INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
-
Click on – ‘Start Quiz’ button
-
Solve Questions
-
Click on ‘Quiz Summary’ button
-
Click on ‘Finish Quiz’ button
-
Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
-
New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- The first session after each general election and the first session of every fiscal year is addressed by the President of India.
- Amendments can be moved to the Motion of Thanks in such form as may be considered appropriate by the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: The first session after each general election and the first session of every fiscal year is addressed by the president. In this address, the president outlines the policies and programmes of the government in the preceding year and ensuing year.
- S2: Amendments to the “Motion of Thanks”:
- Notices of amendments to Motion of Thanks on the President’s Address can be tabled after the President has delivered his Address.
- Amendments may refer to matters contained in the Address as well as to matters, in the opinion of the member, the Address has failed to mention.
- Amendments can be moved to the Motion of Thanks in such form as may be considered appropriate by the Speaker.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/motion-of-thanks-to-presidents-address-4/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: The first session after each general election and the first session of every fiscal year is addressed by the president. In this address, the president outlines the policies and programmes of the government in the preceding year and ensuing year.
- S2: Amendments to the “Motion of Thanks”:
- Notices of amendments to Motion of Thanks on the President’s Address can be tabled after the President has delivered his Address.
- Amendments may refer to matters contained in the Address as well as to matters, in the opinion of the member, the Address has failed to mention.
- Amendments can be moved to the Motion of Thanks in such form as may be considered appropriate by the Speaker.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/motion-of-thanks-to-presidents-address-4/
-
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC), consider the following statements:
-
- It is a United Nations body whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world.
- The UNHRC has 47 members elected for three-year terms on a regional group basis.
- The headquarters of UNHRC is in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is a United Nations body whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world. The UNHRC has 47 members elected for staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis. The headquarters of UNHRC is in Geneva, Switzerland.
- Composition:
- The UNHRC has 47 members serving at any time with elections held to fill up seats every year, based on allocations to regions across the world to ensure geographical representation.
- Each elected member serves for a term of three years.
- Countries are disallowed from occupying a seat for more than two consecutive terms.
- Functions:
- The UNHRC passes non-binding resolutions on human rights issues through a periodic review of all 193 UN member states called the Universal Periodic Review (UPR).
- It oversees expert investigation of violations in specific countries (Special Procedures).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/un-human-rights-council-4/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is a United Nations body whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world. The UNHRC has 47 members elected for staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis. The headquarters of UNHRC is in Geneva, Switzerland.
- Composition:
- The UNHRC has 47 members serving at any time with elections held to fill up seats every year, based on allocations to regions across the world to ensure geographical representation.
- Each elected member serves for a term of three years.
- Countries are disallowed from occupying a seat for more than two consecutive terms.
- Functions:
- The UNHRC passes non-binding resolutions on human rights issues through a periodic review of all 193 UN member states called the Universal Periodic Review (UPR).
- It oversees expert investigation of violations in specific countries (Special Procedures).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/un-human-rights-council-4/
-
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsAmong the following, which one is the largest producer of tea in the world in the last few years?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Tea production in India:
- India accounts for 14% of global tea exports and nearly 20% of the tea produced in the country is exported, according to Tea Board India.
- India is:
- The largest consumer of tea in the world.
- The second largest producer of tea in the world.
- China remained the largest tea producing country with an output of 1.9 million tonnes, accounting for more than 38 percent of the world total.
- The fourth largest exporter of tea in the world.
- In 2019, China exported approximately 2.02 billion U.S. dollars’ worth of tea, making it the leading exporter of tea
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/assam-chah-bagichar-dhan-puraskar-mela-scheme/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Tea production in India:
- India accounts for 14% of global tea exports and nearly 20% of the tea produced in the country is exported, according to Tea Board India.
- India is:
- The largest consumer of tea in the world.
- The second largest producer of tea in the world.
- China remained the largest tea producing country with an output of 1.9 million tonnes, accounting for more than 38 percent of the world total.
- The fourth largest exporter of tea in the world.
