INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsIf the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
- (1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
- (a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;
- What is President’s Rule in the Indian context?
- Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives President of India the power to suspend state government and impose President’s rule of any state in the country if “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”.
- Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers. The Vidhan Sabha is either dissolved or prorogued.
- The state will fall under the direct control of the Union government, and the Governor will continue to head the proceedings, representing the President of India – who is the Head of the State.
- The imposition of the President’s rule requires the sanction of both the houses of Parliament.
- If approved, it can go on for a period of six months. However, the imposition cannot be extended for more than three years, and needs to be brought before the two houses every six months for approval.
- Revocation:
- A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
- (1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
- (a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;
- What is President’s Rule in the Indian context?
- Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives President of India the power to suspend state government and impose President’s rule of any state in the country if “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”.
- Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers. The Vidhan Sabha is either dissolved or prorogued.
- The state will fall under the direct control of the Union government, and the Governor will continue to head the proceedings, representing the President of India – who is the Head of the State.
- The imposition of the President’s rule requires the sanction of both the houses of Parliament.
- If approved, it can go on for a period of six months. However, the imposition cannot be extended for more than three years, and needs to be brought before the two houses every six months for approval.
- Revocation:
- A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe Disaster Management Act, 2005 empowers the Government of India:
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- The creation of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Union Home Minister.
- To spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated approach to Disaster Management in India.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- On 23 December 2005, the Government of India enacted the Disaster Management Act, which envisaged the creation of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister, and State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) headed by respective Chief Ministers, to spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated approach to Disaster Management in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/supreme-court-raps-govt-on-rising-cost-of-covid-care/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- On 23 December 2005, the Government of India enacted the Disaster Management Act, which envisaged the creation of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister, and State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) headed by respective Chief Ministers, to spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated approach to Disaster Management in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/supreme-court-raps-govt-on-rising-cost-of-covid-care/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- For State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF), the Centre releases funds in two equal installments as per the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
- Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audit the SDRF every year.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- What is the State Disaster Response Fund?
- Constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 by respective states and it is the primary fund available with state governments for responses to notified disasters.
- Composition: The Central government contributes 75 per cent towards the SDRF allocation for general category states and UTs, and over 90 per cent for special category states/UTs, which includes northeastern states, Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand).
- For SDRF, the Centre releases funds in two equal installments as per the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
- Support from the National Disaster Response Fund: it supplements the SDRF of a state, in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in the SDRF.
- The disasters covered under the SDRF include cyclones, droughts, tsunamis, hailstorms, landslides, avalanches and pest attacks among others.
- Deciding authority: The state executive committee headed by the Chief Secretary is authorized to decide on all matters relating to the financing of the relief expenditure from the SDRF.
- Features of SDRF:
- SDRF is located in the ‘Public Account’ under ‘Reserve Fund’. (But direct expenditures are not made from Public Account.)
- State Government has to pay interest on a half yearly basis to the funds in SDRF, at the rate applicable to overdrafts.
- The aggregate size of the SDRF for each state, for each year, is as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
- The share of GoI to the SDRF is treated as a ‘grant in aid’.
- The financing of relief measures out of SDRF are decided by the State Executive Committee (SEC) constituted under Section 20 of the DM Act. SEC is responsible for the overall administration of the SDRF. However, the administrative expenses of SEC are borne by the State Government from its normal budgetary provisions and not from the SDRF or NDRF.
- The norms regarding the amount to be incurred on each approved item of expenditure (type of disaster) are fixed by the Ministry of Home Affairs with the concurrence of Ministry of Finance. Any excess expenditure has to be borne out of the budget of the state government.
- Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for overseeing the operation of the SDRF and monitors compliance with prescribed processes.
- Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audit the SDRF every year.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/supreme-court-raps-govt-on-rising-cost-of-covid-care/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- What is the State Disaster Response Fund?
- Constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 by respective states and it is the primary fund available with state governments for responses to notified disasters.
- Composition: The Central government contributes 75 per cent towards the SDRF allocation for general category states and UTs, and over 90 per cent for special category states/UTs, which includes northeastern states, Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand).
- For SDRF, the Centre releases funds in two equal installments as per the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
- Support from the National Disaster Response Fund: it supplements the SDRF of a state, in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in the SDRF.
- The disasters covered under the SDRF include cyclones, droughts, tsunamis, hailstorms, landslides, avalanches and pest attacks among others.
