INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), Consider the following statements:
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- The Scheme is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
- It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- It is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women of 19 years of age or above for the first live birth.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
- S3: It is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women of 19 years of age or above for the first live birth. It provides a partial wage compensation to women for wage-loss during childbirth and childcare and to provide conditions for safe delivery and good nutrition and feeding practices..
- S2: It was introduced in 2017 and is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
- S3: It is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women of 19 years of age or above for the first live birth. It provides a partial wage compensation to women for wage-loss during childbirth and childcare and to provide conditions for safe delivery and good nutrition and feeding practices..
- S2: It was introduced in 2017 and is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
- The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”.
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
- The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. See https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Supreme-Court-upholds-office-of-profit-law/article16876481.ece
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/article-102-1-and-article-191-1-of-the-constitution/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”.
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
- The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. See https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Supreme-Court-upholds-office-of-profit-law/article16876481.ece
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/article-102-1-and-article-191-1-of-the-constitution/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the National Green Tribunal (NGT):
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- The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
- The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure (1908).
Which of the given above statements is/are not correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- S1: The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India, head quartered in New Delhi.
- S2: The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
- About NGT:
- Established on 18th October, 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
- Established for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
- New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other four places of sitting of the Tribunal.
- The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
- NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
- With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialised environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
- Composition:
- Sanctioned strength: The act allows for up to 40 members (20 expert members and 20 judicial members).
- Chairman: Is the administrative head of the tribunal, also serves as a judicial member and is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
- Selection:
- Members are chosen by a selection committee (headed by a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India) that reviews their applications and conducts interviews.
- The Judicial members are chosen from applicants who are serving or retired judges of High Courts.
- Expert members are chosen from applicants who are either serving or retired bureaucrats not below the rank of an Additional Secretary to the Government of India (not below the rank of Principal Secretary if serving under a state government) with a minimum administrative experience of five years in dealing with environmental matters. Or, the expert members must have a doctorate in a related field.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- S1: The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India, head quartered in New Delhi.
- S2: The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
- About NGT:
- Established on 18th October, 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
- Established for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
- New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other four places of sitting of the Tribunal.
- The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
- NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
- With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialised environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
- Composition:
- Sanctioned strength: The act allows for up to 40 members (20 expert members and 20 judicial members).
- Chairman: Is the administrative head of the tribunal, also serves as a judicial member and is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
- Selection:
- Members are chosen by a selection committee (headed by a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India) that reviews their applications and conducts interviews.
- The Judicial members are chosen from applicants who are serving or retired judges of High Courts.
- Expert members are chosen from applicants who are either serving or retired bureaucrats not below the rank of an Additional Secretary to the Government of India (not below the rank of Principal Secretary if serving under a state government) with a minimum administrative experience of five years in dealing with environmental matters. Or, the expert members must have a doctorate in a related field.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is an initiative of the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).
- CDRI’s initial focus is on developing disaster-resilience in ecological, social, and economic infrastructure.
Which of the given above statements is/are not correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Launched by Modi in September 2019 at the UN Secretary-General’s Climate Action Summit in New York, US.
- CDRI was first proposed by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi during the 2016 Asian Ministerial Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held at Vigyan Bhavan, New Delhi.
- The CDRI was later conceptualised in the first and second edition of the International Workshop on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (IWDRI) in 2018-19, which were organized by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) of India, in partnership with the UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR), the UN Development Programme, the World Bank, and the Global Commission on Adaptation.
- S2: CDRI’s initial focus is on developing disaster-resilience in ecological, social, and economic infrastructure. It aims to achieve substantial changes in member countries’ policy frameworks and future infrastructure investments, along with a major decrease in the economic losses suffered due to disasters.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/first-meeting-between-india-and-luxembourg-in-20-years/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Launched by Modi in September 2019 at the UN Secretary-General’s Climate Action Summit in New York, US.
- CDRI was first proposed by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi during the 2016 Asian Ministerial Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held at Vigyan Bhavan, New Delhi.
