INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS ( 31 December 2020) REVISION THROUGH MCQS

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• Context:
  • The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) has sought the inclusion of tourism in the concurrent list to enable the Centre and States to effectively regulate the sector as well as frame policies for growth.
• Seventh Schedule:
  • The seventh schedule under Article 246 of the constitution deals with the division of powers between the union and the states.
  • It contains three lists- Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
  • The union list details the subjects on which Parliament may make laws while the state list details those under the purview of state legislatures.
  • The concurrent list on the other hand has subjects in which both Parliament and state legislatures have jurisdiction. However the Constitution provides federal supremacy to Parliament on concurrent list items in case of a conflict.
• The commission on Centre-State Relations, headed by Justice M M Punchhi, in 2010 recommended that the Union should only transfer those subjects into the Concurrent List, which are central to achieving demonstrable national interest.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/seventh-schedule/

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• What is a recusal?
  • Judicial disqualification, referred to as recusal, is the act of abstaining from participation in an official action such as a legal proceeding due to a conflict of interest of the presiding court official or administrative officer.

• General Grounds for Recusal:
  • Motions to recuse or disqualify judges and other adjudicators have been made for all sorts of reasons.
  • Most commonly such motions are predicated upon a claim that the judge is biased in favour of one party, or against another, or that a reasonable objective observer would think he might be.
  • But such motions are also made on many other grounds, including the challenged judge’s:
    • Interest in the subject matter, or relationship with someone who is interested in it.
    • Background or experience, such as the judge’s prior work as a lawyer.
    • Personal knowledge about the parties or the facts of the case.
    • Ex parte communications with lawyers or non-lawyers.
    • Rulings, comments or conduct.
  • Are there any laws in this regard?
    • There are no definite rules on recusals by Judges
    • S1: There are no written rules on the recusal of judges from hearing cases listed before them in constitutional courts. It is left to the discretion of a judge.
    • S2: The reasons for recusal are not disclosed in an order of the court. Some judges orally convey to the lawyers involved in the case their reasons for recusal, many do not. Some explain the reasons in their order. The decision rests on the conscience of the judge.
    • What has the Supreme Court said on this?
      • Justice J. Chelameswar in his opinion in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015) held that “Where a judge has a pecuniary interest, no further inquiry as to whether there was a ‘real danger’ or ‘reasonable suspicion’ of bias is required to be undertaken

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/recusal-of-judges/

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

• The cells of the immune system can be categorized as lymphocytes (T-cells, B-cells and NK cells), neutrophils, and monocytes/macrophages. These are all types of white blood cells.
• Lymphocytes originate from stem cells in the bone marrow; these stem cells divide continuously, releasing immature lymphocytes into the bloodstream. Some of these cells travel to the thymus, where they multiply and differentiate into T lymphocytes, or T cells. The T stands for thymus-derived, referring to the fact that these cells mature in the thymus. Once they have left the thymus, T cells enter the bloodstream and circulate to and within the rest of the lymphoid organs, where they can multiply further in response to appropriate stimulation. About half of all lymphocytes are T cells.
• Some lymphocytes remain in the bone marrow, where they differentiate and then pass directly to the lymphoid organs. They are termed B lymphocytes, or B cells, and they, like T cells, can mature and multiply further in the lymphoid organs when suitably stimulated. Although it is appropriate to refer to them as B cells in humans and other mammals, because they are bone-marrow derived, the B actually stands for the bursa of Fabricius, a lymphoid organ found only in birds, the organisms in which B cells were first discovered.
• S1: B and T cells both recognize and help eliminate foreign molecules (antigens), such as those that are part of invading organisms, but they do so in different ways. B cells secrete antibodies, proteins that bind to antigens.
• S2: Since antibodies circulate through the humours (i.e., body fluids), the protection afforded by B cells is called humoral immunity. T cells, in contrast, do not produce antibodies but instead directly attack invaders. Because this second type of acquired immunity depends on the direct involvement of cells rather than antibodies, it is called cell-mediated immunity. T cells recognize only infectious agents that have entered into cells of the body, whereas B cells and antibodies interact with invaders that remain outside the body’s cells.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/uk-vaccine-is-a-global-game-changer/

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

• Privacy is a constitutionally protected right which emerges primarily from the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution. Elements of privacy also arise in varying contexts from the other facets of freedom and dignity recognized and guaranteed by the fundamental rights contained in Part III.
• Context:
  • While the facial recognition tracking (FRT) system has seen rapid deployment by multiple government departments in recent times, there are no specific laws or guidelines to regulate the use of this potentially invasive technology.
• What are the Concerns?
  • Absence of specific laws or guidelines poses a huge threat to the fundamental rights to privacy and freedom of speech and expression because it does not satisfy the threshold the Supreme Court had set in its landmark privacy judgment in the ‘Justice K.S. Puttaswamy Vs Union of India’ case.
  • Many institutions have not conducted “privacy impact assessment” prior to deployment of the facial recognition system (FRS).
  • Function creep: A function creep happens when someone uses information for a purpose that is not the original specified purpose (Police got permission to use the FRS by an order of the Delhi High Court for tracking missing children. Now they are using it for wider security and surveillance and investigation purpose, which is a function creep).
  • This might lead to an over-policing problem or problems where certain minorities are targeted without any legal backing or any oversight as to what is happening. Another problem that may arise is of mass surveillance, wherein the police are using the FRT system during protest.
  • Mass surveillance: If someone goes to a protest against the government, and the police are able to identify the person, then there might be repercussions.
  • The basis of the Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS) is a Cabinet note of 2009. But the Cabinet note is not a legal substance, it’s a procedural note at best. So it does not form a valid legal system based on which the AFRS can be built.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/facial-recognition-technology/

Ans: (d)

Explanation: here the directive word is incorrect!!

