INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the archaeological site Dholavira (Gujarat):
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- Its location is on the Tropic of Cancer.
- It was first excavated by an archaeologist, Sir John Marshall in 1872.
- It has been submitted for nomination of World Heritage Site in 2019-2020.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: Dholavira’s location is on the Tropic of Cancer. More>>>
- S2: The site was discovered in 1967-68 by P. Joshi, of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), and is the fifth largest of eight major Harappan sites.
- S3: Dholavira: A Harappan City’ has been submitted for nomination of World Heritage Site in 2019-2020.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/declaration-of-world-heritage-sites-by-unesco/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: Dholavira’s location is on the Tropic of Cancer. More>>>
- S2: The site was discovered in 1967-68 by P. Joshi, of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), and is the fifth largest of eight major Harappan sites.
- S3: Dholavira: A Harappan City’ has been submitted for nomination of World Heritage Site in 2019-2020.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/declaration-of-world-heritage-sites-by-unesco/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- World Heritage Sites are designated by UNESCO for having cultural, historical, scientific or other form of significance.
- Each World Heritage Site remains part of the legal territory of the UNESCO.
- At present, India has 38 World Heritage Properties.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- What is a World Heritage site?
- A World Heritage site is classified as a natural or man-made area or a structure that is of international importance, and a space which requires special protection.
- S1: These sites are officially recognised by the UN and the United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation, also known as UNESCO.
- UNESCO believes that the sites classified as World Heritage are important for humanity, and they hold cultural and physical significance.
- Key facts:
- The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the General Assembly.
- S2: Each World Heritage Site remains part of the legal territory of the state wherein the site is located and UNESCO considers it in the interest of the international community to preserve each site.
- To be selected, a World Heritage Site must be an already classified landmark, unique in some respect as a geographically and historically identifiable place having special cultural or physical significance.
- S3: At present, India has 38 World Heritage Properties. Besides, India has 42 sites listed under Tentative List which is a pre-requisite condition for inscription as World Heritage Site.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/declaration-of-world-heritage-sites-by-unesco/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- What is a World Heritage site?
- A World Heritage site is classified as a natural or man-made area or a structure that is of international importance, and a space which requires special protection.
- S1: These sites are officially recognised by the UN and the United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation, also known as UNESCO.
- UNESCO believes that the sites classified as World Heritage are important for humanity, and they hold cultural and physical significance.
- Key facts:
- The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the General Assembly.
- S2: Each World Heritage Site remains part of the legal territory of the state wherein the site is located and UNESCO considers it in the interest of the international community to preserve each site.
- To be selected, a World Heritage Site must be an already classified landmark, unique in some respect as a geographically and historically identifiable place having special cultural or physical significance.
- S3: At present, India has 38 World Heritage Properties. Besides, India has 42 sites listed under Tentative List which is a pre-requisite condition for inscription as World Heritage Site.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/declaration-of-world-heritage-sites-by-unesco/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Indira Sawhney Case’ (1992) was in news recently, is associated with which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- In its landmark 1992 decision in Indra Sawhney vs Union of India, the Supreme Court had held that reservations under Article 16(4) could only be provided at the time of entry into government service but not in matters of promotion.
- It added that the principle would operate only prospectively and not affect promotions already made and that reservation already provided in promotions shall continue in operation for a period of five years from the date of the judgment. It also ruled that the creamy layer can be and must be excluded.
- On June 17, 1995, Parliament, acting in its constituent capacity, adopted the seventy-seventh amendment by which clause (4A) was inserted into Article 16 to enable reservation to be made in promotion for SCs and STs. The validity of the seventy-seventh and eighty-fifth amendments to the Constitution and of the legislation enacted in pursuance of those amendments was challenged before the Supreme Court in the Nagaraj case.
- Upholding the validity of Article 16 (4A), the court then said that it is an enabling provision. “The State is not bound to make reservation for the SCs and STs in promotions. But, if it seeks to do so, it must collect quantifiable data on three facets — the backwardness of the class; the inadequacy of the representation of that class in public employment; and the general efficiency of service as mandated by Article 335 would not be affected”.
- The court ruled that the constitutional amendments do not abrogate the fundamentals of equality.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/sc-seeks-states-views-on-50-cap-on-quota/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- In its landmark 1992 decision in Indra Sawhney vs Union of India, the Supreme Court had held that reservations under Article 16(4) could only be provided at the time of entry into government service but not in matters of promotion.
