INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Indian Electoral System, consider the following statements:
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- The ‘None of the Above’ option on electronic voting machines has no electoral value.
- The NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The ‘None of the Above’ option, simply put, gives the voter the right to express a negative opinion by not selecting any of the candidates in the fray. The Supreme Court envisaged NOTA as a way of cleansing the political system, saying, “Negative voting will lead to a systemic change in polls and political parties will be forced to project clean candidates.”
- S1: As an Election Commission official pointed, “The NOTA option on EVMs has no electoral value. Even if the maximum number of votes cast is for NOTA, the candidate getting the most of the remaining votes would be declared winner.”
- Link: S2: A Bench, led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) Dipak Misra held that the NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections and not polls held by the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote as done in the Rajya Sabha.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/hold-polls-where-nota-got-most-votes-petition/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The ‘None of the Above’ option, simply put, gives the voter the right to express a negative opinion by not selecting any of the candidates in the fray. The Supreme Court envisaged NOTA as a way of cleansing the political system, saying, “Negative voting will lead to a systemic change in polls and political parties will be forced to project clean candidates.”
- S1: As an Election Commission official pointed, “The NOTA option on EVMs has no electoral value. Even if the maximum number of votes cast is for NOTA, the candidate getting the most of the remaining votes would be declared winner.”
- Link: S2: A Bench, led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) Dipak Misra held that the NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections and not polls held by the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote as done in the Rajya Sabha.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/hold-polls-where-nota-got-most-votes-petition/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe Tenth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, inserted by The Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985, when Rajiv Gandhi’s government was in power.
- It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
- The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/mlc-disqualified-for-being-appointed-as-a-minister/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, inserted by The Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985, when Rajiv Gandhi’s government was in power.
- It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
- The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/mlc-disqualified-for-being-appointed-as-a-minister/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
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- It is an inter-governmental body established on the initiative of the G7.
- Initially it was established to examine and develop measures to combat terrorist financing.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About FATF:
- The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 on the initiative of the G7.
- It is a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in various areas.
- The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
- Roles and functions:
- Initially it was established to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.
- In October 2001, the FATF expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing, in addition to money laundering.
- In April 2012, it added efforts to counter the financing of proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
- Composition:
- The FATF currently comprises 37 member jurisdictions and 2 regional organisations, representing most major financial centres in all parts of the globe. It also has observers and associate members.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/financial-action-task-force-fatf-7/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About FATF:
- The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 on the initiative of the G7.
- It is a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in various areas.
- The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
- Roles and functions:
- Initially it was established to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.
- In October 2001, the FATF expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing, in addition to money laundering.
- In April 2012, it added efforts to counter the financing of proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
- Composition:
- The FATF currently comprises 37 member jurisdictions and 2 regional organisations, representing most major financial centres in all parts of the globe. It also has observers and associate members.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/financial-action-task-force-fatf-7/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Yamuna River:
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- It is a major tributary of river Ganges.
- It originates from the Zemu glacier near Bandarpoonch peaks in the Mussoorie range of the lower Himalayas.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The river Yamuna is a major tributary of river Ganges.
- Originates from the Yamunotri glacier near Bandarpoonch peaks in the Mussoorie range of the lower Himalayas in Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand.
- It meets the Ganges at the Sangam in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh after flowing through Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Delhi.
- Tributaries: Chambal, Sindh, Betwa and Ken.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/yamuna-river-pollution/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The river Yamuna is a major tributary of river Ganges.
- Originates from the Yamunotri glacier near Bandarpoonch peaks in the Mussoorie range of the lower Himalayas in Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand.
- It meets the Ganges at the Sangam in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh after flowing through Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Delhi.
- Tributaries: Chambal, Sindh, Betwa and Ken.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/yamuna-river-pollution/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to New Development Bank (NDB), consider the following statements:
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- China is the largest shareholder in NDB.
- NDB does not have any members from outside Asia.
- The bank is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
Which of the given above statements is/are not correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- About the New Development Bank:
- It is a multilateral development bank operated by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).
- The New Development Bank was agreed to by BRICS leaders at the 5th BRICS summit held in Durban, South Africa in 2013.
- It was established in 2014, at the 6th BRICS Summit at Fortaleza, Brazil.
- The bank is set up to foster greater financial and development cooperation among the five emerging markets.
- In the Fortaleza Declaration, the leaders stressed that the NDB will strengthen cooperation among BRICS and will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global development.
- The bank will be headquartered in Shanghai, China.
