ecological management. It proposed that this entire area be designated as ecologically sensitive area (ESA).
Within this area, smaller regions were to be identified as ecologically sensitive zones (ESZ) I, II or III based on their existing condition and nature of threat.
None of the six concerned states agreed with the recommendations of the Gadgil Committee, which submitted its report in August 2011.
In August 2012, then Environment Minister constituted a High-Level Working Group on Western Ghats under Kasturirangan to “examine” the Gadgil Committee report in a “holistic and multidisciplinary fashion in the light of responses received” from states, central ministries and others.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Gaur
- It is the tallest species of wild cattle found in India and largest extant bovine.
- In India, they are found in Nagarhole, Bandipur, Masinagudi National Parks
- As per IUCN status, it is listed as critically Endangered species.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
About Indian Gaur:
- The gaur, Bos gaurus, also called the Indian bison, is one of the largest extant bovines.
- It is the tallest species of wild cattle found in India and largest extant bovine.
- It is native to South and Southeast Asia and has been listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List since 1986.
- Distribution: In India, the population was estimated to be 12,000–22,000 in the mid-1990s. The Western Ghats and their outflanking hills in southern India constitute one of the most extensive extant strongholds of gaur, in particular they are found in Nagarhole, Bandipur, Masinagudi National Parks and BR Hills.
Threats
- Diseases, particularly rinderpest and foot-and-mouth disease, transmitted by domestic cattle are a potentially serious threat.
- Hunting for food, medicinal products and handicrafts products.
- Loss of suitable habitat
Incorrect
Solution: C
About Indian Gaur:
- The gaur, Bos gaurus, also called the Indian bison, is one of the largest extant bovines.
- It is the tallest species of wild cattle found in India and largest extant bovine.
- It is native to South and Southeast Asia and has been listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List since 1986.
- Distribution: In India, the population was estimated to be 12,000–22,000 in the mid-1990s. The Western Ghats and their outflanking hills in southern India constitute one of the most extensive extant strongholds of gaur, in particular they are found in Nagarhole, Bandipur, Masinagudi National Parks and BR Hills.
Threats
- Diseases, particularly rinderpest and foot-and-mouth disease, transmitted by domestic cattle are a potentially serious threat.
- Hunting for food, medicinal products and handicrafts products.
- Loss of suitable habitat
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsSukhna Lake, which is declared as living entity and declared as a wetland under Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rule 2017, is located in
Correct
Solution: D
Sukhna lake:
The man-made Sukhna Lake was built in 1958 by Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh. Located in the foothills of the Shivalik Hills, it was designed to collect runoff water from the Hills. The Lake, which is in the process of being officially notified as a wetland, also has a nearby wildlife sanctuary that is home to sambar, pangolin, wild boars, red jungle fowl, cobras and other species.
The Punjab and Haryana high court has declared Sukhna Lake a “living entity” or “legal person” with rights, duties and liabilities of a living person.
It is declared as a wetland under Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rule 2017 (Wetland Rules)
Incorrect
Solution: D
Sukhna lake:
The man-made Sukhna Lake was built in 1958 by Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh. Located in the foothills of the Shivalik Hills, it was designed to collect runoff water from the Hills. The Lake, which is in the process of being officially notified as a wetland, also has a nearby wildlife sanctuary that is home to sambar, pangolin, wild boars, red jungle fowl, cobras and other species.
The Punjab and Haryana high court has declared Sukhna Lake a “living entity” or “legal person” with rights, duties and liabilities of a living person.
It is declared as a wetland under Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rule 2017 (Wetland Rules)
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsThe “Remdesivir”, which is often seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: C
Remdesivir:
Remdesivir, sold under the brand name Veklury, is a broad-spectrum antiviral medication developed by the biopharmaceutical company Gilead Sciences. It is a drug with antiviral properties that was manufactured by US-based biotechnology company in 2014, to treat Ebola cases. It was also tried in patients of MERS and SARS, both caused by members of the coronavirus family, but experts said it did now show promising results back then. It is now being studied as a COVID-19 treatment.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Remdesivir:
Remdesivir, sold under the brand name Veklury, is a broad-spectrum antiviral medication developed by the biopharmaceutical company Gilead Sciences. It is a drug with antiviral properties that was manufactured by US-based biotechnology company in 2014, to treat Ebola cases. It was also tried in patients of MERS and SARS, both caused by members of the coronavirus family, but experts said it did now show promising results back then. It is now being studied as a COVID-19 treatment.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pneumonia
- It is one of the leading causes of deaths in children under five years of age.
