INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The State Election Commission is a Constitutional Authority.
- State Election Commissioner cannot be removed by the Governor, though appointed by him.
- State governments should abide by orders of the State Election Commission during the conduct of the panchayat and municipal elections.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: About the State Election Commission:
- The Constitution of India vests in the State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities (Articles 243K, 243ZA).
- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
- As per article 243(C3) the Governor, when so requested by the State Election Commission, make available to the State Election Commission such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the SEC.
- The ECI and SECs have a similar mandate; do they also have similar powers?
- The provisions of Article 243K of the Constitution, which provides for setting up of SECs, are almost identical to those of Article 324 related to the EC. In other words, the SECs enjoy the same status as the EC.
- In Kishan Singh Tomar vs Municipal Corporation of the City of Ahmedabad case, the Supreme Court directed that state governments should abide by orders of the SECs during the conduct of the panchayat and municipal elections, just like they follow the instructions of the EC during Assembly and Parliament polls.
- How far can courts intervene?
- Courts cannot interfere in the conduct of polls to local bodies and self-government institutions once the electoral process has been set in motion.
- Article 243-O of the Constitution bars interference in poll matters set in motion by the SECs; Article 329 bars interference in such matters set in motion by the EC.
- Only after the polls are over can the SECs’ decisions or conduct be questioned through an election petition.
- These powers enjoyed by the SECs are the same as those by the EC.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/hc-rejects-sec-order-restraining-minister/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: About the State Election Commission:
- The Constitution of India vests in the State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities (Articles 243K, 243ZA).
- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
- As per article 243(C3) the Governor, when so requested by the State Election Commission, make available to the State Election Commission such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the SEC.
- The ECI and SECs have a similar mandate; do they also have similar powers?
- The provisions of Article 243K of the Constitution, which provides for setting up of SECs, are almost identical to those of Article 324 related to the EC. In other words, the SECs enjoy the same status as the EC.
- In Kishan Singh Tomar vs Municipal Corporation of the City of Ahmedabad case, the Supreme Court directed that state governments should abide by orders of the SECs during the conduct of the panchayat and municipal elections, just like they follow the instructions of the EC during Assembly and Parliament polls.
- How far can courts intervene?
- Courts cannot interfere in the conduct of polls to local bodies and self-government institutions once the electoral process has been set in motion.
- Article 243-O of the Constitution bars interference in poll matters set in motion by the SECs; Article 329 bars interference in such matters set in motion by the EC.
- Only after the polls are over can the SECs’ decisions or conduct be questioned through an election petition.
- These powers enjoyed by the SECs are the same as those by the EC.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/hc-rejects-sec-order-restraining-minister/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1:The FSSAI Act took 8 older acts into one umbrella including Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI/
- S2: the Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is appointed by Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India. It is not under the charge of Director General of Health services.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/fssai-caps-trans-fatty-acids-in-food/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1:The FSSAI Act took 8 older acts into one umbrella including Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI/
- S2: the Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is appointed by Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India. It is not under the charge of Director General of Health services.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/fssai-caps-trans-fatty-acids-in-food/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Trans-fats.
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- Trans-fat is a type of unsaturated fat.
- Tran’s fats also occur naturally.
- Tran’s fats give food a desirable taste and texture.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Trans fat, also called trans-unsaturated fatty acids or trans fatty acids, is a type of unsaturated fat that occurs in small amounts in nature, but became widely produced industrially from vegetable fats starting in the 1950s for use in margarine, snack food, packaged baked goods, and for frying fast food.
- Naturally-occurring trans fats are produced in the gut of some animals and foods made from these animals (e.g., milk and meat products) may contain small quantities of these fats. Artificial trans fats (or trans fatty acids) are created in an industrial process that adds hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid.
- Trans fats are easy to use, inexpensive to produce and last a long time. Trans fats give foods a desirable taste and texture.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/fssai-caps-trans-fatty-acids-in-food/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Trans fat, also called trans-unsaturated fatty acids or trans fatty acids, is a type of unsaturated fat that occurs in small amounts in nature, but became widely produced industrially from vegetable fats starting in the 1950s for use in margarine, snack food, packaged baked goods, and for frying fast food.
- Naturally-occurring trans fats are produced in the gut of some animals and foods made from these animals (e.g., milk and meat products) may contain small quantities of these fats. Artificial trans fats (or trans fatty acids) are created in an industrial process that adds hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid.
- Trans fats are easy to use, inexpensive to produce and last a long time. Trans fats give foods a desirable taste and texture.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/fssai-caps-trans-fatty-acids-in-food/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- RBI carries out the Open market operations (OMO) through commercial banks and does not directly deal with the public.
- Open market operation (OMO) is one of the quantitative monetary policy tools which is employed by the central bank of India.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: What is OMO?
- Open market operations is the sale and purchase of government securities and treasury bills by RBI or the central bank of the country.
- The objective of OMO is to regulate the money supply in the economy.
- It is one of the quantitative monetary policy tools.
- How is it done?
- RBI carries out the OMO through commercial banks and does not directly deal with the public.