- In 2019, China exported approximately 2.02 billion U.S. dollars’ worth of tea, making it the leading exporter of tea
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/assam-chah-bagichar-dhan-puraskar-mela-scheme/
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsThe Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- NITI is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.
- It was established in 2015, by the Government of India, to replace the Planning Commission which followed a top-down model.’
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- NITI is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.
- It was established in 2015, by the Government of India, to replace the Planning Commission which followed a top-down model.’
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsHow is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
-
- The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
- The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
- The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
- Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
- Source: http://envfor.nic.in/rules-regulations/national-green-tribunal-ngt
- http://cpcb.nic.in/Introduction/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
- The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
- Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
- Source: http://envfor.nic.in/rules-regulations/national-green-tribunal-ngt
- http://cpcb.nic.in/Introduction/
-
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary:
-
- It is the second largest wildlife sanctuary in Kerala.
- This sanctuary is now an integral part of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve.
- The vegetation in this Wildlife Sanctuary is predominantly of the south Indian moist deciduous teak forests.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S2: Established in 1973, the sanctuary is now an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is bounded by protected area network of Nagarhole and Bandipur of Karnataka in the northeast, and on the southeast by Mudumalai of Tamil Nadu.
- S1: Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is the second largest wildlife sanctuary in Kerala.
- S3: It is part of the Deccan Plateau and the vegetation is predominantly of the south Indian moist deciduous teak forests. Also, the sanctuary has pastures of the west-coast semi-evergreen trees.
- About the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary:
- The sanctuary is a component of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (5,520 sq km) and is a vital component of the Elephant Reserve No. 7 of South India.
- It is the only sanctuary of Kerala where sighting of four-horned antelope has been reported.
- Presence of Egyptian vulture, Himalayan griffon, and Cinereous vultures are also reported in the sanctuary and the two species of vultures, red-headed and white-backed vultures, once common in Kerala, are now restricted to the Wayanad plateau.
- The Nagarhole-Bandipur-Mudumalai-Wayanad forest complex is also one of the most important tiger habitats in the country. Recent estimation of tigers, using camera traps, has indicated the presence of 79 tigers in the sanctuary.
- The forests of the wildlife division form the major catchments for the tributaries of the Kabani river system.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/ecosensitive-zones-esz/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S2: Established in 1973, the sanctuary is now an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is bounded by protected area network of Nagarhole and Bandipur of Karnataka in the northeast, and on the southeast by Mudumalai of Tamil Nadu.
- S1: Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is the second largest wildlife sanctuary in Kerala.
- S3: It is part of the Deccan Plateau and the vegetation is predominantly of the south Indian moist deciduous teak forests. Also, the sanctuary has pastures of the west-coast semi-evergreen trees.
- About the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary:
- The sanctuary is a component of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (5,520 sq km) and is a vital component of the Elephant Reserve No. 7 of South India.
- It is the only sanctuary of Kerala where sighting of four-horned antelope has been reported.
- Presence of Egyptian vulture, Himalayan griffon, and Cinereous vultures are also reported in the sanctuary and the two species of vultures, red-headed and white-backed vultures, once common in Kerala, are now restricted to the Wayanad plateau.
- The Nagarhole-Bandipur-Mudumalai-Wayanad forest complex is also one of the most important tiger habitats in the country. Recent estimation of tigers, using camera traps, has indicated the presence of 79 tigers in the sanctuary.
- The forests of the wildlife division form the major catchments for the tributaries of the Kabani river system.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/ecosensitive-zones-esz/
-
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are areas notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-Sensitive Zones”.
- An ESZ could go up to 500 sqm around a protected area as provided in the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: What are the Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZs)?
- S1: Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFAs) are areas notified by the MoEFCC around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
- The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create some kind of “shock absorbers” to the protected areas by regulating and managing the activities around such areas.
- They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
- S2: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-Sensitive Zones”.
- S3: An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometres around a protected area as provided in the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002.
- Moreover, in the case where sensitive corridors, connectivity and ecologically important patches, crucial for landscape linkage, are beyond 10 km width, these should be included in the ESZs.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/ecosensitive-zones-esz/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: What are the Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZs)?