- The CDRI was later conceptualised in the first and second edition of the International Workshop on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (IWDRI) in 2018-19, which were organized by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) of India, in partnership with the UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR), the UN Development Programme, the World Bank, and the Global Commission on Adaptation.
- S2: CDRI’s initial focus is on developing disaster-resilience in ecological, social, and economic infrastructure. It aims to achieve substantial changes in member countries’ policy frameworks and future infrastructure investments, along with a major decrease in the economic losses suffered due to disasters.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/first-meeting-between-india-and-luxembourg-in-20-years/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWest Bank is situated to the:
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Where is West Bank?
- It is a landlocked territory near the Mediterranean coast of Western Asia, bordered by Jordan to the east and by the Green Line separating it and Israel on the south, west and north. The West Bank also contains a significant section of the western Dead Sea shore.
- What are the disputed settlements here? Who lives there?
- The West Bank was captured by Jordan after the 1948 Arab-Israeli War.
- Israel snatched it back during the Six Day War of 1967, and has occupied it ever since. During this war, the country defeated the combined forces of Egypt, Syria, and Jordan.
- It has built some 130 formal settlements in the West Bank, and a similar number of smaller, informal settlements have mushroomed over the last 20-25 years.
- Over 4 lakh Israeli settlers — many of them religious Zionists who claim a Biblical birthright over this land — now live here, along with some 26 lakh Palestinians.
- The territory is still a point of contention due to a large number of Palestinians who live there and hope to see the land become a part of their future state.
- When Israel took control of the land in 1967 it allowed Jewish people to move in, but Palestinians consider the West Bank illegally occupied Palestinian land.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/west-bank-and-issues-associated-3/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Where is West Bank?
- It is a landlocked territory near the Mediterranean coast of Western Asia, bordered by Jordan to the east and by the Green Line separating it and Israel on the south, west and north. The West Bank also contains a significant section of the western Dead Sea shore.
- What are the disputed settlements here? Who lives there?
- The West Bank was captured by Jordan after the 1948 Arab-Israeli War.
- Israel snatched it back during the Six Day War of 1967, and has occupied it ever since. During this war, the country defeated the combined forces of Egypt, Syria, and Jordan.
- It has built some 130 formal settlements in the West Bank, and a similar number of smaller, informal settlements have mushroomed over the last 20-25 years.
- Over 4 lakh Israeli settlers — many of them religious Zionists who claim a Biblical birthright over this land — now live here, along with some 26 lakh Palestinians.
- The territory is still a point of contention due to a large number of Palestinians who live there and hope to see the land become a part of their future state.
- When Israel took control of the land in 1967 it allowed Jewish people to move in, but Palestinians consider the West Bank illegally occupied Palestinian land.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/west-bank-and-issues-associated-3/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC), consider the following statements:
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- It is an intergovernmental economic organisation with 37 member countries.
- The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed agreement between the member states of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) and its free trade agreement (FTA) partners.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: APEC:
- It is a regional economic forum established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific.
- Aim: to create greater prosperity for the people of the region by promoting balanced, inclusive, sustainable, innovative and secure growth and by accelerating regional economic integration.
- Functions:
- APEC works to help all residents of the Asia-Pacific participate in the growing economy. APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad.
- Recognizing the impacts of climate change, APEC members also implement initiatives to increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources.
- The forum adapts to allow members to deal with important new challenges to the region’s economic well-being. This includes ensuring disaster resilience, planning for pandemics, and addressing terrorism.
- Members:
- APEC’s 21 member economies are Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada; Chile; People’s Republic of China; Hong Kong, China; Indonesia; Japan; Republic of Korea; Malaysia; Mexico; New Zealand; Papua New Guinea; Peru; The Philippines; The Russian Federation; Singapore; Chinese Taipei; Thailand; United States of America; Viet Nam.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/asia-pacific-economic-cooperation-apec-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: APEC:
- It is a regional economic forum established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific.
- Aim: to create greater prosperity for the people of the region by promoting balanced, inclusive, sustainable, innovative and secure growth and by accelerating regional economic integration.
- Functions:
- APEC works to help all residents of the Asia-Pacific participate in the growing economy. APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad.
