INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following country occupies most of the Horn of Africa?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Horn of Africa comprises four countries — Ethiopia, Eritrea, Djibouti and Somalia.
- Ethiopia occupies a predominant position in the Horn because of its demographic importance: about 85% of the area’s population live in this country.
- Impact on the Horn of Africa:
- Eritrea may be hardest hit, due to its proximity to Tigray.
- If the violence and conflict spills outside Ethiopia’s borders, it may potentially destabilize the Horn of Africa region.
- The US and China have several strategic military bases in that region, the closest being Djibouti. If these military bases were to be impacted by the disturbances in any way, it may cause foreign powers to get militarily involved in the region and the conflict.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Horn of Africa comprises four countries — Ethiopia, Eritrea, Djibouti and Somalia.
- Ethiopia occupies a predominant position in the Horn because of its demographic importance: about 85% of the area’s population live in this country.
- Impact on the Horn of Africa:
- Eritrea may be hardest hit, due to its proximity to Tigray.
- If the violence and conflict spills outside Ethiopia’s borders, it may potentially destabilize the Horn of Africa region.
- The US and China have several strategic military bases in that region, the closest being Djibouti. If these military bases were to be impacted by the disturbances in any way, it may cause foreign powers to get militarily involved in the region and the conflict.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions (ACABQ):
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- It a subsidiary organ of the United Nations General Assembly
- It consists of more than 50 members appointed by the Assembly in their individual capacity.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- About ACABQ:
- The Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions, a subsidiary organ of the General Assembly, consists of 16 members appointed by the Assembly in their individual capacity.
- Members serve in a personal capacity and not as representatives of Member States.
- The Committee holds three sessions a year with total meeting time between nine and ten months per year.
- The Chairman and Vice-Chairman of the Committee are elected by the Members of the Advisory Committee.
- Functions:
- To examine and report on the budget submitted by the Secretary-General to the General Assembly.
- To advise the General Assembly concerning any administrative and budgetary matters referred to it.
- Examines, on behalf of the General Assembly, the administrative budgets of the specialised agencies and proposals for financial arrangements with such agencies.
- To consider and report to the General Assembly on the auditors’ reports on the accounts of the United Nations and of the specialised agencies
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- About ACABQ:
- The Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions, a subsidiary organ of the General Assembly, consists of 16 members appointed by the Assembly in their individual capacity.
- Members serve in a personal capacity and not as representatives of Member States.
- The Committee holds three sessions a year with total meeting time between nine and ten months per year.
- The Chairman and Vice-Chairman of the Committee are elected by the Members of the Advisory Committee.
- Functions:
- To examine and report on the budget submitted by the Secretary-General to the General Assembly.
- To advise the General Assembly concerning any administrative and budgetary matters referred to it.
- Examines, on behalf of the General Assembly, the administrative budgets of the specialised agencies and proposals for financial arrangements with such agencies.
- To consider and report to the General Assembly on the auditors’ reports on the accounts of the United Nations and of the specialised agencies
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsArticle 16 of the Indian Constitution is related to which of the following:
Correct
Anss: (c)
Explanation:
- Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of employment or appointment to any office under the State. No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence.
- There are three exceptions to this general rule of equality of opportunity in public employment:
- Parliament can prescribe residence as a condition for certain employment or appointment in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority. As the Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Act of 1957 expired in 1974, there is no such provision for any state except Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
- The State can provide for reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class that is not adequately represented in the state services.
- A law can provide that the incumbent of an office related to religious or denominational institution or a member of its governing body should belong to the particular religion or denomination.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/09/haryana-to-reserve-75-private-jobs/
Incorrect
Anss: (c)
Explanation:
- Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of employment or appointment to any office under the State. No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence.
- There are three exceptions to this general rule of equality of opportunity in public employment:
- Parliament can prescribe residence as a condition for certain employment or appointment in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority. As the Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Act of 1957 expired in 1974, there is no such provision for any state except Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
- The State can provide for reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class that is not adequately represented in the state services.
- A law can provide that the incumbent of an office related to religious or denominational institution or a member of its governing body should belong to the particular religion or denomination.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/09/haryana-to-reserve-75-private-jobs/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 points- Consider the following statements:
- The Food Coalition is a voluntary multi-stakeholder and multi-sectoral alliance proposed by Germany and led by Food and Agriculture Organization.
