INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
-
Click on – ‘Start Quiz’ button
-
Solve Questions
-
Click on ‘Quiz Summary’ button
-
Click on ‘Finish Quiz’ button
-
Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
-
New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the history of India, ‘ulgulan’ or the great tumult is the description of which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Bisra started a movement called ‘Ulgulan’, or ‘The Great Tumult’. His struggle against the exploitation and discrimination against tribals led to a big hit against the British government in the form of the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act being passed in 1908. The act restricted the passing on of land from the tribal people to non-tribals.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/birsa-munda/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Bisra started a movement called ‘Ulgulan’, or ‘The Great Tumult’. His struggle against the exploitation and discrimination against tribals led to a big hit against the British government in the form of the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act being passed in 1908. The act restricted the passing on of land from the tribal people to non-tribals.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/birsa-munda/
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- The first decennial censuses took place in 1881.
- The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
- Sample Registration System (SRS) bulletin was initiated by the Registrar General of India.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: The first census of India was conducted in the 1870s and attempted to collect data across as much of the country as was feasible. The first of the decennial censuses took place in 1881.
- S2: The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
- S3: Sample Registration System (SRS) bulletin has been released by the Registrar General of India. It is based on data collected for 2018.
- Initiated on a pilot basis by the Registrar General of India in a few states in 1964-65, it became fully operational during 1969-70.
- The field investigation consists of continuous enumeration of births and deaths in selected sample units by resident part-time enumerators, generally anganwadi workers and teachers; and an independent retrospective survey every six months by SRS supervisors. The data obtained by these two independent functionaries are matched.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: The first census of India was conducted in the 1870s and attempted to collect data across as much of the country as was feasible. The first of the decennial censuses took place in 1881.
- S2: The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
- S3: Sample Registration System (SRS) bulletin has been released by the Registrar General of India. It is based on data collected for 2018.
- Initiated on a pilot basis by the Registrar General of India in a few states in 1964-65, it became fully operational during 1969-70.
- The field investigation consists of continuous enumeration of births and deaths in selected sample units by resident part-time enumerators, generally anganwadi workers and teachers; and an independent retrospective survey every six months by SRS supervisors. The data obtained by these two independent functionaries are matched.
-
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the principle qualifications one must meet to be eligible to the office of the chief minister as per the Constitution of India?
A chief minister must be:
- a citizen of India
- should be a member of the state legislature
- of 25 years of age or less
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Constitution of India sets the principle qualifications one must meet to be eligible to the office of the chief minister. A chief minister must be:
- a citizen of India.
- should be a member of the state legislature. If a person is elected chief minister who is not a member of the legislature, then he/she must take sign from governor.
- of 25 years of age or more
- An individual who is not a member of the legislature can be considered as the chief minister provided he/she gets himself/herself elected to the State Legislature within six months from the date of their appointment. Failing which, he/she would cease to be the chief minister.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Constitution of India sets the principle qualifications one must meet to be eligible to the office of the chief minister. A chief minister must be:
- a citizen of India.
- should be a member of the state legislature. If a person is elected chief minister who is not a member of the legislature, then he/she must take sign from governor.
- of 25 years of age or more
- An individual who is not a member of the legislature can be considered as the chief minister provided he/she gets himself/herself elected to the State Legislature within six months from the date of their appointment. Failing which, he/she would cease to be the chief minister.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsRight to Bail in India is a:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 does not define bail or the amount of security that is necessary to be paid by the accused for securing his release. Therefore, the amount to be paid for the bail is the matter of discretion of the court. But, it is usually seen that the courts of India are not sensitive towards criminals with petty offenses and poor household, as the courts demands a sum that is unreasonable for bail. Their economic plight is not taken into consideration.
- Article 21 of the Constitution provides us the right to life and liberty. Such right guarantees everyone in the territory of India, life with all the freedom to enjoy one’s life and liberty. But, the refusal of the right to bail or demanding the amount that a person is unable to pay is said to be an infringement of article 21 of the Constitution. For more: https://sabrangindia.in/article/right-default-bail-not-just-statutory-fundamental-right
- Types Of Bail In India: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/05/rstv-in-depth-anticipatory-bail/
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/accused-can-get-bail-if-probe-is-not-over-in-time/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 does not define bail or the amount of security that is necessary to be paid by the accused for securing his release. Therefore, the amount to be paid for the bail is the matter of discretion of the court. But, it is usually seen that the courts of India are not sensitive towards criminals with petty offenses and poor household, as the courts demands a sum that is unreasonable for bail. Their economic plight is not taken into consideration.
