INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Committee on World Food Security (CFS):
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- It is an intergovernmental platform for all stakeholders to work together to ensure food security and nutrition for all.
- The Committee reports to the UN General Assembly through the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) and to FAO Conference.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: About the Committee on World Food Security (CFS):
- Established in 1974 as an intergovernmental body to serve as a forum in the United Nations System for review and follow-up of policies concerning world food security including production and physical and economic access to food.
- The Committee reports to the UN General Assembly through the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) and to FAO Conference.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: About the Committee on World Food Security (CFS):
- Established in 1974 as an intergovernmental body to serve as a forum in the United Nations System for review and follow-up of policies concerning world food security including production and physical and economic access to food.
- The Committee reports to the UN General Assembly through the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) and to FAO Conference.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law in India:
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- The anti-defection law is contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution.
- It was enacted by Parliament in 1985.
- The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2: The anti-defection law is contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution. It was enacted by Parliament in 1985. It came into effect on 1st March 1985.
- S3: The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Given that courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for this decision to be made.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/disqualification-of-7-nagaland-mlas/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2: The anti-defection law is contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution. It was enacted by Parliament in 1985. It came into effect on 1st March 1985.
- S3: The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Given that courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for this decision to be made.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/disqualification-of-7-nagaland-mlas/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsThe Tenth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- In 1985, the Rajiv Gandhi government brought a Bill to amend the Constitution and curb defection. The 10th Schedule of the Constitution, which contains the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution through this amendment.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/disqualification-of-7-nagaland-mlas/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- In 1985, the Rajiv Gandhi government brought a Bill to amend the Constitution and curb defection. The 10th Schedule of the Constitution, which contains the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution through this amendment.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/disqualification-of-7-nagaland-mlas/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
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- Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) was established by the Convention for the Pacific Settlement of International Disputes.
- India is a signatory to the 1951 United Nations Convention and 1967 Protocol Relating to the Status of Refugees.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: here the directive word is incorrect!!
- The PCA was established by the Convention for the Pacific Settlement of International Disputes, concluded at The Hague in 1899.
- The PCA was the first permanent intergovernmental organization to provide a forum for the resolution of international disputes through arbitration and other peaceful means.
- India is not party to, nor has it acceded to, the 1951 UN Refugee Convention on Refugees, nor the 1967 Protocol to that Convention.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/arbitration-conciliation-amendment-bill-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: here the directive word is incorrect!!
- The PCA was established by the Convention for the Pacific Settlement of International Disputes, concluded at The Hague in 1899.
- The PCA was the first permanent intergovernmental organization to provide a forum for the resolution of international disputes through arbitration and other peaceful means.
- India is not party to, nor has it acceded to, the 1951 UN Refugee Convention on Refugees, nor the 1967 Protocol to that Convention.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/arbitration-conciliation-amendment-bill-2021/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Singapore Convention on Mediation.
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- It is the first UN treaty to be named after Singapore.
- It settles disputes between the members at the Government level and does not involve corporate disputes.
- India is a signatory to the Convention.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Singapore Convention on Mediation will provide a more effective way for enforcing mediated settlements of corporate disputes involving businesses in India and other countries that are signatories to the Convention.
- Also known as the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation, this is also the first UN treaty to be named after Singapore.
- With the Convention in force, businesses seeking enforcement of a mediated settlement agreement across borders can do so by applying directly to the courts of countries that have signed and ratified the treaty, instead of having to enforce the settlement agreement as a contract in accordance with each country’s domestic process.
- As on September 1 (2020), the Convention has 53 signatories, including India, China and the U.S.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/arbitration-conciliation-amendment-bill-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Singapore Convention on Mediation will provide a more effective way for enforcing mediated settlements of corporate disputes involving businesses in India and other countries that are signatories to the Convention.
- Also known as the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation, this is also the first UN treaty to be named after Singapore.
- With the Convention in force, businesses seeking enforcement of a mediated settlement agreement across borders can do so by applying directly to the courts of countries that have signed and ratified the treaty, instead of having to enforce the settlement agreement as a contract in accordance with each country’s domestic process.
- As on September 1 (2020), the Convention has 53 signatories, including India, China and the U.S.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/arbitration-conciliation-amendment-bill-2021/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Doctrine of separation of power.
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- The principle of separation of powers is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution of India.
- It is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: What is the doctrine of Separation of Power?
- It refers to the model of governance where the executive, legislative and judicial powers are not concentrated in one body but instead divided into different branches.
- It is not explicitly mentioned in the constitution.