- OMOs vs liquidity:
- When the central bank wants to infuse liquidity into the monetary system, it will buy government securities in the open market. This way it provides commercial banks with liquidity.
- In contrast, when it sells securities, it curbs liquidity. Thus, the central bank indirectly controls the money supply and influences short-term interest rates.
- RBI employs two kinds of OMOs:
- Outright Purchase (PEMO) – this is permanent and involves the outright selling or buying of government securities.
- Repurchase Agreement (REPO) – this is short-term and are subject to repurchase.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/open-market-operations/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: What is OMO?
- Open market operations is the sale and purchase of government securities and treasury bills by RBI or the central bank of the country.
- The objective of OMO is to regulate the money supply in the economy.
- It is one of the quantitative monetary policy tools.
- How is it done?
- RBI carries out the OMO through commercial banks and does not directly deal with the public.
- OMOs vs liquidity:
- When the central bank wants to infuse liquidity into the monetary system, it will buy government securities in the open market. This way it provides commercial banks with liquidity.
- In contrast, when it sells securities, it curbs liquidity. Thus, the central bank indirectly controls the money supply and influences short-term interest rates.
- RBI employs two kinds of OMOs:
- Outright Purchase (PEMO) – this is permanent and involves the outright selling or buying of government securities.
- Repurchase Agreement (REPO) – this is short-term and are subject to repurchase.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/open-market-operations/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to India economy, consider the following :
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- Bank rate
- Open market operations
- Public debt
- Public revenue
Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Public debt and Public revenue are matters falling under Fiscal policy. The Ministry of Finance handles these subjects.
- Bank rate and OMOs fall within the jurisdiction of RBI’s monetary policy.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/open-market-operations/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Public debt and Public revenue are matters falling under Fiscal policy. The Ministry of Finance handles these subjects.
- Bank rate and OMOs fall within the jurisdiction of RBI’s monetary policy.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/open-market-operations/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
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- It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
- It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
- It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: It decides the repo rates, CRR, SLR etc. It replaced the earlier system of policy rate veto by the RBI governor.
- S2: It consists of six members (RBI Governor, Deputy Gov RBI, One RBI officer and three members nominated by the government), and they hold office for a period of four years.
- S3: The Governor of the RBI is the ex-officio Chairperson of MPC.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/open-market-operations/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: It decides the repo rates, CRR, SLR etc. It replaced the earlier system of policy rate veto by the RBI governor.
- S2: It consists of six members (RBI Governor, Deputy Gov RBI, One RBI officer and three members nominated by the government), and they hold office for a period of four years.
- S3: The Governor of the RBI is the ex-officio Chairperson of MPC.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/open-market-operations/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Option A: This would help control imports and thus the depreciation of rupee.
- Option B: Masala bonds were brought in to curb slide of rupee since the borrowing is rupee-dominated and does not put pressure on our currency through borrowing dollars.
- Option C: Easing ECBs will lead to higher borrowing abroad and would temporarily bridge the deficit of forex in India preventing the slide of rupee.
- Option D: An expansionary monetary policy may lead to lower interest rates and thus flight of foreign capital from India (which would get better returns abroad). Also, such a policy may fuel inflation and higher imports through higher government spending and further cause slide of rupee. So, D is the answer.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/open-market-operations/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Option A: This would help control imports and thus the depreciation of rupee.
- Option B: Masala bonds were brought in to curb slide of rupee since the borrowing is rupee-dominated and does not put pressure on our currency through borrowing dollars.
- Option C: Easing ECBs will lead to higher borrowing abroad and would temporarily bridge the deficit of forex in India preventing the slide of rupee.
- Option D: An expansionary monetary policy may lead to lower interest rates and thus flight of foreign capital from India (which would get better returns abroad). Also, such a policy may fuel inflation and higher imports through higher government spending and further cause slide of rupee. So, D is the answer.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/open-market-operations/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Hope mission:
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- It is the first interplanetary mission for the Arab World.
- The mission design, development, and operations are led by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About the Hope mission:
- The Hope mission is a Mars orbiter spacecraft, which will study the thin atmosphere of Mars.
- The mission is officially named the Emirates Mars Mission (EMM) and the orbiter has been named Hope or ‘Al Amal’.
- It is the first interplanetary mission for the Arab World.
- The mission design, development, and operations are led by the Mohammed bin Rashid Space Centre (MBRSC). The spacecraft was developed by MBRSC and the Laboratory for Atmospheric and Space Physics (LASP) at the University of Colorado Boulder, with support from Arizona State University (ASU) and the University of California, Berkeley. It was assembled at the University of Colorado.
- The Hope orbiter:
- The Hope probe has a mission life of one Martian year, which is almost two Earth years.
- The three main objectives of the Hope probe are:
- to understand the climate dynamics and global weather map of Mars by studying the lower atmosphere of Mars.
- to explain how the weather of Mars affects the escape of hydrogen and oxygen, by correlating conditions in the lower and upper atmosphere.
- to understand the presence and variability of hydrogen and oxygen in the upper atmosphere, and why Mars is losing these gases to space.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/hope-uaes-first-mission-to-mars-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About the Hope mission:
- The Hope mission is a Mars orbiter spacecraft, which will study the thin atmosphere of Mars.