- It added that the principle would operate only prospectively and not affect promotions already made and that reservation already provided in promotions shall continue in operation for a period of five years from the date of the judgment. It also ruled that the creamy layer can be and must be excluded.
- On June 17, 1995, Parliament, acting in its constituent capacity, adopted the seventy-seventh amendment by which clause (4A) was inserted into Article 16 to enable reservation to be made in promotion for SCs and STs. The validity of the seventy-seventh and eighty-fifth amendments to the Constitution and of the legislation enacted in pursuance of those amendments was challenged before the Supreme Court in the Nagaraj case.
- Upholding the validity of Article 16 (4A), the court then said that it is an enabling provision. “The State is not bound to make reservation for the SCs and STs in promotions. But, if it seeks to do so, it must collect quantifiable data on three facets — the backwardness of the class; the inadequacy of the representation of that class in public employment; and the general efficiency of service as mandated by Article 335 would not be affected”.
- The court ruled that the constitutional amendments do not abrogate the fundamentals of equality.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/sc-seeks-states-views-on-50-cap-on-quota/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law passed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: Once a law is enacted and included in the Ninth Schedule, it gets protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is not subject to judicial scrutiny.
The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review. - S2: The mandate of ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but in a landmark ruling in IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court judgment laid that the laws placed under Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973. Shall be open to challenge in court if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14, 19, 20 and 21 of the Constitution
- Context: Tamilnadu’s case:
- The state’s Assembly passed the Tamil Nadu Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Reservation of Seats in Educational Institutions and Appointments or Posts in the Services under the State) Act, 1993 to keep its reservation limit intact at 69%.
- The law was subsequently included into the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution through the 76th Constitution Amendment passed by Parliament in 1994.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/sc-seeks-states-views-on-50-cap-on-quota/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: Once a law is enacted and included in the Ninth Schedule, it gets protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is not subject to judicial scrutiny.
The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review. - S2: The mandate of ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but in a landmark ruling in IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court judgment laid that the laws placed under Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973. Shall be open to challenge in court if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14, 19, 20 and 21 of the Constitution
- Context: Tamilnadu’s case:
- The state’s Assembly passed the Tamil Nadu Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Reservation of Seats in Educational Institutions and Appointments or Posts in the Services under the State) Act, 1993 to keep its reservation limit intact at 69%.
- The law was subsequently included into the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution through the 76th Constitution Amendment passed by Parliament in 1994.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/sc-seeks-states-views-on-50-cap-on-quota/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsThe Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights.
- See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_India
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/sc-seeks-states-views-on-50-cap-on-quota/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights.
- See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_India
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/sc-seeks-states-views-on-50-cap-on-quota/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Banks Board Bureau (BBB):
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- The BBB is a not-for-profit organisation registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013.
- The BBB was the part of Indradhanush Plan of government.
- It will make recommendations for appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and state-owned financial institutions.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About BBB:
- It was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body– based on the recommendations of the RBI-appointed Nayak Committee.
- It was part of the Indradhanush Plan.
- It will make recommendations for appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and state-owned financial institutions.
- The Ministry of Finance takes the final decision on the appointments in consultation with the Prime Minister’s Office.
- Composition:
- Banks Board Bureau comprises the Chairman, three ex-officio members i.e Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises, Secretary of the Department of Financial Services and Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, and five expert members, two of which are from the private sector.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/banks-board-bureau-bbb/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About BBB:
- It was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body– based on the recommendations of the RBI-appointed Nayak Committee.
- It was part of the Indradhanush Plan.
- It will make recommendations for appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and state-owned financial institutions.
- The Ministry of Finance takes the final decision on the appointments in consultation with the Prime Minister’s Office.
- Composition:
- Banks Board Bureau comprises the Chairman, three ex-officio members i.e Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises, Secretary of the Department of Financial Services and Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, and five expert members, two of which are from the private sector.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/banks-board-bureau-bbb/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED.
- The Tribal Co-operative Marketing Federation of India (TRIFED) is a statutory body and was established in 2002.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. It was launched on 14th April, 2018 and seeks to improve tribal incomes through value addition of tribal products.
- S2: Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED): It is a statutory body and was established in August 1987. It has been registered as a National level Cooperative body by the Government of the country.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/van-dhan-vikas-kendras-initiative/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. It was launched on 14th April, 2018 and seeks to improve tribal incomes through value addition of tribal products.