- Article 21 of the Constitution provides us the right to life and liberty. Such right guarantees everyone in the territory of India, life with all the freedom to enjoy one’s life and liberty. But, the refusal of the right to bail or demanding the amount that a person is unable to pay is said to be an infringement of article 21 of the Constitution. For more: https://sabrangindia.in/article/right-default-bail-not-just-statutory-fundamental-right
- Types Of Bail In India: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/05/rstv-in-depth-anticipatory-bail/
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/accused-can-get-bail-if-probe-is-not-over-in-time/
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- The guidelines on determination of Critical Wildlife Habitat were prepared by Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA).
- The Chief Wildlife Warden of a state identify the critical wildlife habitats (CWH) in a national park or sanctuary.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The guidelines on CWH were prepared by MoEF&CC under Section 2 (b) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA). While MoTA is the nodal authority for FRA, the law identifies MoEF&CC as the agency to notify the guidelines.
- S2: Notifying CWHs: Key features of guidelines
- The Chief Wildlife Warden of a state will notify an Expert Committee for the purpose of identification of critical wildlife habitats (CWH) in a national park or sanctuary.
- The Expert Committee will identify areas within national parks and sanctuaries, based on scientific and objective criteria relevant to the protected area, required to be kept inviolate for the purpose of wildlife conservation.
- The Expert Committee shall issue a public notice on the intention to notify CWH. The public notice shall include details of areas required to be kept inviolate, criteria adopted for CWH identification, implication of the notification on existing rights, and all options of resettlement and rehabilitation schemes, if applicable.
- The Expert Committee shall carry out open consultations with all stakeholders, and the proceedings of the consultations, especially the objections, will be documented appropriately.
- The committee will submit the CWH proposal to the Chief Wildlife Warden. The decision on the proposal will taken by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife. A MoTA representative would be invited during the deliberation of the proposal by the standing committee. Following the committee’s recommendation, the notification of CWH will be published in the official gazette.
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The guidelines on CWH were prepared by MoEF&CC under Section 2 (b) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA). While MoTA is the nodal authority for FRA, the law identifies MoEF&CC as the agency to notify the guidelines.
- S2: Notifying CWHs: Key features of guidelines
- The Chief Wildlife Warden of a state will notify an Expert Committee for the purpose of identification of critical wildlife habitats (CWH) in a national park or sanctuary.
- The Expert Committee will identify areas within national parks and sanctuaries, based on scientific and objective criteria relevant to the protected area, required to be kept inviolate for the purpose of wildlife conservation.
- The Expert Committee shall issue a public notice on the intention to notify CWH. The public notice shall include details of areas required to be kept inviolate, criteria adopted for CWH identification, implication of the notification on existing rights, and all options of resettlement and rehabilitation schemes, if applicable.
- The Expert Committee shall carry out open consultations with all stakeholders, and the proceedings of the consultations, especially the objections, will be documented appropriately.
- The committee will submit the CWH proposal to the Chief Wildlife Warden. The decision on the proposal will taken by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife. A MoTA representative would be invited during the deliberation of the proposal by the standing committee. Following the committee’s recommendation, the notification of CWH will be published in the official gazette.
-
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsIn which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About RCEP:
- The mega trade bloc comprises 15 countries led by China (10 ASEAN members and Australia, China, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand).
- ASEAN members: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.
- The group is expected to represent at least 30% of the global GDP and will emerge as the largest free trade agreement in the world.
- The mega trade bloc is expected to boost commerce among the member-countries spread across the Asia-Pacific region.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/mega-trade-bloc-rcep-takes-off/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About RCEP:
- The mega trade bloc comprises 15 countries led by China (10 ASEAN members and Australia, China, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand).
- ASEAN members: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.
- The group is expected to represent at least 30% of the global GDP and will emerge as the largest free trade agreement in the world.
- The mega trade bloc is expected to boost commerce among the member-countries spread across the Asia-Pacific region.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/mega-trade-bloc-rcep-takes-off/
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following country has launched ‘Golden Card’ Permanent Residency Scheme?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The United Arab Emirates will extend its “golden” visa system to certain professionals, specialised degree-holders and others.