- The mission is officially named the Emirates Mars Mission (EMM) and the orbiter has been named Hope or ‘Al Amal’.
- It is the first interplanetary mission for the Arab World.
- The mission design, development, and operations are led by the Mohammed bin Rashid Space Centre (MBRSC). The spacecraft was developed by MBRSC and the Laboratory for Atmospheric and Space Physics (LASP) at the University of Colorado Boulder, with support from Arizona State University (ASU) and the University of California, Berkeley. It was assembled at the University of Colorado.
- The Hope orbiter:
- The Hope probe has a mission life of one Martian year, which is almost two Earth years.
- The three main objectives of the Hope probe are:
- to understand the climate dynamics and global weather map of Mars by studying the lower atmosphere of Mars.
- to explain how the weather of Mars affects the escape of hydrogen and oxygen, by correlating conditions in the lower and upper atmosphere.
- to understand the presence and variability of hydrogen and oxygen in the upper atmosphere, and why Mars is losing these gases to space.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/hope-uaes-first-mission-to-mars-2/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to India’s Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, which of the following statements are correct?
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- It is spread across three districts of Uttarakhand.
- This Biosphere Reserve includes the catchment of Yamuna River and its tributaries.
- There is no human habitation within the two core zones (Nanda Devi National Park and Valley of Flowers National Park).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S3: There is no human habitation within the two core zones (Nanda Devi National Park and Valley of Flowers National Park), but there are 47 villages in the buffer zone and 33 villages are in the transition zone (Dobriyal et al., 2017; Badola et al., 2017). https://worldheritageoutlook.iucn.org/explore-sites/wdpaid/16793
- S2: There are two core zones, namely Nanda Devi National Park (NDNP) and Valley of Flower National Park (VoFNP). Both the National Parks are UNESCO World Heritage Sites. These Parks includes the catchment of Alaknanda River and its tributaries including Rishi Ganga, Dhauli Ganga, Pushwapati and Khiro Ganga.
- S1: Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (NDBR), the second biosphere reserve of the country, is spread across three districts of Uttarakhand Chamoli, Pithoragarh and Bageshwar. With an area of over 6407.03 km2, NDBR is divided into two distinct zones, namely, the core zone and the outer buffer zone.
- Source: https://wii.gov.in/nmcg/protected-areas-along-ganga/nandadevi-biosphere-reserve
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/what-is-a-glacier-outburst-flood-and-why-does-it-occur/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S3: There is no human habitation within the two core zones (Nanda Devi National Park and Valley of Flowers National Park), but there are 47 villages in the buffer zone and 33 villages are in the transition zone (Dobriyal et al., 2017; Badola et al., 2017). https://worldheritageoutlook.iucn.org/explore-sites/wdpaid/16793
- S2: There are two core zones, namely Nanda Devi National Park (NDNP) and Valley of Flower National Park (VoFNP). Both the National Parks are UNESCO World Heritage Sites. These Parks includes the catchment of Alaknanda River and its tributaries including Rishi Ganga, Dhauli Ganga, Pushwapati and Khiro Ganga.
- S1: Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (NDBR), the second biosphere reserve of the country, is spread across three districts of Uttarakhand Chamoli, Pithoragarh and Bageshwar. With an area of over 6407.03 km2, NDBR is divided into two distinct zones, namely, the core zone and the outer buffer zone.
- Source: https://wii.gov.in/nmcg/protected-areas-along-ganga/nandadevi-biosphere-reserve
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/what-is-a-glacier-outburst-flood-and-why-does-it-occur/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to River Dhauliganga, consider the following statements:
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- It is a right tributary of the Alaknanda.
- River Dhauliganga arises on the Zemu glacier.
- Dhauliganga finally flows into the Alaknanda at Vishnuprayag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Dhauliganga is a left tributary of the Alaknanda, the left headwater of the Ganges, in the Himalayas in the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
- S2: Dhauliganga arises on the Raikana glacier at an altitude of 4700 m.
- S3: Dhauliganga finally flows into the Alaknanda at Vishnuprayag. It has a length of 82 km.
- Dhauliganga:
- Originating from Vasudhara Tal, perhaps the largest glacial lake in Uttarakhand, the Dhauliganga flows in a meandering course, which takes it through the Nanda Devi National Park.
- The river merges with the Alaknanda at Vishnuprayag.
- It is one of the several tributaries of the Ganga.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-february-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Dhauliganga is a left tributary of the Alaknanda, the left headwater of the Ganges, in the Himalayas in the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
- S2: Dhauliganga arises on the Raikana glacier at an altitude of 4700 m.
- S3: Dhauliganga finally flows into the Alaknanda at Vishnuprayag. It has a length of 82 km.
- Dhauliganga:
- Originating from Vasudhara Tal, perhaps the largest glacial lake in Uttarakhand, the Dhauliganga flows in a meandering course, which takes it through the Nanda Devi National Park.
- The river merges with the Alaknanda at Vishnuprayag.
- It is one of the several tributaries of the Ganga.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/02/08/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-february-2021/
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