- The initial authorized capital of the bank is $100 billion divided into 1 million shares having a par value of $100,000 each. The initial subscribed capital of the NDB is $50 billion divided into paid-in shares ($10 billion) and callable shares ($40 billion). The initial subscribed capital of the bank was equally distributed among the founding members. The Agreement on the NDB specifies that every member will have one vote no one would have any veto powers
- Roles and functions:
- The New Development Bank will mobilise resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies and developing countries, to supplement existing efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global growth and development.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/fight-fake-news-brics-media-forum/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- About the New Development Bank:
- It is a multilateral development bank operated by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).
- The New Development Bank was agreed to by BRICS leaders at the 5th BRICS summit held in Durban, South Africa in 2013.
- It was established in 2014, at the 6th BRICS Summit at Fortaleza, Brazil.
- The bank is set up to foster greater financial and development cooperation among the five emerging markets.
- In the Fortaleza Declaration, the leaders stressed that the NDB will strengthen cooperation among BRICS and will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global development.
- The bank will be headquartered in Shanghai, China.
- The initial authorized capital of the bank is $100 billion divided into 1 million shares having a par value of $100,000 each. The initial subscribed capital of the NDB is $50 billion divided into paid-in shares ($10 billion) and callable shares ($40 billion). The initial subscribed capital of the bank was equally distributed among the founding members. The Agreement on the NDB specifies that every member will have one vote no one would have any veto powers
- Roles and functions:
- The New Development Bank will mobilise resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies and developing countries, to supplement existing efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global growth and development.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/12/01/fight-fake-news-brics-media-forum/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Indian peacock soft-shell turtle, consider the following statements:
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- It is naturally found in India only.
- It is protected under the Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Indian peacock soft-shell turtle:
- It is a riverine turtle endemic to India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
- They are generally omnivorous (predominantly carnivorous) and nocturnal.
- Conservation Status:
- Vulnerable on IUCN Redlist.
- The species is also listed under Appendix I of CITES.
- Protected under the Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act.
- Belongs to the family Trionychidae.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/insta-75-days-revision-plan-for-prelims-2020-instatests/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Indian peacock soft-shell turtle:
- It is a riverine turtle endemic to India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
- They are generally omnivorous (predominantly carnivorous) and nocturnal.
- Conservation Status:
- Vulnerable on IUCN Redlist.
- The species is also listed under Appendix I of CITES.
- Protected under the Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act.
- Belongs to the family Trionychidae.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/insta-75-days-revision-plan-for-prelims-2020-instatests/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsIf you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Gharials can be naturally found in National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary. The gharial is one of three crocodilians native to India, the other two being the mugger crocodile and the saltwater crocodile.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Gharials can be naturally found in National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary. The gharial is one of three crocodilians native to India, the other two being the mugger crocodile and the saltwater crocodile.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsIn a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Quoting a Planning Commission report, “For 2011-12, for rural areas the national poverty line using the Tendulkar methodology is estimated at Rs. 816 per capita per month and Rs. 1,000 per capita per month in urban areas. Thus, for a family of five, the all India poverty line in terms of consumption expenditure would amount to about Rs. 4,080 per month in rural areas and Rs. 5,000 per month in urban areas. These poverty lines would vary from State to State because of inter-state price differentials.”
- See http://planningcommission.nic.in/news/pre_pov2307 .pdf, page 2.
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Quoting a Planning Commission report, “For 2011-12, for rural areas the national poverty line using the Tendulkar methodology is estimated at Rs. 816 per capita per month and Rs. 1,000 per capita per month in urban areas. Thus, for a family of five, the all India poverty line in terms of consumption expenditure would amount to about Rs. 4,080 per month in rural areas and Rs. 5,000 per month in urban areas. These poverty lines would vary from State to State because of inter-state price differentials.”
- See http://planningcommission.nic.in/news/pre_pov2307 .pdf, page 2.
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsIn the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Like incineration, pyrolysis, gasification and plasma technologies are thermal processes that use high temperatures to break down waste. The main difference is that they use less oxygen than traditional mass-burn incineration.
- See https://friendsoftheearth.uk/sites/default/files/downloads/gasification_pyrolysis.pdf
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Like incineration, pyrolysis, gasification and plasma technologies are thermal processes that use high temperatures to break down waste. The main difference is that they use less oxygen than traditional mass-burn incineration.
- See https://friendsoftheearth.uk/sites/default/files/downloads/gasification_pyrolysis.pdf
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
- Cattle release ammonia into environment.
- Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture.
- Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.
- The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.
- See https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture.
- Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.
- The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.
- See https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
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