INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- When the Constitution was adopted, contempt of court was made one of the restrictions on freedom of speech and expression.
- The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was amended in 2006 to introduce ‘truth’ as a valid defence a charge of contempt.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: Relevant provisions:
- Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Court respectively to punish people for their respective contempt.
- Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 defines the power of the High Court to punish contempts of its subordinate courts.
- The Constitution also includes contempt of court as a reasonable restriction to the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19, along with elements like public order and defamation.
- S2: For many years, truth was seldom considered a defence against a charge of contempt. There was an impression that the judiciary tended to hide any misconduct among its individual members in the name of protecting the image of the institution. The Act was amended in 2006 to introduce truth as a valid defence, if it was in public interest and was invoked in a bona fide manner.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/contempt-of-court-6/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: Relevant provisions:
- Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Court respectively to punish people for their respective contempt.
- Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 defines the power of the High Court to punish contempts of its subordinate courts.
- The Constitution also includes contempt of court as a reasonable restriction to the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19, along with elements like public order and defamation.
- S2: For many years, truth was seldom considered a defence against a charge of contempt. There was an impression that the judiciary tended to hide any misconduct among its individual members in the name of protecting the image of the institution. The Act was amended in 2006 to introduce truth as a valid defence, if it was in public interest and was invoked in a bona fide manner.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/contempt-of-court-6/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe Section 8 of the RP Act, 1951 was in news recently, it deals with which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Representation of the People Act, 1951 specifies the qualifications and the disqualifications of Members of Parliament and state legislatures. In particular, the first three subsections of Section 8 list various offences, and state that anyone who has been convicted of these offences is disqualified.
- Section 8 (3) of the Act states that if an MP or MLA is convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more, he/ she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release.
- Even if a person is on bail after the conviction and his appeal is pending for disposal, he is disqualified from contesting an election.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Representation of the People Act, 1951 specifies the qualifications and the disqualifications of Members of Parliament and state legislatures. In particular, the first three subsections of Section 8 list various offences, and state that anyone who has been convicted of these offences is disqualified.
- Section 8 (3) of the Act states that if an MP or MLA is convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more, he/ she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release.
- Even if a person is on bail after the conviction and his appeal is pending for disposal, he is disqualified from contesting an election.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Agriculture is in the state list under the Constitution.
- Both Centre and the states have powers to control production, supply and distribution of products of agriculture.
- When a state law contradicts a Central law on the same subject, the law passed by State Legislative Assembly prevails.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: Agriculture is in the state list under the Constitution.
- S2: But, Entry 33 of the Concurrent List provides Centre and the states powers to control production, supply and distribution of products of any industry, including agriculture.
- Usually, when a state wants to amend a Central law made under one of the items in the concurrent list, it needs the clearance of the Centre.
- S3: When a state law contradicts a Central law on the same subject, the law passed by Parliament prevails.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/can-states-refuse-to-implement-central-laws/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: Agriculture is in the state list under the Constitution.
- S2: But, Entry 33 of the Concurrent List provides Centre and the states powers to control production, supply and distribution of products of any industry, including agriculture.
- Usually, when a state wants to amend a Central law made under one of the items in the concurrent list, it needs the clearance of the Centre.
- S3: When a state law contradicts a Central law on the same subject, the law passed by Parliament prevails.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/can-states-refuse-to-implement-central-laws/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWho is the nodal authority for Extradition in India?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Who is the nodal authority for Extradition in India?
- The Consular, Passport & Visa (CPV) Division, Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India is the Central/Nodal Authority that administers the Extradition Act and it processes incoming and outgoing Extradition Requests.
- An alleged offender may not be extradited to the requesting state in the following cases:
- No treaty – In absence of a treaty, States are not obligated to extradite aliens/nationals.
- No treaty crime – Extradition is generally limited to crimes identified in the treaty which may vary in relation to one State from another, as provided by the treaty.
- Military and Political Offences – Extradition may be denied for purely military and political offences. Terrorist offences and violent crimes are excluded from the definition of political offences for the purposes of extradition treaties.
- Want of Dual Criminality – Dual criminality exists when conduct constituting the offence amounts to a criminal offence in both India and the foreign country.
- Procedural considerations – Extradition may be denied when due procedure as required by the Extradition Act of 1962 is not followed.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/what-is-extradition/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Who is the nodal authority for Extradition in India?
- The Consular, Passport & Visa (CPV) Division, Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India is the Central/Nodal Authority that administers the Extradition Act and it processes incoming and outgoing Extradition Requests.
- An alleged offender may not be extradited to the requesting state in the following cases:
- No treaty – In absence of a treaty, States are not obligated to extradite aliens/nationals.
- No treaty crime – Extradition is generally limited to crimes identified in the treaty which may vary in relation to one State from another, as provided by the treaty.
- Military and Political Offences – Extradition may be denied for purely military and political offences. Terrorist offences and violent crimes are excluded from the definition of political offences for the purposes of extradition treaties.
- Want of Dual Criminality – Dual criminality exists when conduct constituting the offence amounts to a criminal offence in both India and the foreign country.
- Procedural considerations – Extradition may be denied when due procedure as required by the Extradition Act of 1962 is not followed.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/what-is-extradition/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Ammonia occurs naturally in the environment from the breakdown of organic waste matter.
- The acceptable maximum limit of ammonia in drinking water, as per the Bureau of Indian Standards, is 1.5 ppm.
- Bureau of Indian Standards is an agency of the Government of India, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the given above statements is/are not correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- S2: The acceptable maximum limit of ammonia in drinking water, as per the Bureau of Indian Standards, is 0.5 ppm.
