INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- National Population Register (NPR) is a register of all citizens of the country.
- It is mandatory for every citizen of India to register in the NPR.
- The NPR was first collected in 2010 and then updated in 2015.
Which of the given above statements is/are not correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Here the directive word is not correct!!
- What is National Population Register (NPR)?
- It is a Register of usual residents of the country.
- It is being preparCed at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
- It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
- Objective: To create a comprehensive identity database of every usual resident in the country.
- The NPR was first collected in 2010 and then updated in 2015.
- Who is a usual resident?
- A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/national-population-register-npr-6/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Here the directive word is not correct!!
- What is National Population Register (NPR)?
- It is a Register of usual residents of the country.
- It is being preparCed at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
- It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
- Objective: To create a comprehensive identity database of every usual resident in the country.
- The NPR was first collected in 2010 and then updated in 2015.
- Who is a usual resident?
- A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/national-population-register-npr-6/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The first Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP) was promulgated in the year 2016.
- The recently released Defence Acquisition Procedure (2020) stipulates 30 per cent higher indigenisation than DPP 2016.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The first Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP) was promulgated in the year 2002 and has since been revised periodically to provide impetus to the growing domestic industry and achieve enhanced self reliance in defence manufacturing. Raksha Mantri had approved constitution of Main Review Committee under Chairmanship of DG (Acquisition) Shri Apurva Chandra in Aug 2019 for preparation of DAP-2020. DAP 2020 will be applicable with effect from 01 October 2020.
- S2: Highlights of the new policy:
- Reservations for Indigenous firms:
- The policy reserves several procurement categories for indigenous firms.
- DAP 2020 defines an “Indian vendor” as a company that is owned and controlled by resident Indian citizens, with foreign direct investment (FDI) not more than 49 per cent.
- New Buy (Global–Manufacture in India) category:
- This stipulates indigenisation of at least 50 per cent of the overall contract value of a foreign purchase bought with the intention of subsequently building it in India with technology transfer.
- Greater indigenous content:
- It promotes greater indigenous content in arms and equipment of the military procures, including equipment manufactured in India under licence. In most acquisition categories, DAP-2020 stipulates 10 per cent higher indigenisation than DPP 2016.
- Import embargo list:
- The “import embargo list” of 101 items that the government promulgated last month has been specifically incorporated into DAP 2020. (An embargo is a government order that restricts commerce with a specified country or the exchange of specific goods.)
- Offset liability:
- The government has decided not to have an offset clause in procurement of defence equipment if the deal is done through inter-government agreement (IGA), government-to-government or an ab initio single vendor.
- The offset clause requires a foreign vendor to invest a part of the contract value in India.
- Reservations for Indigenous firms:
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/defence-acquisition-procedure-of-2020-dap-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The first Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP) was promulgated in the year 2002 and has since been revised periodically to provide impetus to the growing domestic industry and achieve enhanced self reliance in defence manufacturing. Raksha Mantri had approved constitution of Main Review Committee under Chairmanship of DG (Acquisition) Shri Apurva Chandra in Aug 2019 for preparation of DAP-2020. DAP 2020 will be applicable with effect from 01 October 2020.
- S2: Highlights of the new policy:
- Reservations for Indigenous firms:
- The policy reserves several procurement categories for indigenous firms.
- DAP 2020 defines an “Indian vendor” as a company that is owned and controlled by resident Indian citizens, with foreign direct investment (FDI) not more than 49 per cent.
- New Buy (Global–Manufacture in India) category:
- This stipulates indigenisation of at least 50 per cent of the overall contract value of a foreign purchase bought with the intention of subsequently building it in India with technology transfer.
- Greater indigenous content:
- It promotes greater indigenous content in arms and equipment of the military procures, including equipment manufactured in India under licence. In most acquisition categories, DAP-2020 stipulates 10 per cent higher indigenisation than DPP 2016.