- S2: Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED): It is a statutory body and was established in August 1987. It has been registered as a National level Cooperative body by the Government of the country.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/03/09/van-dhan-vikas-kendras-initiative/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Properties of Microwaves, consider the following statements:
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- Microwaves radiate electromagnetic energy with shorter wavelength.
- Microwaves are reflected by Ionosphere.
- Microwaves can pass through glass and plastic.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- What are Microwaves?
- Microwaves are defined as electromagnetic radiations with a frequency ranging between 300 MHz to 300 GHz while the wavelength ranges from 1 mm to around 30 cm.
- They fall between the infrared radiation and radio waves in the electromagnetic spectrum.
- Properties of microwaves:
- Metal surfaces reflect microwaves.
- Microwaves of certain frequencies are absorbed by water.
- Microwave transmission is affected by wave effects such as refraction, reflection, interference, and diffraction.
- S3: Microwaves can pass through glass and plastic.
- S2: Microwaves are not reflected by Ionosphere.
- S1: Microwaves are the waves that radiate electromagnetic energy with shorter wavelength.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/07/microwave-energy-likely-made-u-s-officials-ill/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- What are Microwaves?
- Microwaves are defined as electromagnetic radiations with a frequency ranging between 300 MHz to 300 GHz while the wavelength ranges from 1 mm to around 30 cm.
- They fall between the infrared radiation and radio waves in the electromagnetic spectrum.
- Properties of microwaves:
- Metal surfaces reflect microwaves.
- Microwaves of certain frequencies are absorbed by water.
- Microwave transmission is affected by wave effects such as refraction, reflection, interference, and diffraction.
- S3: Microwaves can pass through glass and plastic.
- S2: Microwaves are not reflected by Ionosphere.
- S1: Microwaves are the waves that radiate electromagnetic energy with shorter wavelength.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/07/microwave-energy-likely-made-u-s-officials-ill/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe words ‘Shalya tantra’ and ‘Shalakya tantra’ are mentioned in media in reference to:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The government has notified compulsory surgical procedures for PG students of Ayurveda.
- How far is surgery part of Ayurveda?
- There are two branches of surgery in Ayurveda:
- Shalya Tantra, which refers to general surgery, and Shalakya Tantra which pertains to surgeries related to the eyes, ears, nose, throat and teeth.
- All postgraduate students of Ayurveda have to study these courses, and some go on to specialise in these, and become Ayurveda surgeons.
- The 2016 regulations allow postgraduate students to specialise in Shalya Tantra, Shalakya Tantra, and Prasuti evam Stree Roga (Obstetrics and Gynecology), the three disciplines involving major surgical interventions.
- Students of these three disciplines are granted MS (Master in Surgery in Ayurveda) degrees.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/05/surgery-as-part-of-ayurveda/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The government has notified compulsory surgical procedures for PG students of Ayurveda.
- How far is surgery part of Ayurveda?
- There are two branches of surgery in Ayurveda:
- Shalya Tantra, which refers to general surgery, and Shalakya Tantra which pertains to surgeries related to the eyes, ears, nose, throat and teeth.
- All postgraduate students of Ayurveda have to study these courses, and some go on to specialise in these, and become Ayurveda surgeons.
- The 2016 regulations allow postgraduate students to specialise in Shalya Tantra, Shalakya Tantra, and Prasuti evam Stree Roga (Obstetrics and Gynecology), the three disciplines involving major surgical interventions.
- Students of these three disciplines are granted MS (Master in Surgery in Ayurveda) degrees.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/05/surgery-as-part-of-ayurveda/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
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- India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
- The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: Every solar panel which is made in India is assembled while all the material comes from China, Europe and some other countries. India is yet to develop semiconductor clusters.
- S2: Central Electricity Regulatory Commission determines solar power tariffs and regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government.
- Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) has a power-trading license, but it does not set solar power tariffs.
- SECI is a company of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
- It is established to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM).
- It is the only Central Public Sector Undertaking dedicated to the solar energy sector.
- Refer: https://www.seci.co.in/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: Every solar panel which is made in India is assembled while all the material comes from China, Europe and some other countries. India is yet to develop semiconductor clusters.
- S2: Central Electricity Regulatory Commission determines solar power tariffs and regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government.
- Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) has a power-trading license, but it does not set solar power tariffs.
- SECI is a company of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
- It is established to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM).
- It is the only Central Public Sector Undertaking dedicated to the solar energy sector.
- Refer: https://www.seci.co.in/
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