- It can be caused by viruses, bacteria, or fungi.
- There is no Vaccination for Pneumonia, though treatment can relieve symptoms
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Pneumonia:
- The World Health Organisation (WHO) identifies pneumonia is the single largest cause of death in children worldwide.
- Every year, it kills an estimated 1.4 million children under the age of five years, accounting for 18% of all deaths of children under five years old worldwide, according to the WHO. This, despite pneumonia being preventable and treatable.
How is it spread?
- Infectious agents may include bacteria, viruses and fungi.
- Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in children, and Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) is the second most common cause of bacterial pneumonia. Respiratory syncytial virus is the most common viral cause of pneumonia.
- Air sacs in an infected individual’s lungs (alveoli) become inflamed due to deposits of fluid and pus, making it painful and difficult for them to breathe.
- Children and the elderly above the age of 65 years are especially vulnerable.
What are the symptoms of infection?
- Symptoms include high fever and chills, cough with phlegm, physical weakness and a feeling of being unwell, shortness of breath and rapid breathing, and a racing pulse.
How can it be prevented and treated?
- Preventive measures include maintaining hygiene and getting vaccinations against certain pneumonia causing bacteria.
- Saving a child from pneumonia requires urgent treatment, that usually involves the administration of antibiotics, which typically do not cost much. On average, treatment lasts for about five to seven days.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Pneumonia:
- The World Health Organisation (WHO) identifies pneumonia is the single largest cause of death in children worldwide.
- Every year, it kills an estimated 1.4 million children under the age of five years, accounting for 18% of all deaths of children under five years old worldwide, according to the WHO. This, despite pneumonia being preventable and treatable.
How is it spread?
- Infectious agents may include bacteria, viruses and fungi.
- Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in children, and Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) is the second most common cause of bacterial pneumonia. Respiratory syncytial virus is the most common viral cause of pneumonia.
- Air sacs in an infected individual’s lungs (alveoli) become inflamed due to deposits of fluid and pus, making it painful and difficult for them to breathe.
- Children and the elderly above the age of 65 years are especially vulnerable.
What are the symptoms of infection?
- Symptoms include high fever and chills, cough with phlegm, physical weakness and a feeling of being unwell, shortness of breath and rapid breathing, and a racing pulse.
How can it be prevented and treated?
- Preventive measures include maintaining hygiene and getting vaccinations against certain pneumonia causing bacteria.
- Saving a child from pneumonia requires urgent treatment, that usually involves the administration of antibiotics, which typically do not cost much. On average, treatment lasts for about five to seven days.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsLight Detection and Ranging (LiDAR) technology can be used in which of the following areas?
- Agriculture
- Geology
- Archaeology
- Object detection for transportation systems
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Correct
Solution: C
LiDAR- Light Detection and Ranging:
- It is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth.
- These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system— generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
- A lidar instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
- Airplanes and helicopters are the most commonly used platforms for acquiring lidar data over broad areas.
- LiDAR follows a simple principle — throw laser light at an object on the earth surface and calculate the time it takes to return to the LiDAR source. Given the speed at which the light travels (approximately 186,000 miles per second), the process of measuring the exact distance through LiDAR appears to be incredibly fast.
Applications LiDAR used for:
- Agriculture
- The technology is also used in control and navigation for some autonomous cars.
- Object detection for transportation systems
- Hydrology and water management systems
- Geology-related applications
- Archaeology
Incorrect
Solution: C
LiDAR- Light Detection and Ranging:
- It is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth.
- These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system— generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
- A lidar instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
- Airplanes and helicopters are the most commonly used platforms for acquiring lidar data over broad areas.
- LiDAR follows a simple principle — throw laser light at an object on the earth surface and calculate the time it takes to return to the LiDAR source. Given the speed at which the light travels (approximately 186,000 miles per second), the process of measuring the exact distance through LiDAR appears to be incredibly fast.