- Import embargo list:
- The “import embargo list” of 101 items that the government promulgated last month has been specifically incorporated into DAP 2020. (An embargo is a government order that restricts commerce with a specified country or the exchange of specific goods.)
- Offset liability:
- The government has decided not to have an offset clause in procurement of defence equipment if the deal is done through inter-government agreement (IGA), government-to-government or an ab initio single vendor.
- The offset clause requires a foreign vendor to invest a part of the contract value in India.
- Reservations for Indigenous firms:
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/defence-acquisition-procedure-of-2020-dap-2020/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the key features of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
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- The State Employment Agency after due verification will issue a Job Card
- A minimum of 10 job seekers shall apply to sanction a new work under MGNREGA
- At least one-half beneficiaries shall be women who have registered and requested work under the scheme
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: A minimum of 10 job seekers shall apply to sanction a new work under MGNREGA
- S1: The Gram Panchayat after due verification will issue a Job Card. The Job Card will bear the photograph of all adult members of the household willing to work under MGNREGA and is free of cost
- S3: At least one-third beneficiaries shall be women who have registered and requested work under the scheme.
- Refer: more salient features: https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/rural-poverty-alleviation-1/schemes/faqs-on-mgnrega/mahatma-gandhi-national-rural-employment-guarantee-act
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: A minimum of 10 job seekers shall apply to sanction a new work under MGNREGA
- S1: The Gram Panchayat after due verification will issue a Job Card. The Job Card will bear the photograph of all adult members of the household willing to work under MGNREGA and is free of cost
- S3: At least one-third beneficiaries shall be women who have registered and requested work under the scheme.
- Refer: more salient features: https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/rural-poverty-alleviation-1/schemes/faqs-on-mgnrega/mahatma-gandhi-national-rural-employment-guarantee-act
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) is neither a statutory body nor a regulatory body.
- According to the Clinical Trial Rules, only the ICMR can initiate action when investigators or sponsor of vaccines trail fail to comply with the Drugs and Cosmetics Act or the Rules.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Source: S1: ICMR is neither a statutory body nor a regulatory body. It is only the apex body in India for formulating, coordinating and promoting biomedical research. It doesn’t have the power to directly initiate punitive action.
- S2: According to the Clinical Trial Rules, only the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) can initiate action when investigators fail to comply with the Drugs and Cosmetics Act or the Rules. And in such cases, the DCGI may – after giving a show-cause notice – issue a warning, reject the trial’s results, suspend or permanently cancel the permission granted and/or debar the investigator or sponsor from conducting any trials in future.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/icmr-against-indiscriminate-use-of-plasma-therapy/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Source: S1: ICMR is neither a statutory body nor a regulatory body. It is only the apex body in India for formulating, coordinating and promoting biomedical research. It doesn’t have the power to directly initiate punitive action.
- S2: According to the Clinical Trial Rules, only the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) can initiate action when investigators fail to comply with the Drugs and Cosmetics Act or the Rules. And in such cases, the DCGI may – after giving a show-cause notice – issue a warning, reject the trial’s results, suspend or permanently cancel the permission granted and/or debar the investigator or sponsor from conducting any trials in future.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/icmr-against-indiscriminate-use-of-plasma-therapy/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action’ (JCPOA) was in news recently, is related to which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- On 20 July 2015, the Security Council unanimously adopted resolution 2231 (2015) endorsing the the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA).
- Resolution 2231 provides for the termination of the provisions of previous Security Council resolutions on the Iranian nuclear issue and establishes specific restrictions that apply to all States without exception.
- What was the iran nuclear deal?
- Iran agreed to rein in its nuclear programme in a 2015 deal struck with the US, UK, Russia, China, France and Germany.
- Under the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPoA) Tehran agreed to significantly cut its stores of centrifuges, enriched uranium and heavy-water, all key components for nuclear weapons.
- The JCPOA established the Joint Commission, with the negotiating parties all represented, to monitor implementation of the agreement.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- On 20 July 2015, the Security Council unanimously adopted resolution 2231 (2015) endorsing the the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA).