- Articles in the Constitution facilitating Separation of Powers are as follows:
- Article 50: State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive. This is for the purpose of ensuring the independence of the judiciary.
- Article 122 and 212: Validity of proceedings in Parliament and the Legislatures cannot be called into question in any Court. Also, Legislators enjoy certain privileges with regard to speech and anything said in the Parliament cannot be used against them.
- Judicial conduct of a Judge of the Supreme Court and the High Court cannot be discussed in the Parliament and the State Legislature, according to Article 121 and 211 of the Constitution.
- Articles 53 and 154 respectively, provide that the executive power of the Union and the State shall be vested with the President and the Governor and they enjoy immunity from civil and criminal liability.
- Article 361: The President or the Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/the-doctrine-of-separation-of-powers/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: What is the doctrine of Separation of Power?
- It refers to the model of governance where the executive, legislative and judicial powers are not concentrated in one body but instead divided into different branches.
- It is not explicitly mentioned in the constitution.
- Articles in the Constitution facilitating Separation of Powers are as follows:
- Article 50: State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive. This is for the purpose of ensuring the independence of the judiciary.
- Article 122 and 212: Validity of proceedings in Parliament and the Legislatures cannot be called into question in any Court. Also, Legislators enjoy certain privileges with regard to speech and anything said in the Parliament cannot be used against them.
- Judicial conduct of a Judge of the Supreme Court and the High Court cannot be discussed in the Parliament and the State Legislature, according to Article 121 and 211 of the Constitution.
- Articles 53 and 154 respectively, provide that the executive power of the Union and the State shall be vested with the President and the Governor and they enjoy immunity from civil and criminal liability.
- Article 361: The President or the Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/the-doctrine-of-separation-of-powers/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- In the first Lok Sabha, the largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party
- In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969
- In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: It is wrong because the Communist Party of India (CPI) was the single largest opposition party in the First general Election. CPI won in 16 seats.
- S2: It is wrong because in order to the receive the status of opposition party and Consequent Leader of Opposition Tag a party should secure 10% of the total strength of the House 1.e. 55 seats in the Lok Sabha. This is as per the Mavalakar Rule.
- Who is the Leader of Opposition?
- The LOP is leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house.
- It is a statutory post defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
- Significance of the office:
- LoP is referred to as the ‘shadow Prime Minister’.
- She/he is expected to be ready to take over if the government falls.
- The LoP also plays an important role in bringing cohesiveness and effectiveness to the opposition’s functioning in policy and legislative work.
- LoP plays a crucial role in bringing bipartisanship and neutrality to the appointments in institutions of accountability and transparency – CVC, CBI, CIC, Lokpal etc.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/leader-of-the-opposition/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: It is wrong because the Communist Party of India (CPI) was the single largest opposition party in the First general Election. CPI won in 16 seats.
- S2: It is wrong because in order to the receive the status of opposition party and Consequent Leader of Opposition Tag a party should secure 10% of the total strength of the House 1.e. 55 seats in the Lok Sabha. This is as per the Mavalakar Rule.
- Who is the Leader of Opposition?
- The LOP is leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house.
- It is a statutory post defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
- Significance of the office:
- LoP is referred to as the ‘shadow Prime Minister’.
- She/he is expected to be ready to take over if the government falls.
- The LoP also plays an important role in bringing cohesiveness and effectiveness to the opposition’s functioning in policy and legislative work.
- LoP plays a crucial role in bringing bipartisanship and neutrality to the appointments in institutions of accountability and transparency – CVC, CBI, CIC, Lokpal etc.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/leader-of-the-opposition/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Ebola virus was first discovered in 1976 near the Ebola River in the Democratic Republic of Congo.
- People can get the virus through sexual contact with someone who is sick with EVD.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Ebola virus was first discovered in 1976 near the Ebola River in what is now the Democratic Republic of Congo. Since then, the virus has been infecting people from time to time, leading to outbreaks in several African countries. Scientists do not know where Ebola virus comes from. However, based on the nature of similar viruses, they believe the virus is animal-borne, with bats or nonhuman primates (chimpanzees, apes, monkeys, etc.) being the most likely source. Infected animals carrying the virus can transmit it to other animals, like apes, monkeys, duikers and humans.