- Recognizing the impacts of climate change, APEC members also implement initiatives to increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources.
- The forum adapts to allow members to deal with important new challenges to the region’s economic well-being. This includes ensuring disaster resilience, planning for pandemics, and addressing terrorism.
- Members:
- APEC’s 21 member economies are Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada; Chile; People’s Republic of China; Hong Kong, China; Indonesia; Japan; Republic of Korea; Malaysia; Mexico; New Zealand; Papua New Guinea; Peru; The Philippines; The Russian Federation; Singapore; Chinese Taipei; Thailand; United States of America; Viet Nam.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/asia-pacific-economic-cooperation-apec-2/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cord blood banking.
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- Cord blood is the blood from the baby that is left in the umbilical cord and placenta after birth, which is a rich source of stem cells.
- Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) allows commercial stem cell banking.
- Stem cells in cord blood can be used to strengthen the immune system during cancer treatments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Cord blood banking involves taking the umbilical cord blood, which is a rich source of stem cells, and preserving it for future use.
- S2: Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) does not recommend commercial stem cell banking. It says so far there is no scientific basis for preservation of cord blood for future self use and this practice therefore raises ethical and social concerns. “Private storage of the cord blood is advisable when there is an elder child in the family with a condition treatable with these cells and the mother is expecting the next baby.
- “Globally, cord blood banking is recommended as a source of hematopoietic stem cell (derived from bone marrow, peripheral blood, or umbilical cord blood) transplantation for haematological cancers and disorders where its use is recommended. For all other conditions, the use of cord blood as a source of stem cells is not yet established,”
- Using the stem cells in cord blood to treat a disease has the following benefits compared with using those in bone marrow:
- Stem cells from cord blood can be given to more people than those from bone marrow. More matches are possible when a cord blood transplant is used than when a bone marrow transplant is used. In addition, the stem cells in cord blood are less likely to cause rejectionthan those in bone marrow.
- It is harder to collect bone marrow than it is to collect cord blood. Collecting bone marrow poses some risks and can be painful for the donor.
- Cord blood can be frozen and stored. It is ready for anyone who needs it. Bone marrow must be used soon after it is collected.
- Stem cells in cord blood can be used to strengthen the immune system during cancer treatments. Bone marrow stem cells do not have this capability.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/what-is-cord-blood-banking/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Cord blood banking involves taking the umbilical cord blood, which is a rich source of stem cells, and preserving it for future use.
- S2: Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) does not recommend commercial stem cell banking. It says so far there is no scientific basis for preservation of cord blood for future self use and this practice therefore raises ethical and social concerns. “Private storage of the cord blood is advisable when there is an elder child in the family with a condition treatable with these cells and the mother is expecting the next baby.
- “Globally, cord blood banking is recommended as a source of hematopoietic stem cell (derived from bone marrow, peripheral blood, or umbilical cord blood) transplantation for haematological cancers and disorders where its use is recommended. For all other conditions, the use of cord blood as a source of stem cells is not yet established,”
- Using the stem cells in cord blood to treat a disease has the following benefits compared with using those in bone marrow:
- Stem cells from cord blood can be given to more people than those from bone marrow. More matches are possible when a cord blood transplant is used than when a bone marrow transplant is used. In addition, the stem cells in cord blood are less likely to cause rejectionthan those in bone marrow.
- It is harder to collect bone marrow than it is to collect cord blood. Collecting bone marrow poses some risks and can be painful for the donor.
- Cord blood can be frozen and stored. It is ready for anyone who needs it. Bone marrow must be used soon after it is collected.
- Stem cells in cord blood can be used to strengthen the immune system during cancer treatments. Bone marrow stem cells do not have this capability.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/what-is-cord-blood-banking/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Safaimitra Suraksha Challenge’ was launched by which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Safaimitra Suraksha Challenge:
- Launched by the Union Housing and Urban Affairs (HUA) Ministry.
- It is a challenge for 243 cities to switch over to mechanised cleaning of sewers and septic tanks by April 30, 2021.
- It aims to ensure that no life of any sewer or septic tank cleaner is ever lost again owing to the issue of ‘hazardous’ cleaning.