• Context:
  • The Union Cabinet has approved a modified scheme for interest subvention for ethanol production, expanding the scheme to include grain-based distilleries and not just molasses-based ones.
• Implications:
  • The decision would encourage ethanol production from grains like barley, maize, corn and rice.
  • The scheme would boost production and distillation capacity to 1,000 crore litres and help in meeting the goal of 20% ethanol blending with petrol by 2030.
• About Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme:
  • Launched in 2003 on pilot basis.
  • The aim is to promote the use of alternative and environmental friendly fuels.
• The government recently hiked the price of ethanol extracted from sugarcane.
• The government has been implementing Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme wherein OMCs sell petrol blended with ethanol up to 10%. This programme has been extended to the whole of India except Union Territories of Andaman Nicobar and Lakshadweep islands with effect from April 1, 2019, to promote the use of alternative and environment-friendly fuels.
• Government has notified administered price of ethanol since 2014. For the first time during 2018, the differential price of ethanol-based on raw material utilized for ethanol production was announced by the government.

Refer:  https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/ethanol-production/

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• The National Policy on Biofuels-2018 envisages an indicative target of 20% blending of ethanol in petrol and 5% blending of bio-diesel in diesel by 2030.
• National Policy on biofuels- salient features:
• Categorization: The Policy categorises biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
• Scope of raw materials:The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
• Protection to farmers: Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
• Viability gap funding:With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
• Boost to biodiesel production:The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/ethanol-production/

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

• The salient features of the AFSPA act are:
  • Governor of a State and the Central Government are empowered to declare any part or full of any state as a disturbed area if according to their opinion that it has become necessary to disrupt terrorist activity or any such activity that might impinge on the sovereignty of India or cause insult to the national flag, anthem or India’s Constitution.
  • Section (3) of AFSPA provides that, if the governor of a state issues an official notification in The Gazette of India then the Central government has the authority to deploy armed forces for assisting the civilian authorities. Once a region is declared ‘disturbed’ then it has to maintain status quo for a minimum of three months, as per The Disturbed Areas Act of 1976.
  • Section (4) of AFSPA gives special powers to army officers in disturbed areas to shoot (even if it kills) any individual who violates law / or is suspected to violate law (this includes assembly of five or more people, carrying of weapons) etc. The only condition is that the officer has to give a warning before opening fire.
  • Security forces can arrest anybody even without a warrant, and carry out searches without consent.
  • Once a person is taken into custody, he/she has to be handed over to the nearest police station as soon as possible.
  • Prosecution of the officer on duty for alleged violation of human rights requires the prior permission of the Central Government.
• AFSPA was first enacted to deal with the Naga insurgency in the Assam region.
  • In 1951, the Naga National Council (NNC) reported that it conducted a “free and fair plebiscite” in which about 99 percent of Nagas voted for a ‘Free Sovereign Naga Nation’. There was a boycott of the first general election of 1952 which later extended to a boycott of government schools and officials.
• The AFSPA – like many other controversial laws – is of a colonial origin. The AFSPA was first enacted as an ordinance in the backdrop of Quit India Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/armed-forces-special-powers-act-afspa-2/

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• Stat1: Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is a national park in Assam, India, located in Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts.
• Stat2: The Park is bounded by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers in the north and Dibru river in the south.
• Stat3: It mainly consists of moist mixed semi-evergreen forests, moist mixed deciduous forests, canebrakes and grasslands. It is the largest salix swamp forest in north-eastern India, with a tropical monsoon climate with a hot and wet summer and cool and usually dry winte

Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2020/

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

• The Orang National Park is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River in the Darrang and Sonitpur districts of Assam.
• The park has a rich flora and fauna, including great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, pygmy hog, elephants, wild buffalo and tigers. It is the only stronghold of rhinoceros on the north bank of the Brahmaputra river.
• The Orang National Park is popularly known as the “mini Kaziranga.” The reason behind this is that both the parks have the same kind of climate and ecology.

Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2020/

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Govt. nod for missions in Estonia, Paraguay and Dominican Republic:

• Government of India to open three missions in Estonia, Paraguay and the Dominican Republic in 2021.
• This will help expand India’s diplomatic footprint, deepen political relations, enable growth of bilateral trade, investment and economic engagements.
• S3: Estonia: situated in northeastern Europe, Estonia juts out into the Baltic Sea, which surrounds the country to the north and west
• S2: Paraguay: situated in South America, it is a landlocked country between Argentina, Brazil and Bolivia, home to large swaths of swampland, subtropical forest and chaco, wildernesses comprising savanna and scrubland.
• S1: Dominican Republic: situated in Northern America, it is a Caribbean nation that shares the island of Hispaniola with Haiti to the west.

Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/31/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2020/