INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Special Marriage Act, 1954:
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- This act allows for a special form of marriage for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries.
- As per this Act, a declaration in the form specified has to be signed by the applicants along with three witnesses.
- The succession rights to the property of persons married under this Act is governed by the Indian Succession Act.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act of the Parliament of India with provision for civil marriage (or “registered marriage”) for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries, irrespective of the religion or faith followed by either party.
- S2: A declaration in the form specified has to be signed by the applicants along with three witnesses. The Marriage Officer shall after being satisfied that all the conditions mentioned in Section 15 of the Act are met with, enter a certificate of the marriage in the Marriage Certificate Book in the Form specified in the Fifth Schedule and the parties to the marriage and three witnesses shall sign such certificate.
- S3: The succession rights to the property of persons married under this Act is governed by the Indian Succession Act.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/special-marriage-act/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act of the Parliament of India with provision for civil marriage (or “registered marriage”) for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries, irrespective of the religion or faith followed by either party.
- S2: A declaration in the form specified has to be signed by the applicants along with three witnesses. The Marriage Officer shall after being satisfied that all the conditions mentioned in Section 15 of the Act are met with, enter a certificate of the marriage in the Marriage Certificate Book in the Form specified in the Fifth Schedule and the parties to the marriage and three witnesses shall sign such certificate.
- S3: The succession rights to the property of persons married under this Act is governed by the Indian Succession Act.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/special-marriage-act/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsIf the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
(1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
(a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
(1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
(a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Emergency provisions of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
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- A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue
- Every resolution approving the proclamation of President’s Rule or its continuation can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a special majority.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- What is the President’s Rule?
- Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives the President of India the power to suspend state government and impose President’s rule of any state in the country if “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”.
- It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
- Implications:
- Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers.
- The state will fall under the direct control of the Union government, and the Governor will continue to be the head the proceedings, representing the President of India.
- Parliamentary Approval and Duration:
- S1: A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
- S2: The approval takes place through simple majority in either House, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
- Initially valid for six months, the President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
- Report of the Governor:
- Under Article 356, President’s Rule is imposed if the President, upon receipt of the report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
- Revocation:
- A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation.
- Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- What is the President’s Rule?
- Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives the President of India the power to suspend state government and impose President’s rule of any state in the country if “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”.
- It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
- Implications:
- Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers.
- The state will fall under the direct control of the Union government, and the Governor will continue to be the head the proceedings, representing the President of India.
- Parliamentary Approval and Duration:
- S1: A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
- S2: The approval takes place through simple majority in either House, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
- Initially valid for six months, the President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
- Report of the Governor:
- Under Article 356, President’s Rule is imposed if the President, upon receipt of the report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
- Revocation:
- A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation.
- Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The term “Lokpal” was coined by Dr. L.M.Singhvi in 1963.
- The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and eight Members out of whom 50% are Judicial Members.
- The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and Members is 5 years or till the age of 70 years.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The term Lokpal and Lokayukta were coined by Dr. L. M. Singhvi.
- S2: Lokpal is a multi-member body that consists of one chairperson and a maximum of 8 members. Out of the maximum eight members, half will be judicial members. Minimum fifty per cent of the Members will be from SC / ST / OBC / Minorities and women. The judicial member of the Lokpal should be either a former Judge of the Supreme Court or a former Chief Justice of a High Court.
- S3: The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and Members is 5 years or till the age of 70 years.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/lokpal-panel-minutes-need-not-be-disclosed/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The term Lokpal and Lokayukta were coined by Dr. L. M. Singhvi.
- S2: Lokpal is a multi-member body that consists of one chairperson and a maximum of 8 members. Out of the maximum eight members, half will be judicial members. Minimum fifty per cent of the Members will be from SC / ST / OBC / Minorities and women. The judicial member of the Lokpal should be either a former Judge of the Supreme Court or a former Chief Justice of a High Court.
- S3: The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and Members is 5 years or till the age of 70 years.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/lokpal-panel-minutes-need-not-be-disclosed/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Venezuela, country located at the southern end of South America.
- Columbia shares land borders with Venezuela.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Venezuela, country located at the northern end of South America.
- S2: Venezuela is bounded by the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean to the north, Guyana to the east, Brazil to the south, and Colombia to the southwest and west
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Venezuela, country located at the northern end of South America.
- S2: Venezuela is bounded by the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean to the north, Guyana to the east, Brazil to the south, and Colombia to the southwest and west
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsIn which one of the following States is Sessa Orchid Sanctuary is located?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Sessa Orchid Sanctuary:
- Located in Arunachal Pradesh.
- Notified in November 1989 under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- The Sanctuary is a natural home to more than 236 species of orchids, as well as a wealthy diversity of mushrooms and other medicinal plants.
- It is the only one of its kind in the country, where these flowering plants grow wild.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Sessa Orchid Sanctuary:
- Located in Arunachal Pradesh.
- Notified in November 1989 under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- The Sanctuary is a natural home to more than 236 species of orchids, as well as a wealthy diversity of mushrooms and other medicinal plants.
- It is the only one of its kind in the country, where these flowering plants grow wild.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Wildlife Protection Act 1972:
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- Wildlife Protection Act 1972 supports taxidermy.
- Management of zoos is one of the founding objective of this act.
- Blue whale falls in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: Young biologist from Andhra Pradesh recreates a blue whale from bones
- The blue whale falls in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Dozens of dead blue and sperm whales have washed ashore on the Nagayalanka, Machilipatnam, Kakinada, and Srikakulam coast in Andhra Pradesh since 2015. What caused their death is the subject of study.