- The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S2: The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.
- S1: About the Food Alliance:
- Proposed by Italy and led by Food and Agriculture Organization, the alliance aims to increase resilience of agricultural food systems and ensure global food access.
- Italy and the Netherlands have already pledged and delivered financial resources and technical support to the coalition.
- The alliance would work as a network of networks and a multi-stakeholder coalition for a unified global action to ensure food access and increase the resilience of agricultural food systems in response to COVID-19.
- The alliance involves a devoted trust fund and a web-based hub allowing participants to access a basket of project-focused information and data, as well as the funding and types of assistance needed for many on-the-ground projects.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/09/new-un-alliance-to-stave-off-catastrophic-food-crisis/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S2: The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.
- S1: About the Food Alliance:
- Proposed by Italy and led by Food and Agriculture Organization, the alliance aims to increase resilience of agricultural food systems and ensure global food access.
- Italy and the Netherlands have already pledged and delivered financial resources and technical support to the coalition.
- The alliance would work as a network of networks and a multi-stakeholder coalition for a unified global action to ensure food access and increase the resilience of agricultural food systems in response to COVID-19.
- The alliance involves a devoted trust fund and a web-based hub allowing participants to access a basket of project-focused information and data, as well as the funding and types of assistance needed for many on-the-ground projects.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/09/new-un-alliance-to-stave-off-catastrophic-food-crisis/
- Consider the following statements:
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to ‘Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana’:
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- It is a welfare measure being implemented by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.
- It offers cash compensation to insured persons when they are rendered unemployed.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Atal Beemit (Bimit) Vyakti Kalyan Yojana:
- Launched by the Employee’s State Insurance (ESI) in 2018.
- Aim: It aims to financially support those who lost their jobs or rendered jobless for whatsoever reasons due to changing employment pattern.
- Eligibility criteria for availing the relief were relaxed in August this year, as under:
- The payment of relief has been enhanced to 50% of average of wages from earlier 25% of average wages payable upto maximum 90 days of unemployment.
- Instead of the relief becoming payable 90 days after unemployment, it shall become due for payment after 30 days.
- The Insured Person should have been insurable employment for a minimum period of 2 years before his/her unemployment and should have contributed for not les than 78 days in the contribution period immediately preceding to unemployment and minimum 78 days in one of the remaining 3 contribution periods in 02 years prior to unemployment.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/09/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Atal Beemit (Bimit) Vyakti Kalyan Yojana:
- Launched by the Employee’s State Insurance (ESI) in 2018.
- Aim: It aims to financially support those who lost their jobs or rendered jobless for whatsoever reasons due to changing employment pattern.
- Eligibility criteria for availing the relief were relaxed in August this year, as under:
- The payment of relief has been enhanced to 50% of average of wages from earlier 25% of average wages payable upto maximum 90 days of unemployment.
- Instead of the relief becoming payable 90 days after unemployment, it shall become due for payment after 30 days.
- The Insured Person should have been insurable employment for a minimum period of 2 years before his/her unemployment and should have contributed for not les than 78 days in the contribution period immediately preceding to unemployment and minimum 78 days in one of the remaining 3 contribution periods in 02 years prior to unemployment.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/09/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-november-2020/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO):
-
- For every two years, FAO publishes the State of the World’s Forests.
- FAO and the World Trade Organization created the Codex Alimentarius Commission in 1961 to develop food standards, guidelines and texts.
- Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) was started by the FAO to safeguard and support the world’s agricultural heritage systems.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About FAO:
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
- Headquarters: Rome, Italy
- Founded: 16 October 1945
- Goal of FAO: Their goal is to achieve food security for all and make sure that people have regular access to enough high-quality food to lead active, healthy lives.
- Important reports and Programmes (Have a brief overview):
- Global Report on Food Crises.
- S1: Every two years, FAO publishes the State of the World’s Forests.
- S2: FAO and the World Health Organization created the Codex Alimentarius Commission in 1961 to develop food standards, guidelines and texts.
- In 1996, FAO organized the World Food Summit. The Summit concluded with the signing of the Rome Declaration, which established the goal of halving the number of people who suffer from hunger by the year 2015.
- In 2004 the Right to Food Guidelines were adopted, offering guidance to states on how to implement their obligations on the right to food.
- FAO created the International Plant Protection Convention or IPPC in 1952.