- The initiative was launched on the occasion of World Toilet Day (19th November).
- Background:
- The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act (2013) and various judgements of Hon’ble Supreme Court expressly prohibit hazardous cleaning, i.e. manual entry into a septic tank or sewer without protective gear and observing operating procedures.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Safaimitra Suraksha Challenge:
- Launched by the Union Housing and Urban Affairs (HUA) Ministry.
- It is a challenge for 243 cities to switch over to mechanised cleaning of sewers and septic tanks by April 30, 2021.
- It aims to ensure that no life of any sewer or septic tank cleaner is ever lost again owing to the issue of ‘hazardous’ cleaning.
- The initiative was launched on the occasion of World Toilet Day (19th November).
- Background:
- The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act (2013) and various judgements of Hon’ble Supreme Court expressly prohibit hazardous cleaning, i.e. manual entry into a septic tank or sewer without protective gear and observing operating procedures.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-november-2020/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following country is not associated with the ‘Five Eyes’ intelligence alliance?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Five Eyes:
- It is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States.
- These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence.
- Origin: It began in 1946 when the United States and the United Kingdom agreed to an open exchange of intelligence on the communications of foreign nations. It was expanded when Canada joined the alliance in 1948, followed by Australia and New Zealand in 1956.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Five Eyes:
- It is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States.
- These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence.
- Origin: It began in 1946 when the United States and the United Kingdom agreed to an open exchange of intelligence on the communications of foreign nations. It was expanded when Canada joined the alliance in 1948, followed by Australia and New Zealand in 1956.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-november-2020/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes/describe the objectives of ‘National Supercomputing Mission’ (NSM) of Government of India?
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- To make India number one in supercomputing technology and to enhance India’s capability in solving grand challenge problems of national and global relevance
- To attain global competitiveness and ensure self-reliance in the strategic area of supercomputing technology
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The National Supercomputing Mission would be implemented and steered jointly by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY) at an estimated cost of Rs.4500 crore over a period of seven years.
- Objective:
- To make India one of the world leaders in Supercomputing and to enhance India’s capability in solving grand challenge problems of national and global relevance
- To empower our scientists and researchers with state-of-the-art supercomputing facilities and enable them to carry out cutting-edge research in their respective domains
- To minimize redundancies and duplication of efforts, and optimize investments in supercomputing
- To attain global competitiveness and ensure self-reliance in the strategic area of supercomputing technology
- Application areas:
- Climate Modelling
- Weather Prediction
- Aerospace Engineering including CFD, CSM, CEM
- Computational Biology
- Molecular Dynamics
- Atomic Energy Simulations
- National Security/ Defence Applications
- Seismic Analysis
- Disaster Simulations and Management
- Computational Chemistry
- Computational Material Science and Nanomaterials
- Discoveries beyond Earth (Astrophysics)
- Large Complex Systems Simulations and Cyber Physical Systems
- Big Data Analytics
- Finance
- Information repositories/ Government Information Systems
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The National Supercomputing Mission would be implemented and steered jointly by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY) at an estimated cost of Rs.4500 crore over a period of seven years.
- Objective:
- To make India one of the world leaders in Supercomputing and to enhance India’s capability in solving grand challenge problems of national and global relevance
- To empower our scientists and researchers with state-of-the-art supercomputing facilities and enable them to carry out cutting-edge research in their respective domains
- To minimize redundancies and duplication of efforts, and optimize investments in supercomputing
- To attain global competitiveness and ensure self-reliance in the strategic area of supercomputing technology
- Application areas:
- Climate Modelling
- Weather Prediction
- Aerospace Engineering including CFD, CSM, CEM
- Computational Biology
- Molecular Dynamics
- Atomic Energy Simulations
- National Security/ Defence Applications
- Seismic Analysis
- Disaster Simulations and Management
- Computational Chemistry
- Computational Material Science and Nanomaterials
- Discoveries beyond Earth (Astrophysics)
- Large Complex Systems Simulations and Cyber Physical Systems
- Big Data Analytics
- Finance
- Information repositories/ Government Information Systems
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-november-2020/
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