- Background:
- After first announcing a long-term visa plan in 2018, the UAE in 2019 started granting 5- and 10-year renewable visas to certain foreign investors, entrepreneurs, chief executives, scientists and outstanding students.
- About the ‘Golden Card’ Permanent Residency Scheme:
- The United Arab Emirates (UAE) had launched this Scheme to woo wealthy individuals and exceptional talents from all over the world.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/uae-to-widen-golden-visas-eligibility-criteria/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The United Arab Emirates will extend its “golden” visa system to certain professionals, specialised degree-holders and others.
- Background:
- After first announcing a long-term visa plan in 2018, the UAE in 2019 started granting 5- and 10-year renewable visas to certain foreign investors, entrepreneurs, chief executives, scientists and outstanding students.
- About the ‘Golden Card’ Permanent Residency Scheme:
- The United Arab Emirates (UAE) had launched this Scheme to woo wealthy individuals and exceptional talents from all over the world.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/uae-to-widen-golden-visas-eligibility-criteria/
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsPuerto Rico is a Spanish-speaking island located in the:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- For the third time in ten years, the United States territory of Puerto Rico has voted in favour of statehood.
- Key Points:
- Puerto Rico is a Spanish-speaking island located in the Caribbean Sea.
- Since its discovery by the explorer Christopher Columbus in 1493, Puerto Rico was a part of the Spanish Empire for over 4 centuries until 1898, when it was annexed by the United States.
- In 1917, Puerto Ricans were granted US citizenship, but the island itself was never made a full state, and continues to remain a “US territory”, along with Guam, North Mariana Islands, American Samoa, and the US Virgin Islands.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- For the third time in ten years, the United States territory of Puerto Rico has voted in favour of statehood.
- Key Points:
- Puerto Rico is a Spanish-speaking island located in the Caribbean Sea.
- Since its discovery by the explorer Christopher Columbus in 1493, Puerto Rico was a part of the Spanish Empire for over 4 centuries until 1898, when it was annexed by the United States.
- In 1917, Puerto Ricans were granted US citizenship, but the island itself was never made a full state, and continues to remain a “US territory”, along with Guam, North Mariana Islands, American Samoa, and the US Virgin Islands.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-november-2020/
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsU.K.’s Blue Belt Program recently in the news, is related to which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Tristan da Cunha, an island with 245 permanent residents, is creating a marine protection zone to safeguard endangered rockhopper penguins, yellow-nosed albatross and other wildlife in an area of the South Atlantic three times the size of the United Kingdom.
- The protection zone will become part of the K.’s Blue Belt Program, which is providing 27 million pounds ($35.5 million) to promote marine conservation in the country’s overseas territories. The initiative has now protected 11.1 million square kilometers of marine environment, or 1% of the world’s oceans
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Tristan da Cunha, an island with 245 permanent residents, is creating a marine protection zone to safeguard endangered rockhopper penguins, yellow-nosed albatross and other wildlife in an area of the South Atlantic three times the size of the United Kingdom.
- The protection zone will become part of the K.’s Blue Belt Program, which is providing 27 million pounds ($35.5 million) to promote marine conservation in the country’s overseas territories. The initiative has now protected 11.1 million square kilometers of marine environment, or 1% of the world’s oceans
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-november-2020/
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gram Sabha
-
- It is a permanent body
- The term Gram Sabha is defined in the Constitution
- The power to annul a decision of the Gram Sabha rests with state Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Gram Sabha
- The term Gram Sabha is defined in the Constitution of India under Article 243(b).
- Gram Sabha is the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system and by far the largest.
- It is a permanent body.
- The power to annul a decision of the Gram Sabha rests with the Gram Sabha only.
- Composition:
- Persons, those who are above 18 years of age.
- Living in the village.
- Whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat at the village level.
- Powers and functions:
- Constitution mentions that Gram Sabha exercises such powers and performs such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/11/19/gram-sabha/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Gram Sabha
- The term Gram Sabha is defined in the Constitution of India under Article 243(b).
- Gram Sabha is the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system and by far the largest.
- It is a permanent body.
- The power to annul a decision of the Gram Sabha rests with the Gram Sabha only.
- Composition:
- Persons, those who are above 18 years of age.
- Living in the village.
- Whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat at the village level.
- Powers and functions:
- Constitution mentions that Gram Sabha exercises such powers and performs such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/11/19/gram-sabha/
-