- FAO is depositary of the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture, also called Plant Treaty, Seed Treaty or ITPGRFA, entered into force on 29 June 2004.
- S3: The Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) Partnership Initiative was conceptualized in 2002 during World Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg, South Africa.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/15/75th-anniversary-of-fao/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About FAO:
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
- Headquarters: Rome, Italy
- Founded: 16 October 1945
- Goal of FAO: Their goal is to achieve food security for all and make sure that people have regular access to enough high-quality food to lead active, healthy lives.
- Important reports and Programmes (Have a brief overview):
- Global Report on Food Crises.
- S1: Every two years, FAO publishes the State of the World’s Forests.
- S2: FAO and the World Health Organization created the Codex Alimentarius Commission in 1961 to develop food standards, guidelines and texts.
- In 1996, FAO organized the World Food Summit. The Summit concluded with the signing of the Rome Declaration, which established the goal of halving the number of people who suffer from hunger by the year 2015.
- In 2004 the Right to Food Guidelines were adopted, offering guidance to states on how to implement their obligations on the right to food.
- FAO created the International Plant Protection Convention or IPPC in 1952.
- FAO is depositary of the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture, also called Plant Treaty, Seed Treaty or ITPGRFA, entered into force on 29 June 2004.
- S3: The Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) Partnership Initiative was conceptualized in 2002 during World Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg, South Africa.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/15/75th-anniversary-of-fao/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Tigray region’ was in news recently, is located in:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Tigray is bordered by Eritrea to the north, Sudan to the west, the Amhara Region to the south and the Afar Region to the east and south east.
- Tigray is the homeland of the Tigrayan, Irob and Kunama peoples, Mekelle is its capital and largest city.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Tigray is bordered by Eritrea to the north, Sudan to the west, the Amhara Region to the south and the Afar Region to the east and south east.
- Tigray is the homeland of the Tigrayan, Irob and Kunama peoples, Mekelle is its capital and largest city.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Sea Bordering country
- Adriatic Sea Albania
- Black Sea Croatia
- Caspian Sea Kazakhstan
- Mediterranean Sea Morocco
- Red Sea Syria
Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The countries with coasts on the Adriatic are Albania, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro and Slovenia.
- Six countries border with the Black Sea, including Ukraine to the north, Russia and Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.
- Russia, Iran, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan – all bordering the Caspian Sea.
- The countries with coasts on the Mediterranean Sea :- Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey.
- The six countries bordering the Red Sea proper are:
- Eastern shore: Saudi Arabia. Yemen.
- Western shore: Egypt. Sudan. Eritrea. Djibouti.
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The countries with coasts on the Adriatic are Albania, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro and Slovenia.
- Six countries border with the Black Sea, including Ukraine to the north, Russia and Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.
- Russia, Iran, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan – all bordering the Caspian Sea.
- The countries with coasts on the Mediterranean Sea :- Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey.
- The six countries bordering the Red Sea proper are:
- Eastern shore: Saudi Arabia. Yemen.
- Western shore: Egypt. Sudan. Eritrea. Djibouti.
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Glacier River
- Bandarpunch Yamuna
- Bara Shigri Chenab
- Milam Mandakini
- Siachen Nubra
- Zemu Manas
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S3: Mandakini originates from the Chorabari Glacier near Kedarnath in Uttarakhand, India. Mandakini is fed by Vasukiganga River at Sonprayag.
- S5: The Manas river system as a whole in Bhutan constitutes a length of 3,200 kilometres (2,000 mi), the main stem of the river is the Manas or Gongri river, which originates in the West Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh in India. Zemu is located in Sikkim.
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S3: Mandakini originates from the Chorabari Glacier near Kedarnath in Uttarakhand, India. Mandakini is fed by Vasukiganga River at Sonprayag.
- S5: The Manas river system as a whole in Bhutan constitutes a length of 3,200 kilometres (2,000 mi), the main stem of the river is the Manas or Gongri river, which originates in the West Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh in India. Zemu is located in Sikkim.
Source: UPSC CSE 2019
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. The national currency is legal tender in practically every country. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt.
- Option C: Checques are not legal tenders since they can be refused as a mode of payment settlement by a party.
Source: UPSC CSE 2018
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. The national currency is legal tender in practically every country. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt.
- Option C: Checques are not legal tenders since they can be refused as a mode of payment settlement by a party.
Source: UPSC CSE 2018
