INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS ( 13 March 2021) REVISION THROUGH MCQS

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

• S1: There were certain aspects in which the Civil Disobedience Movement differed from the Non-Cooperation Movement.
  • The stated objective this time was complete independence and not just remedying two specific wrongs and a vaguely-worded swaraj.
  • The methods involved violation of law from the very beginning and not just non-cooperation with foreign rule.
  • There was a decline in forms of protests involving the intelligentsia, such as lawyers giving up practice, students giving up government schools to join national schools and colleges.
• S2: On January 25, 1931, Gandhi and all other members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) were released unconditionally. The CWC authorised Gandhi to initiate discussions with the viceroy. As a result of these discussions, a pact was signed between the viceroy, representing the British Indian Government, and Gandhi, representing the Indian people, in Delhi on February 14, 1931.
  • Gandhi on behalf of the Congress agreed—
    • to suspend the civil disobedience movement, and
    • to participate in the next Round Table Conference on the constitutional question around the three lynch-pins of federation, Indian responsibility, and reservations and safeguards that may be necessary in India’s interests (covering such areas as defence, external affairs, position of minorities, financial credit of India and discharge of other obligations).

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/13/padyatra-to-commemorate-salt-march/

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• There were certain aspects in which the Civil Disobedience Movement differed from the Non-Cooperation Movement.
  • There was a decline in forms of protests involving the intelligentsia, such as lawyers giving up practice, students giving up government schools to join national schools and colleges.
  • Muslim participation was nowhere near that in the Non-Cooperation Movement level.
  • No major labour upsurge coincided with the movement.
  • The massive participation of peasants and business groups compensated for decline of other features.
  • The number of those imprisoned was about three times more this time.
  • The Congress was organisationally stronger.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/13/padyatra-to-commemorate-salt-march/

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 is passed by the Lok Sabha and it will be discussed in the Rajya Sabha.
• Key changes:
  • It seeks to extend the upper limit for permitting abortions from 20 weeks to 24 under special circumstances.
  • The “special categories of women” include rape survivors, victims of incest, the differently abled and minors.
  • The Bill proposes requirement of opinion of one registered medical practitioner (RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.
  • It also provides for the requirement of opinion of two RMPs for termination of pregnancy of 20 to 24 weeks.
  • Constitution of a Medical Board: Every state government is required to constitute a Medical Board. These Medical Boards will consist of the following members: (i) a gynaecologist, (ii) a paediatrician, (iii) a radiologist or sonologist, and (iv) any other number of members, as may be notified by the state government.
  • Under the Bill, if any pregnancy occurs as a result of failure of any device or method used by a woman or her partner to limit the number of children, such an unwanted pregnancy may constitute a grave injury to the mental health of the pregnant woman.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/13/plea-to-constitute-district-medical-boards/

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

• State election commissioner is appointed by The Governor.
• The powers and functions of the State Election Commission under article 243K AND 243ZA of the Constitution Of India are identical to those vested in the Election Commission Of India constituted under article 324 of the Constitution Of India in their respective domains.
• His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by the governor.
• He shall not be removed from the office except in the manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of the judge of the state high court.
• A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by the president on the recommendation of the parliament. This means that a state election commissioner cannot be removed by the governor, though appointed by him.
• The ECI and SECs have a similar mandate; do they also have similar powers?
  • The provisions of Article 243K of the Constitution, which provides for setting up of SECs, are almost identical to those of Article 324 related to the EC. In other words, the SECs enjoy the same status as the EC.
  • In 2006, the Supreme Court emphasised the two constitutional authorities enjoy the same powers.
  • In Kishan Singh Tomar vs Municipal Corporation of the City of Ahmedabad, the Supreme Court directed that state governments should abide by orders of the SECs during the conduct of the panchayat and municipal elections, just like they follow the instructions of the EC during Assembly and Parliament polls.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/13/state-election-commissioners/

Ans: (d)

Explanation: here the directive word is incorrect!!

• Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz.,
  • The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
  • The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
  • The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/13/state-election-commissioners/

Ans: (d)

Explanation: About the RTI Act, 2005:

• It sets out the rules and procedures regarding citizens’ right to information.
• It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
• This act was enacted in order to consolidate the fundamental right in the Indian constitution ‘freedom of speech’. Since RTI is implicit in the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution, it is an implied fundamental right.
• Key Provisions:
  • Section 4 of the RTI Act requires suo motu disclosure of information by each public authority.
  • Section 8 (1) mentions exemptions against furnishing information under RTI Act.
  • Section 8 (2) provides for disclosure of information exempted under Official Secrets Act, 1923 if larger public interest is served.
• Information Commissioners and PIOs:
  • The Act also provides for appointment of Information Commissioners at Central and State level.
  • Public authorities have designated some of its officers as Public Information Officer. They are responsible to give information to a person who seeks information under the RTI Act.
• Time period:
  • In normal course, information to an applicant is to be supplied within 30 days from the receipt of application by the public authority.
  • If information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, it shall be supplied within 48 hours.
  • In case the application is sent through the Assistant Public Information Officer or it is sent to a wrong public authority, five days shall be added to the period of thirty days or 48 hours, as the case may be.
• Applicability of RTI to:
• Private bodies:
  • Private bodies are not within the Act’s ambit
  • In a decision of Sarbjit roy vs Delhi Electricity Regulatory Commission, the Central Information Commission also reaffirmed that privatised public utility companies fall within the purview of RTI.
• Political parties:
  • The Central Information Commission (CIC) had held that the political parties are public authorities and are answerable to citizens under the RTI Act.
  • But in August 2013 the government introduced a Right To Information (Amendment) Bill which would remove political parties from the scope of the law.
  • Currently no parties are under the RTI Act and a case has been filed for bringing all political parties under it.
• Chief Justice of India:
  • Supreme Court of India on 13 November 2019, upheld the decision of Delhi High Court bringing the office of Chief Justice of India under the purview of Right to Information (RTI) Act.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/13/rajasthan-information-commission-penalises-five-officials-for-negligence/

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

• The benzene molecule is composed of six carbon atoms joined in a planar ring with one hydrogen atom attached to each. As it contains only carbon and hydrogen atoms, benzene is classed as a hydrocarbon.
• Benzene is formed from both natural processes and human activities. Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude oil, gasoline, and cigarette smoke.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/13/bring-down-benzene-emission-at-fuel-outlets-says-panel/

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Petroleum & Explosives Safety Organization:

• It is a department under Department for the Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• It is a regulatory authority with autonomous status. 
• It was established during the British India in 1890s as Department of Explosives and later expanded to various other activities.
• PESO is entrusted with the responsibilities under the Explosives Act, 1884; Petroleum Act, 1934; Inflammable Substances Act, 1952, Environment (Protection Act), 1986.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/13/bring-down-benzene-emission-at-fuel-outlets-says-panel/

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

• S1: National Green Tribunal is a statutory body established by a Government Notification using the powers of Section 3 of the NGT Act 2010.
• S2: The Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) is appointed by the Central Government of India in accordance with the Chief Justice of India.
• S3: The NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and various laws enacted by States relating to forests, tree preservation etc. Therefore, specific and substantial issues related to these laws cannot be raised before the NGT.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/13/bring-down-benzene-emission-at-fuel-outlets-says-panel/

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• S5 is wrong since Portland cement is a major CO2 emitter. Same goes for asphalt mix. Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA) is a combination of approximately 95% stone, sand, or gravel bound together by asphalt cement, a product of crude oil. So, S4 is incorrect as well.
• S1, S2 and S3 are correct.

Refer: UPSC  CSE 2020