- S1: Ammonia occurs naturally in the environment from the breakdown of organic waste matter.
- S3: The Bureau of Indian Standards is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/spike-in-ammonia-levels-in-yamuna/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- S2: The acceptable maximum limit of ammonia in drinking water, as per the Bureau of Indian Standards, is 0.5 ppm.
- S1: Ammonia occurs naturally in the environment from the breakdown of organic waste matter.
- S3: The Bureau of Indian Standards is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/spike-in-ammonia-levels-in-yamuna/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhether or not to provide reservation to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of the society for appointment in State Government jobs and for admission to State Government educational institutions, is to be decided by the:
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act 2019 passed by the Parliament of India enables the State (i.e both the Central and State Governments) to provide reservation to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of the society.
- Whether or not to provide reservation to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of the society for appointment in State Government jobs and for admission to State Government educational institutions, as per provisions of the newly inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) of the constitution, is to be decided by the concerned State Government.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act 2019 passed by the Parliament of India enables the State (i.e both the Central and State Governments) to provide reservation to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of the society.
- Whether or not to provide reservation to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of the society for appointment in State Government jobs and for admission to State Government educational institutions, as per provisions of the newly inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) of the constitution, is to be decided by the concerned State Government.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-november-2020/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Travancore tortoise primarily feeds on small rodents, rats and gophers.
- Its habitat is now restricted to the Eastern Ghats states.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Travancore Tortoise:
- It is a large forest tortoise growing up to 330 millimetres in length.
- S1: It primarily feeds on grasses and herbs. It also feeds on molluscs, insects, animal carcass, fungi and fruits.
- Status: IUCN Red list – vulnerable; Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act: Schedule IV.
- S2: Distribution: restricted to the Western Ghats, in the Indian states of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Travancore Tortoise:
- It is a large forest tortoise growing up to 330 millimetres in length.
- S1: It primarily feeds on grasses and herbs. It also feeds on molluscs, insects, animal carcass, fungi and fruits.
- Status: IUCN Red list – vulnerable; Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act: Schedule IV.
- S2: Distribution: restricted to the Western Ghats, in the Indian states of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-november-2020/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsArrange the following countries in the direction of North to South:
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- Somalia
- Eritrea
- Kenya
- Tanzania
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Mission Sagar – II:
- As part of Mission Sagar-II, Indian Naval Ship Airavat will deliver food aid to Sudan, South Sudan, Djibouti and Eritrea.
- Mission Sagar-II, follows the first ‘Mission Sagar’ undertaken in May-June 2020, wherein India reached out to Maldives, Mauritius, Seychelles, Madagascar and Comoros, and provided food aid and medicines.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Mission Sagar – II:
- As part of Mission Sagar-II, Indian Naval Ship Airavat will deliver food aid to Sudan, South Sudan, Djibouti and Eritrea.
- Mission Sagar-II, follows the first ‘Mission Sagar’ undertaken in May-June 2020, wherein India reached out to Maldives, Mauritius, Seychelles, Madagascar and Comoros, and provided food aid and medicines.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-november-2020/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about ‘Maharani Jindan Kaur’:
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- She was a monarch of the Rajput dynasty.
- She led a spirited resistance to the encroachment of the British into the Rajasthan.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Maharani Jindan Kaur:
- She was the youngest wife of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
- She was also the mother of Maharaja Duleep Singh, the last ruler of the empire, who was raised by the British.
- She led a spirited resistance to the encroachment of the British into the Punjab, but was eventually forced to surrender.
- Why in News?
- In news for the auction of some of her jewellery at Bonhams Islamic and Indian Art sale in London earlier this week.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Maharani Jindan Kaur:
- She was the youngest wife of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
- She was also the mother of Maharaja Duleep Singh, the last ruler of the empire, who was raised by the British.
- She led a spirited resistance to the encroachment of the British into the Punjab, but was eventually forced to surrender.
- Why in News?
- In news for the auction of some of her jewellery at Bonhams Islamic and Indian Art sale in London earlier this week.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-november-2020/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsIf a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- These are Endemic plants where Cultivation of specified plants without licence is prohibited.
- From the Wildlife protection Act: (1) No person shall cultivate a specified plant except under and in accordance with a licence granted by the Chief Wild Life Warden or any other officer authorised by the State Government in this behalf: Provided that nothing in this section shall prevent a person, who immediately before the commencement of the Wild Life (Protection) (Amendment) Act, 1991 (44 of 1991), was cultivating a specified plant from carrying on such cultivation for a period of six months from such commencement or where he has made an application within that period for the grant of a licence to him, until the licence is granted to him or he is informed in writing that a licence cannot be granted to him.
See Chapter IIIA 17C http://legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/A1972-53_0.pdf
Source: UPSC CSE 2020
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- These are Endemic plants where Cultivation of specified plants without licence is prohibited.
- From the Wildlife protection Act: (1) No person shall cultivate a specified plant except under and in accordance with a licence granted by the Chief Wild Life Warden or any other officer authorised by the State Government in this behalf: Provided that nothing in this section shall prevent a person, who immediately before the commencement of the Wild Life (Protection) (Amendment) Act, 1991 (44 of 1991), was cultivating a specified plant from carrying on such cultivation for a period of six months from such commencement or where he has made an application within that period for the grant of a licence to him, until the licence is granted to him or he is informed in writing that a licence cannot be granted to him.
See Chapter IIIA 17C http://legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/A1972-53_0.pdf
Source: UPSC CSE 2020