- The virus spreads to people initially through direct contact with the blood, body fluids and tissues of animals. Ebola virus then spreads to other people through direct contact with body fluids of a person who is sick with or has died from EVD. This can occur when a person touches these infected body fluids (or objects that are contaminated with them), and the virus gets in through broken skin or mucous membranes in the eyes, nose, or mouth. People can get the virus through sexual contact with someone who is sick with EVD, and also after recovery from EVD. The virus can persist in certain body fluids, like semen, after recovery from the illness.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Ebola virus was first discovered in 1976 near the Ebola River in what is now the Democratic Republic of Congo. Since then, the virus has been infecting people from time to time, leading to outbreaks in several African countries. Scientists do not know where Ebola virus comes from. However, based on the nature of similar viruses, they believe the virus is animal-borne, with bats or nonhuman primates (chimpanzees, apes, monkeys, etc.) being the most likely source. Infected animals carrying the virus can transmit it to other animals, like apes, monkeys, duikers and humans.
- The virus spreads to people initially through direct contact with the blood, body fluids and tissues of animals. Ebola virus then spreads to other people through direct contact with body fluids of a person who is sick with or has died from EVD. This can occur when a person touches these infected body fluids (or objects that are contaminated with them), and the virus gets in through broken skin or mucous membranes in the eyes, nose, or mouth. People can get the virus through sexual contact with someone who is sick with EVD, and also after recovery from EVD. The virus can persist in certain body fluids, like semen, after recovery from the illness.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe Farakka Barrage is built across which river?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Farakka Barrage is located in Murshidabad and Malda districts of West Bengal at about 300 km North of Kolkata. It is one of the largest barrage of its kind in the country having a Feeder Canal for a flow of 40000 cusec (1135 cumec) whose bed width is wider than that of Suez Canal.
- The Barrage was created by India in 1975 to divert water from the Ganges River system.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Farakka Barrage is located in Murshidabad and Malda districts of West Bengal at about 300 km North of Kolkata. It is one of the largest barrage of its kind in the country having a Feeder Canal for a flow of 40000 cusec (1135 cumec) whose bed width is wider than that of Suez Canal.
- The Barrage was created by India in 1975 to divert water from the Ganges River system.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Tholpavakoothu is a form of shadow puppetry that is practiced in Tamil Nadu, India.
- Kalaripayattu is an Indian martial art that originated in modern-day Kerala during 3nd century BC to the 2nd century AD.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Tholpavakoothu is a form of shadow puppetry that is practiced in Kerala, India.
- It is also called as shadow puppetry, Nizhalkkoothu and Olakkoothu.
- It is a traditional temple art in Kerala having its roots in Palakkad and neighbouring regions.
- It used to be performed in the Bhadrakali temples of Palakkad, telling tales from the Ramayana.
- Accompanying instruments include Ezhupara, Chenda and Maddalam.
- The artists have to undergo several years of rigorous training to master this art form.
- The puppetry is staged on a special structure in temple premises called Koothumadam.
- S2: Kalaripayattu is a Martial art which originated as a style in Kerala during 3nd century BC to the 2nd century AD.
- The word kalari first appears in Sangam literature to describe both a battlefield and combat arena.
- It is also considered to be one of the oldest fighting system in existence.
- It is now practiced in Kerala, in contiguous parts of Tamil Nadu.
- Kalaripayattu techniques include a combination of steps (Chuvatu) and postures (Vadivu). Chuvatu literally means ‘steps’, the basic steps of the martial arts. Vadivu literally means ‘postures’ or stances are the basic characteristics of Kalaripayattu training. Named after animals, they are usually eight in number.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Tholpavakoothu is a form of shadow puppetry that is practiced in Kerala, India.
- It is also called as shadow puppetry, Nizhalkkoothu and Olakkoothu.
- It is a traditional temple art in Kerala having its roots in Palakkad and neighbouring regions.
- It used to be performed in the Bhadrakali temples of Palakkad, telling tales from the Ramayana.
- Accompanying instruments include Ezhupara, Chenda and Maddalam.
- The artists have to undergo several years of rigorous training to master this art form.
- The puppetry is staged on a special structure in temple premises called Koothumadam.
- S2: Kalaripayattu is a Martial art which originated as a style in Kerala during 3nd century BC to the 2nd century AD.
- The word kalari first appears in Sangam literature to describe both a battlefield and combat arena.
- It is also considered to be one of the oldest fighting system in existence.
- It is now practiced in Kerala, in contiguous parts of Tamil Nadu.
- Kalaripayattu techniques include a combination of steps (Chuvatu) and postures (Vadivu). Chuvatu literally means ‘steps’, the basic steps of the martial arts. Vadivu literally means ‘postures’ or stances are the basic characteristics of Kalaripayattu training. Named after animals, they are usually eight in number.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2021/
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