- Deciding authority: The state executive committee headed by the Chief Secretary is authorized to decide on all matters relating to the financing of the relief expenditure from the SDRF.
- Features of SDRF:
- SDRF is located in the ‘Public Account’ under ‘Reserve Fund’. (But direct expenditures are not made from Public Account.)
- State Government has to pay interest on a half yearly basis to the funds in SDRF, at the rate applicable to overdrafts.
- The aggregate size of the SDRF for each state, for each year, is as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
- The share of GoI to the SDRF is treated as a ‘grant in aid’.
- The financing of relief measures out of SDRF are decided by the State Executive Committee (SEC) constituted under Section 20 of the DM Act. SEC is responsible for the overall administration of the SDRF. However, the administrative expenses of SEC are borne by the State Government from its normal budgetary provisions and not from the SDRF or NDRF.
- The norms regarding the amount to be incurred on each approved item of expenditure (type of disaster) are fixed by the Ministry of Home Affairs with the concurrence of Ministry of Finance. Any excess expenditure has to be borne out of the budget of the state government.
- Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for overseeing the operation of the SDRF and monitors compliance with prescribed processes.
- Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audit the SDRF every year.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/supreme-court-raps-govt-on-rising-cost-of-covid-care/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Policy on Biofuels – 2018.
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- Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum and Starch containing materials like Corn.
- The policy bans the use of food grains for production of ethanol, to ensure food security.
- The Policy encourages biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds and Used Cooking Oil.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Salient Features: National Policy on Biofuels – 2018
- The Policy categorises biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
- S1: The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
- S2: Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
- With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
- S3: The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops.
- Roles and responsibilities of all the concerned Ministries/Departments with respect to biofuels has been captured in the Policy document to synergise efforts.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/india-mulls-e20-fuel-to-cut-vehicular-emissions/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Salient Features: National Policy on Biofuels – 2018
- The Policy categorises biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
- S1: The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
- S2: Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
- With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
- S3: The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops.
- Roles and responsibilities of all the concerned Ministries/Departments with respect to biofuels has been captured in the Policy document to synergise efforts.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/india-mulls-e20-fuel-to-cut-vehicular-emissions/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent
- A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage
- Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The DNA in any cell can be altered through environmental exposure to certain chemicals, ultraviolet radiation, other genetic insults, or even errors that occur during the process of replication. If a mutation occurs in a germ-line cell (one that will give rise to gametes, i.e., egg or sperm cells), then this mutation can be passed to an organism’s offspring. This means that every cell in the developing embryo will carry the mutation. As opposed to germ-line mutations, somatic mutations occur in cells found elsewhere in an organism’s body. Such mutations are passed to daughter cells during the process of mitosis, but they are not passed to offspring conceived via sexual reproduction.
- S2: https://www.technologyreview.com/2018/11/25/138962/exclusive-chinese-scientists-are-creating-crispr-babies/ ). This was controversially achieved by a team at the Southern University of Science and Technology, in Shenzhen, which recruited couples in an effort to create the first gene-edited babies. They planned to eliminate a gene called CCR5 in hopes of rendering the offspring resistant to HIV, smallpox, and cholera. Also see this article https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-019-00673-1 and this research piece https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6813942/
- S3: Domesticated animals such as dogs, pigs and cows are considered excellent models for long-term experiments in regenerative medicines, and biomedical research in general, because of their similarities in physiology with humans compared to the laboratory mouse or rat.
- So, the techniques used to generate induced pluripotent stem cells from mouse and human were also suitable in pigs.
- Context:
- The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a first-of-its-kind intentional genomic alteration (IGA) in a line of domestic pigs referred to as GalSafe pigs.
- These pigs may be used for food and human therapeutics.
- This will be the first time that the regulator has approved an animal biotechnology product for both food and biomedical purposes.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/intentional-genomic-alteration-iga-and-galsafe-pigs/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The DNA in any cell can be altered through environmental exposure to certain chemicals, ultraviolet radiation, other genetic insults, or even errors that occur during the process of replication. If a mutation occurs in a germ-line cell (one that will give rise to gametes, i.e., egg or sperm cells), then this mutation can be passed to an organism’s offspring. This means that every cell in the developing embryo will carry the mutation. As opposed to germ-line mutations, somatic mutations occur in cells found elsewhere in an organism’s body. Such mutations are passed to daughter cells during the process of mitosis, but they are not passed to offspring conceived via sexual reproduction.