- S1: Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFAs) are areas notified by the MoEFCC around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
- The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create some kind of “shock absorbers” to the protected areas by regulating and managing the activities around such areas.
- They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
- S2: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-Sensitive Zones”.
- S3: An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometres around a protected area as provided in the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002.
- Moreover, in the case where sensitive corridors, connectivity and ecologically important patches, crucial for landscape linkage, are beyond 10 km width, these should be included in the ESZs.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/ecosensitive-zones-esz/
-
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsRegarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements:
-
- The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
- Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: Land revenue was the chief source of income. Land was divided into four categories for purposes of assessment, wet land, dry land, orchards and woods. Usually the share was one sixth of the produce. Land revenue could be paid in cash or kind. The rates varied according to the type of the crops, soil, method of irrigation, etc. So, 1 is clearly correct.
- S2: Besides land tax, many professional taxes were also imposed. There were on shopkeepers, farm servants, workmen, posters, shoemakers, musicians etc. There was also a tax on property. Grazing and house taxes were also imposed. Commercial taxes consisted of levies, duties and customs on manufactured articles of trade were also levied. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax, which means 2 is correct.
- Context: Vijayanagara becomes Karnataka’s 31st district:
- Karnataka has got its 31st district with the State government issuing an official gazette notification carving out Vijayanagara district from the mine-rich Ballari district.
Source: UPSC CSE 2016
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-february-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: Land revenue was the chief source of income. Land was divided into four categories for purposes of assessment, wet land, dry land, orchards and woods. Usually the share was one sixth of the produce. Land revenue could be paid in cash or kind. The rates varied according to the type of the crops, soil, method of irrigation, etc. So, 1 is clearly correct.
- S2: Besides land tax, many professional taxes were also imposed. There were on shopkeepers, farm servants, workmen, posters, shoemakers, musicians etc. There was also a tax on property. Grazing and house taxes were also imposed. Commercial taxes consisted of levies, duties and customs on manufactured articles of trade were also levied. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax, which means 2 is correct.
- Context: Vijayanagara becomes Karnataka’s 31st district:
- Karnataka has got its 31st district with the State government issuing an official gazette notification carving out Vijayanagara district from the mine-rich Ballari district.
Source: UPSC CSE 2016
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/09/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-february-2021/
-
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the following statements :
-
- It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.
- It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
- It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons is the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC). It is not under EU. So, 1 is wrong.
- Statement 2 and 3: The OPCW Member States share the collective goal of preventing chemistry from ever again being used for warfare, thereby strengthening international security.
- To this end, the Convention contains four key provisions:
- destroying all existing chemical weapons under international verification by the OPCW;
- monitoring chemical industry to prevent new weapons from re-emerging;
- providing assistance and protection to States Parties against chemical threats; and
- Fostering international cooperation to strengthen implementation of the Convention and promote the peaceful use of chemistry.
Source: UPSC CSE 2016
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons is the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC). It is not under EU. So, 1 is wrong.
- Statement 2 and 3: The OPCW Member States share the collective goal of preventing chemistry from ever again being used for warfare, thereby strengthening international security.
- To this end, the Convention contains four key provisions:
- destroying all existing chemical weapons under international verification by the OPCW;
- monitoring chemical industry to prevent new weapons from re-emerging;
- providing assistance and protection to States Parties against chemical threats; and
- Fostering international cooperation to strengthen implementation of the Convention and promote the peaceful use of chemistry.
Source: UPSC CSE 2016
-
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
-
- The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
- The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Chief Secretary is not appointed by the governor but by the CM.
- The Chief Secretary has no fixed tenure.
- The decision to appoint the chief secretary is a power exercised by the CM but only executed in the name of the governor.
Source: UPSC CSE 2016
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Chief Secretary is not appointed by the governor but by the CM.
- The Chief Secretary has no fixed tenure.
- The decision to appoint the chief secretary is a power exercised by the CM but only executed in the name of the governor.
Source: UPSC CSE 2016
-