- Resolution 2231 provides for the termination of the provisions of previous Security Council resolutions on the Iranian nuclear issue and establishes specific restrictions that apply to all States without exception.
- What was the iran nuclear deal?
- Iran agreed to rein in its nuclear programme in a 2015 deal struck with the US, UK, Russia, China, France and Germany.
- Under the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPoA) Tehran agreed to significantly cut its stores of centrifuges, enriched uranium and heavy-water, all key components for nuclear weapons.
- The JCPOA established the Joint Commission, with the negotiating parties all represented, to monitor implementation of the agreement.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following events:
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- The formation of the Mahajan Commission under former Chief Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan
- Mysore State renamed as Karnataka
- The States Reorganisation Act was enacted by the Parliament under Article 4 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S3: Based on the recommendations of the Fazal Ali Commission, the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, was enacted by the Parliament under Article 4 of the Constitution of India. The Act came into effect on Novemeber 1, 1956 and states were reorganised on linguistic lines.
- S1: In September 1957, the Bombay government echoed their demand and lodged a protest with the Centre, leading to the formation of the Mahajan Commission under former Chief Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan in October 1966.
- S2: Following India becoming a republic in 1950, different provinces were created based on the languages spoken in a particular region. On November 1st 1956, several of these merged to form the state of Mysore, which was the name of an older region that formed part of the new state. This name was not a popular choice with some northern parts of the state, so eventually, on November 1st 1973, the state was renamed Karnataka.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S3: Based on the recommendations of the Fazal Ali Commission, the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, was enacted by the Parliament under Article 4 of the Constitution of India. The Act came into effect on Novemeber 1, 1956 and states were reorganised on linguistic lines.
- S1: In September 1957, the Bombay government echoed their demand and lodged a protest with the Centre, leading to the formation of the Mahajan Commission under former Chief Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan in October 1966.
- S2: Following India becoming a republic in 1950, different provinces were created based on the languages spoken in a particular region. On November 1st 1956, several of these merged to form the state of Mysore, which was the name of an older region that formed part of the new state. This name was not a popular choice with some northern parts of the state, so eventually, on November 1st 1973, the state was renamed Karnataka.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for implementing the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
- As per the Forest Rights Act, the Gram Sabha determines the nature and extent of Individual Forest Rights (IFR) or Community Forest Rights (CFR).
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: About Forest Rights Act (FRA):
- The act was passed in December 2006. It deals with the rights of forest-dwelling communities over land and other resources. The Act grants legal recognition to the rights of traditional forest dwelling communities, partially correcting the injustice caused by the forest laws.
- Rights under the Act:
- Title rights – Ownership to land that is being farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to a maximum of 4 hectares; ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the concerned family, meaning that no new lands are granted.
- Use rights – to minor forest produce (also including ownership), to grazing areas, to pastoralist routes, etc.
- Relief and development rights – to rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced displacement; and to basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection.
- Forest management rights – to protect forests and wildlife.
- Eligibility:
- Eligibility to get rights under the Act is confined to those who “primarily reside in forests” and who depend on forests and forest land for a livelihood. Further, either the claimant must be a member of the Scheduled Tribes scheduled in that area or must have been residing in the forest for 75 years.
- S2: Process of recognition of rights:
- The Act provides that the gram sabha, or village assembly, will initially pass a resolution recommending whose rights to which resources should be recognised.
- This resolution is then screened and approved at the level of the sub-division (or taluka) and subsequently at the district level.
- The screening committees consist of three government officials (Forest, Revenue and Tribal Welfare departments) and three elected members of the local body at that level. These committees also hear appeals.
- S1: the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs, the nodal ministry for implementing FRA
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: About Forest Rights Act (FRA):
- The act was passed in December 2006. It deals with the rights of forest-dwelling communities over land and other resources. The Act grants legal recognition to the rights of traditional forest dwelling communities, partially correcting the injustice caused by the forest laws.