Applications LiDAR used for:
- Agriculture
- The technology is also used in control and navigation for some autonomous cars.
- Object detection for transportation systems
- Hydrology and water management systems
- Geology-related applications
- Archaeology
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Arms Trade Treaty (ATT)
- It establishes common international standards for the regulation of the international trade in ammunition, weapons parts, and arms components.
- The treaty regulates the domestic sale or use of weapons in any country
- Recently India joined the treaty.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Arms Trade Treaty (ATT):
- It is an international treaty that regulates the international trade in conventional arms.
- It seeks to prevent and eradicate illicit trade and diversion of conventional arms by establishing international standards governing arms transfers.
- The ATT contributes to international and regional peace, security and stability, reducing human suffering, and promoting cooperation, transparency and responsible action among the international community.
- The Treaty came into force on 24 December 2014.
- At this stage the Treaty has a total of 106 States Parties and 130 Signatory States.
- The ATT Secretariat is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- India have not yet joined the treaty.
What types of conventional weapons deals does the Arms Trade Treaty seek to regulate?
- Conventional weapons covered by the UN Arms Trade Treaty include tanks and other armored combat vehicles, artillery, attack helicopters, naval warships, missiles and missile launchers, and small arms.
- It also establishes common international standards for the regulation of the international trade in ammunition, weapons parts, and arms components.
- The treaty does not regulate the domestic sale or use of weapons in any country. It also recognizes the legitimacy of the arms trade to enable states to provide for their own security.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Arms Trade Treaty (ATT):
- It is an international treaty that regulates the international trade in conventional arms.
- It seeks to prevent and eradicate illicit trade and diversion of conventional arms by establishing international standards governing arms transfers.
- The ATT contributes to international and regional peace, security and stability, reducing human suffering, and promoting cooperation, transparency and responsible action among the international community.
- The Treaty came into force on 24 December 2014.
- At this stage the Treaty has a total of 106 States Parties and 130 Signatory States.
- The ATT Secretariat is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- India have not yet joined the treaty.
What types of conventional weapons deals does the Arms Trade Treaty seek to regulate?
- Conventional weapons covered by the UN Arms Trade Treaty include tanks and other armored combat vehicles, artillery, attack helicopters, naval warships, missiles and missile launchers, and small arms.
- It also establishes common international standards for the regulation of the international trade in ammunition, weapons parts, and arms components.
- The treaty does not regulate the domestic sale or use of weapons in any country. It also recognizes the legitimacy of the arms trade to enable states to provide for their own security.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Talamaddale
- It is a variation of the famous Yakshagana theatre practiced in Karnataka and Kerala.
- It has only spoken words without any dance or costumes.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Talamaddale:
- It is an ancient form of performance dialogue or debate performance in Southern India in the Karavali and Malnad regions of Karnataka and Kerala.
- The plot and content of the conversation is drawn from popular mythology but the performance mainly consists of an impromptu debate between characters involving sarcasm, puns, philosophy positions and humour.
How is it different from Yakshagana?
- Unlike the Yakshagana performance, in the conventional ‘talamaddale,’ the artists sit across in a place without any costumes and engage in testing their oratory skills based on the episode chosen.
- If music is common for both Yakshagana performance and ‘talamaddale’, the latter has only spoken word without any dance or costumes.
- Hence it is an art form minus dance, costumes and stage conventions.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Talamaddale:
- It is an ancient form of performance dialogue or debate performance in Southern India in the Karavali and Malnad regions of Karnataka and Kerala.
- The plot and content of the conversation is drawn from popular mythology but the performance mainly consists of an impromptu debate between characters involving sarcasm, puns, philosophy positions and humour.
How is it different from Yakshagana?
- Unlike the Yakshagana performance, in the conventional ‘talamaddale,’ the artists sit across in a place without any costumes and engage in testing their oratory skills based on the episode chosen.
- If music is common for both Yakshagana performance and ‘talamaddale’, the latter has only spoken word without any dance or costumes.
- Hence it is an art form minus dance, costumes and stage conventions.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsRamesh can do a work in 15 days. After working for 3 days he is joined by Suresh. If they complete the remaining work in 3 more days, in how many days can Suresh alone complete the work?