- S2: Wildlife Protection Act 1972 (WLPA) prohibits the injuring, destroying and removing any part of a wild animals body
- In the case of wild birds and reptiles, the act also forbids disturbing or damaging their eggs
- WLPA is also against taxidermy, which is the preservation of a dead wild animal as a trophy, or in the form of rugs, preserved skins, antlers, horns, eggs, teeth, and nails
- The objectives are as follows:
- Prohibition of hunting
- Protection and management of wildlife habitats
- Establishment of protected areas
- Regulation and control of trade in parts and products derived from wildlife
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: Young biologist from Andhra Pradesh recreates a blue whale from bones
- The blue whale falls in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Dozens of dead blue and sperm whales have washed ashore on the Nagayalanka, Machilipatnam, Kakinada, and Srikakulam coast in Andhra Pradesh since 2015. What caused their death is the subject of study.
- S2: Wildlife Protection Act 1972 (WLPA) prohibits the injuring, destroying and removing any part of a wild animals body
- In the case of wild birds and reptiles, the act also forbids disturbing or damaging their eggs
- WLPA is also against taxidermy, which is the preservation of a dead wild animal as a trophy, or in the form of rugs, preserved skins, antlers, horns, eggs, teeth, and nails
- The objectives are as follows:
- Prohibition of hunting
- Protection and management of wildlife habitats
- Establishment of protected areas
- Regulation and control of trade in parts and products derived from wildlife
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsAccording to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
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- Gharial
- Indian wild ass
- Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- All of these are protected scheduled animals under the Wildlife Act.
- http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife2s1.pdf
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- All of these are protected scheduled animals under the Wildlife Act.
- http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife2s1.pdf
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- All natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere.
- An earthquake’s point of initial rupture is called its hypocenter.
- According to the present zoning map, both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh falls under the seismic zone V.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Stat1: An earthquake is the shaking of the surface of the Earth resulting from a sudden release of energy in the Earth’s lithosphere that creates seismic waves and all natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere.
- Stat2: An earthquake’s point of initial rupture is called its hypocenter or focus. The epicenter is the point at ground level directly above the hypocenter.
- Stat3: Geographical statistics of India show that almost 54% of the land is vulnerable to earthquakes. The latest version of seismic zoning map of India given in the earthquake resistant design code of India assigns four levels of seismicity for India in terms of zone factors. In other words, the earthquake zoning map of India divides India into 4 seismic zones (Zone 2, 3, 4 and 5) unlike its previous version, which consisted of five or six zones for the country. According to the present zoning map, Zone 5 expects the highest level of seismicity whereas Zone 2 is associated with the lowest level of seismicity.
- Sadiya earthquake:
- Scientists have found the first geological evidence of an earthquake at Himebasti Village on the border of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, documented by historians as Sadiya earthquake.
- Sadiya earthquake is recorded to have caused massive destruction in the region and almost destroyed the town in 1697 CE.
- This finding could contribute to a seismic hazard map of the eastern Himalaya, which can facilitate construction and planning in the region.
Refer: Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Stat1: An earthquake is the shaking of the surface of the Earth resulting from a sudden release of energy in the Earth’s lithosphere that creates seismic waves and all natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere.
- Stat2: An earthquake’s point of initial rupture is called its hypocenter or focus. The epicenter is the point at ground level directly above the hypocenter.
- Stat3: Geographical statistics of India show that almost 54% of the land is vulnerable to earthquakes. The latest version of seismic zoning map of India given in the earthquake resistant design code of India assigns four levels of seismicity for India in terms of zone factors. In other words, the earthquake zoning map of India divides India into 4 seismic zones (Zone 2, 3, 4 and 5) unlike its previous version, which consisted of five or six zones for the country. According to the present zoning map, Zone 5 expects the highest level of seismicity whereas Zone 2 is associated with the lowest level of seismicity.
- Sadiya earthquake:
- Scientists have found the first geological evidence of an earthquake at Himebasti Village on the border of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, documented by historians as Sadiya earthquake.
- Sadiya earthquake is recorded to have caused massive destruction in the region and almost destroyed the town in 1697 CE.
- This finding could contribute to a seismic hazard map of the eastern Himalaya, which can facilitate construction and planning in the region.
Refer: Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Dams Location (Country)
- Shahtoot dam : Afghanistan
- Salma dam : Iran
- Tipaimukh dam : Bangladesh
Which of the given above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Tipaimukh Dam is a proposed embankment dam on the river Barak in Manipur state India, first commissioned in 1983. The purpose of the dam is flood control and hydroelectric power generation.
- Shahtoot dam:
- Signing ceremony of MoU for the construction of the Lalandar “Shatoot” Dam in Afghanistan.
- The project is a part of the New Development Partnership between India and Afghanistan.
- The dam would come upon the Maidan river tributary of Kabul river.
- This is the second major dam being built by India in Afghanistan, after the India – Afghanistan Friendship Dam [Salma Dam], which was inaugurated in June 2016.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Tipaimukh Dam is a proposed embankment dam on the river Barak in Manipur state India, first commissioned in 1983. The purpose of the dam is flood control and hydroelectric power generation.
- Shahtoot dam:
- Signing ceremony of MoU for the construction of the Lalandar “Shatoot” Dam in Afghanistan.
- The project is a part of the New Development Partnership between India and Afghanistan.
- The dam would come upon the Maidan river tributary of Kabul river.
- This is the second major dam being built by India in Afghanistan, after the India – Afghanistan Friendship Dam [Salma Dam], which was inaugurated in June 2016.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/10/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-february-2021/