- S2: https://www.technologyreview.com/2018/11/25/138962/exclusive-chinese-scientists-are-creating-crispr-babies/ ). This was controversially achieved by a team at the Southern University of Science and Technology, in Shenzhen, which recruited couples in an effort to create the first gene-edited babies. They planned to eliminate a gene called CCR5 in hopes of rendering the offspring resistant to HIV, smallpox, and cholera. Also see this article https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-019-00673-1 and this research piece https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6813942/
- S3: Domesticated animals such as dogs, pigs and cows are considered excellent models for long-term experiments in regenerative medicines, and biomedical research in general, because of their similarities in physiology with humans compared to the laboratory mouse or rat.
- So, the techniques used to generate induced pluripotent stem cells from mouse and human were also suitable in pigs.
- Context:
- The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a first-of-its-kind intentional genomic alteration (IGA) in a line of domestic pigs referred to as GalSafe pigs.
- These pigs may be used for food and human therapeutics.
- This will be the first time that the regulator has approved an animal biotechnology product for both food and biomedical purposes.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/intentional-genomic-alteration-iga-and-galsafe-pigs/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhat is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Cas9 (CRISPR associated protein 9) is a protein which plays a vital role in the immunological defense of certain bacteria against DNA viruses, and which is heavily utilized in genetic engineering applications. Its main function is to cut DNA and therefore it can alter a cell’s genome.
- What is intentional genomic alteration?
- Intentional genomic alteration in animal’s means making specific changes to the genome of the organism using modern molecular technologies that are popularly referred to as “genome editing” or “genetic engineering”.
- Such changes in the DNA sequence of an animal may be carried out for research purposes, to produce healthier meat for human consumption and to study disease resistance in animals among other reasons.
Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/intentional-genomic-alteration-iga-and-galsafe-pigs/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Cas9 (CRISPR associated protein 9) is a protein which plays a vital role in the immunological defense of certain bacteria against DNA viruses, and which is heavily utilized in genetic engineering applications. Its main function is to cut DNA and therefore it can alter a cell’s genome.
- What is intentional genomic alteration?
- Intentional genomic alteration in animal’s means making specific changes to the genome of the organism using modern molecular technologies that are popularly referred to as “genome editing” or “genetic engineering”.
- Such changes in the DNA sequence of an animal may be carried out for research purposes, to produce healthier meat for human consumption and to study disease resistance in animals among other reasons.
Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/intentional-genomic-alteration-iga-and-galsafe-pigs/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsThe terms ‘WannaCry, Petya, Eternal Blue and SolarWinds hack’, sometimes mentioned news recently are related to:
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- SolarWinds hack:
- It is a cyberattack recently discovered in the United States.
- It has emerged as one of the biggest ever targeted against the US government, its agencies and several other private companies.
- WannaCry, Petya, NotPetya: https://www.theguardian.com/technology/2017/dec/30/wannacry-petya-notpetya-ransomware
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-december-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- SolarWinds hack:
- It is a cyberattack recently discovered in the United States.
- It has emerged as one of the biggest ever targeted against the US government, its agencies and several other private companies.
- WannaCry, Petya, NotPetya: https://www.theguardian.com/technology/2017/dec/30/wannacry-petya-notpetya-ransomware
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-december-2020/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI).
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- Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure is an initiative of United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).
- It will support developed and developing nations in their efforts to build climate and disaster-resilient infrastructure.
- CDRI will also focus on developing resilience in ecological infrastructure and social infrastructure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):
- Launched by Modi in September 2019 at the UN Secretary-General’s Climate Action Summit in New York, US.
- A platform where knowledge is generated and exchanged on different aspects of disaster and climate resilience of infrastructure.
- It will create a mechanism to assist countries to upgrade their capacities and practices, with regard to infrastructure development in accordance with their risk context and economic needs.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-december-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):
- Launched by Modi in September 2019 at the UN Secretary-General’s Climate Action Summit in New York, US.
- A platform where knowledge is generated and exchanged on different aspects of disaster and climate resilience of infrastructure.
- It will create a mechanism to assist countries to upgrade their capacities and practices, with regard to infrastructure development in accordance with their risk context and economic needs.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-december-2020/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe word ‘Great Conjunction’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- What is the ‘Christmas Star’ conjunction of Saturn and Jupiter?