Correct
Solution: C
Total number days Ramesh alone takes to finish the work = 15days
Thus, work done by Ramesh in one day = 1/15
The total number days worked by Ramesh = 3 days + 3 days = 6 days
Total work done by Ramesh = 6/15 = 2/5.
Therefore, Remaining work done by Suresh = 1- 2/5 = 3/5
If Suresh can finish 3/5 th work in 3 days, then work done by him in one day = 1/5.
Thus, total time required by Suresh alone to complete the wok = 5 days.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Total number days Ramesh alone takes to finish the work = 15days
Thus, work done by Ramesh in one day = 1/15
The total number days worked by Ramesh = 3 days + 3 days = 6 days
Total work done by Ramesh = 6/15 = 2/5.
Therefore, Remaining work done by Suresh = 1- 2/5 = 3/5
If Suresh can finish 3/5 th work in 3 days, then work done by him in one day = 1/5.
Thus, total time required by Suresh alone to complete the wok = 5 days.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsRani and Vani can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then Vani left. After another 20 days, Rani finished the remaining work. In how many days, Rani alone can finish the work?
Correct
Rani and Vani can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then Vani left. After another 20 days, Rani finished the remaining work. In how many days, Rani alone can finish the work?
Incorrect
Rani and Vani can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then Vani left. After another 20 days, Rani finished the remaining work. In how many days, Rani alone can finish the work?
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA tank is filled in 20 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
Correct
Solution: A
Suppose pipe A alone takes x hours to fill the tank.
Then pipes B and C will take x/3 and x/6 hours respectively to fill the tank.
Therefore,1/x + 3/x + 6/x= 1/20 (As it takes 20 hours by three pipes A, B and C to fill the tank)
Thus, 10/x = 1/20
Or x = 200hrs
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Suppose pipe A alone takes x hours to fill the tank.
Then pipes B and C will take x/3 and x/6 hours respectively to fill the tank.
Therefore,1/x + 3/x + 6/x= 1/20 (As it takes 20 hours by three pipes A, B and C to fill the tank)
Thus, 10/x = 1/20
Or x = 200hrs
Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsTwo pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 36 and 48 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened together, after how many minutes should B be turned off, so that the cistern be fill in 24 minutes?
Correct
Solution: B
A can fill the cistern in 36 minutes, so in 1 min, the cistern filled by A = 1/36
Thus, in 24 min, A can fill the cistern = 24/36 = 2/3.Remaining part = 1- 2/3 = 1/3
As B can fill full cistern in 48 minutes, so it will fill 1/3rd part in 16 minutes.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
A can fill the cistern in 36 minutes, so in 1 min, the cistern filled by A = 1/36
Thus, in 24 min, A can fill the cistern = 24/36 = 2/3.Remaining part = 1- 2/3 = 1/3
As B can fill full cistern in 48 minutes, so it will fill 1/3rd part in 16 minutes.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsRead the following passage and Answer the Question that follow. Your answer should be based on the passage only
Passage 1
India has not gained much from being in the WTO and resisted opening up its agricultural sector because of millions of small and marginal farmers who would not be able to withstand competition from abroad. India has faced flak in the past about its agricultural subsidies which are far lower than the subsidies the US, Canada and the EU give to their farmers. But their subsidies are supposed to be direct cash subsidies and are allowed under the WTO’s ‘Green Box’. Most of the subsidies India gives to farmers (MSP, fertiliser) come under ‘Amber Box’ and there is pressure to make them ‘Green Box’ compliable. India has had problems with the way the WTO calculates the MSP for Indian farmers.Which of the following is the most logical, accurate and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Ans. B.
Statement A is wrong as then the rule of trade would break down. Statement C is wrong as the passage states that India gives subsidies which are far lower than those given by the developed countries. Statement D is wrong as the passage does not talk about the services sector. Hence B is the most accurate answer.
Incorrect
Ans. B.
Statement A is wrong as then the rule of trade would break down. Statement C is wrong as the passage states that India gives subsidies which are far lower than those given by the developed countries. Statement D is wrong as the passage does not talk about the services sector. Hence B is the most accurate answer.