- Rights under the Act:
- Title rights – Ownership to land that is being farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to a maximum of 4 hectares; ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the concerned family, meaning that no new lands are granted.
- Use rights – to minor forest produce (also including ownership), to grazing areas, to pastoralist routes, etc.
- Relief and development rights – to rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced displacement; and to basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection.
- Forest management rights – to protect forests and wildlife.
- Eligibility:
- Eligibility to get rights under the Act is confined to those who “primarily reside in forests” and who depend on forests and forest land for a livelihood. Further, either the claimant must be a member of the Scheduled Tribes scheduled in that area or must have been residing in the forest for 75 years.
- S2: Process of recognition of rights:
- The Act provides that the gram sabha, or village assembly, will initially pass a resolution recommending whose rights to which resources should be recognised.
- This resolution is then screened and approved at the level of the sub-division (or taluka) and subsequently at the district level.
- The screening committees consist of three government officials (Forest, Revenue and Tribal Welfare departments) and three elected members of the local body at that level. These committees also hear appeals.
- S1: the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs, the nodal ministry for implementing FRA
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-november-2020/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsThe ‘cow protection Cabinet’ was in news recently, is proposed to be setup by which one of the following state?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- P. sets up ‘cow protection Cabinet’:
- Madhya Pradesh government has decided to set up a ‘Gau Cabinet’ for the protection and promotion of cattle.
- The Animal Husbandry, Forest, Panchayat and Rural Development, Revenue, Home and Farmers’ Welfare Departments would be part of the Cabinet.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- P. sets up ‘cow protection Cabinet’:
- Madhya Pradesh government has decided to set up a ‘Gau Cabinet’ for the protection and promotion of cattle.
- The Animal Husbandry, Forest, Panchayat and Rural Development, Revenue, Home and Farmers’ Welfare Departments would be part of the Cabinet.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-november-2020/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS):
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- It is a very rare autoimmune disorder.
- Recently, GBS cases have been reported following infection with the COVID19 virus.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: In a rare complication, some patients infected with Covid-19 have been found suffering from Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS). In India, such cases have been reported since August.
- A group of neurologists in Mumbai is now mapping these cases and their symptoms. So far, 24 cases have been added to the study.
- S1: GBS is a very rare autoimmune disorder. The immune system, in an attempt to kill the coronavirus, accidentally starts attacking the peripheral nervous system
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: In a rare complication, some patients infected with Covid-19 have been found suffering from Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS). In India, such cases have been reported since August.
- A group of neurologists in Mumbai is now mapping these cases and their symptoms. So far, 24 cases have been added to the study.
- S1: GBS is a very rare autoimmune disorder. The immune system, in an attempt to kill the coronavirus, accidentally starts attacking the peripheral nervous system
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-november-2020/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following:
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- Birds
- Dust blowing
- Rain
- Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Nematodes, snails, birds, and wild and domestic animals often help dissemination of plant diseases.
- The spores of many parasitic fungi are disseminated by air currents from diseased to disease-free host Pathogens like, bacteria are often disseminated by splashing of raindrops, as in case of Citrus canker disease.
- Soil and field operation also disseminate the diseases as they result in dust blowing.
- Refer: http://www.biologydiscussion.com/plants/plant-diseases/dissemination-of-plant-diseases-16-mechanismsbotany/58671
Source: UPSC CSE 2018
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Nematodes, snails, birds, and wild and domestic animals often help dissemination of plant diseases.
- The spores of many parasitic fungi are disseminated by air currents from diseased to disease-free host Pathogens like, bacteria are often disseminated by splashing of raindrops, as in case of Citrus canker disease.
- Soil and field operation also disseminate the diseases as they result in dust blowing.
- Refer: http://www.biologydiscussion.com/plants/plant-diseases/dissemination-of-plant-diseases-16-mechanismsbotany/58671
Source: UPSC CSE 2018
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