- After nearly 400 years, Saturn and Jupiter the two largest planets in our solar system will be brought closest in the night sky by an astronomical event called the “great conjunction” and popularly referred to as the “Christmas Star”.
- So, what is the “Great Conjunction”?
- A conjunction is not unique to Saturn and Jupiter however, it is the name given to any event where planets or asteroids appear to be very close together in the sky when viewed from the Earth.
- Astronomers use the word “great” for the conjunction of Jupiter and Saturn because of the planets’ sizes.
- The “Great Conjunction” happens once in about 20 years because of the time each of the planets take to orbit around the Sun.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-december-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- What is the ‘Christmas Star’ conjunction of Saturn and Jupiter?
- After nearly 400 years, Saturn and Jupiter the two largest planets in our solar system will be brought closest in the night sky by an astronomical event called the “great conjunction” and popularly referred to as the “Christmas Star”.
- So, what is the “Great Conjunction”?
- A conjunction is not unique to Saturn and Jupiter however, it is the name given to any event where planets or asteroids appear to be very close together in the sky when viewed from the Earth.
- Astronomers use the word “great” for the conjunction of Jupiter and Saturn because of the planets’ sizes.
- The “Great Conjunction” happens once in about 20 years because of the time each of the planets take to orbit around the Sun.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-december-2020/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
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- Genetic predisposition of some people
- Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
- Using antibiotics in livestock farming
- Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2: Selection of resistant microorganisms is exacerbated by inappropriate use of antimicrobials since a number of microbes are resistant to these anti-biotics. So, S1 is irrelevant to MDR.
- The practice of adding antibiotics to agricultural feed promotes drug resistance.
- S3: As per WHO, the high volume of antibiotics in food-producing animals contributes to the development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria, particularly in settings of intensive animal production. These bacteria can be transmitted from animals to humans via direct contact between animals and humans, or through the food chain and the environment. See https://www.who.int/foodsafety/areas_work/antimicrobial-resistance/amrfoodchain/en/
- S4: This is a confusing option, nonetheless seems correct.
- Many medical advances are dependent on the ability to fight infections using antibiotics, such as for treatment of chronic diseases like diabetes, asthma, and rheumatoid arthritis (See https://www.cdc.gov/drugresistance/about.html ), and thus, multiple chronic diseases in some people may lead them to take more anti-biotics than others exacerbating the problem.
- Sometimes healthcare providers prescribe antimicrobials inappropriately, wishing to placate an insistent patient who has a viral infection or an as-yet undiagnosed condition. At times there could be a wrong identification of the disease. All these worsen the problem. Whether this is actually a reason or not is hard to testify unless we find a solid evidence, but based on reasoning alone this would be correct.
- Also, MDR provokes obstruction in disease control by intensifying the possibility of spreading of resistant pathogens, thus, declining efficacy of treatment and, hence, resulting in prolonged time of infection in patient. See https://www.hindawi.com/journals/ipid/2014/541340/
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2: Selection of resistant microorganisms is exacerbated by inappropriate use of antimicrobials since a number of microbes are resistant to these anti-biotics. So, S1 is irrelevant to MDR.
- The practice of adding antibiotics to agricultural feed promotes drug resistance.
- S3: As per WHO, the high volume of antibiotics in food-producing animals contributes to the development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria, particularly in settings of intensive animal production. These bacteria can be transmitted from animals to humans via direct contact between animals and humans, or through the food chain and the environment. See https://www.who.int/foodsafety/areas_work/antimicrobial-resistance/amrfoodchain/en/
- S4: This is a confusing option, nonetheless seems correct.
- Many medical advances are dependent on the ability to fight infections using antibiotics, such as for treatment of chronic diseases like diabetes, asthma, and rheumatoid arthritis (See https://www.cdc.gov/drugresistance/about.html ), and thus, multiple chronic diseases in some people may lead them to take more anti-biotics than others exacerbating the problem.
- Sometimes healthcare providers prescribe antimicrobials inappropriately, wishing to placate an insistent patient who has a viral infection or an as-yet undiagnosed condition. At times there could be a wrong identification of the disease. All these worsen the problem. Whether this is actually a reason or not is hard to testify unless we find a solid evidence, but based on reasoning alone this would be correct.
- Also, MDR provokes obstruction in disease control by intensifying the possibility of spreading of resistant pathogens, thus, declining efficacy of treatment and, hence, resulting in prolonged time of infection in patient. See https://www.hindawi.com/journals/ipid/2014/541340/
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
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