INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsThe annual Crime in India 2019 report has been released by which one of the following?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Context:
- The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) has released the annual Crime in India 2019 report.
- Key findings:
- Increase in crimes against members of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs): There is an increase of over 7% and 26% in 2019 compared with the 2018 figures.
- Increase of 1.6% in the registration of cases over 2018.
- Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest number of crimes against the SCs in 2019, followed by Rajasthan and Bihar.
- Madhya Pradesh recorded the highest number of cases against STs, followed by Rajasthan, and Odisha.
- In the number of cases of rape of women belonging to the SCs, Rajasthan topped the list followed by Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
- Madhya Pradesh recorded the highest number of cases against the STs, followed by Rajasthan and Odisha.
- The highest number of incidents of rape of tribal women was registered in Madhya Pradesh.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/ncrb-report-on-crimes-against-scs-and-sts/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Context:
- The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) has released the annual Crime in India 2019 report.
- Key findings:
- Increase in crimes against members of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs): There is an increase of over 7% and 26% in 2019 compared with the 2018 figures.
- Increase of 1.6% in the registration of cases over 2018.
- Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest number of crimes against the SCs in 2019, followed by Rajasthan and Bihar.
- Madhya Pradesh recorded the highest number of cases against STs, followed by Rajasthan, and Odisha.
- In the number of cases of rape of women belonging to the SCs, Rajasthan topped the list followed by Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
- Madhya Pradesh recorded the highest number of cases against the STs, followed by Rajasthan and Odisha.
- The highest number of incidents of rape of tribal women was registered in Madhya Pradesh.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/ncrb-report-on-crimes-against-scs-and-sts/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Ambedkar Social Innovation & Incubation Mission’, consider the following statements:
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- The Objective of this mission is to promote entrepreneurship among the SC Youth with special preference to Divyangs.
- It has been launched under the aegis of Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Launched by?
- Stat2: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- Launched under?
- Venture Capital Fund for SCs.
- Objectives:
- Stat1: To promote entrepreneurship among the SC Youth with special preference to Divyangs;
- To support (1,000) innovative ideas till 2024 through a synergetic work with the Technology Business Incubators (TBIs) set up by Department of Science and Technology;
- To support, promote, hand-hold the start-up ideas till they reach commercial stage by providing liberal equity support; and
- To incentivise students with innovative mind-set to take to entrepreneurship with confidence.
- Who is eligible for support under ASIIM?
- Youth who have been identified by the TBIs being promoted by Department of Science & Technology.
- Youth who are identified for incubation by reputed private TBIs.
- Students who have been awarded under the Smart India Hackathon or Smart India Hardware Hackathon being conducted by Ministry of Education.
- Innovative ideas focusing on the socio-economic development of the society identified in the TBIs.
- Start-ups nominated and supported by corporates through CSR funds.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Launched by?
- Stat2: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- Launched under?
- Venture Capital Fund for SCs.
- Objectives:
- Stat1: To promote entrepreneurship among the SC Youth with special preference to Divyangs;
- To support (1,000) innovative ideas till 2024 through a synergetic work with the Technology Business Incubators (TBIs) set up by Department of Science and Technology;
- To support, promote, hand-hold the start-up ideas till they reach commercial stage by providing liberal equity support; and
- To incentivise students with innovative mind-set to take to entrepreneurship with confidence.
- Who is eligible for support under ASIIM?
- Youth who have been identified by the TBIs being promoted by Department of Science & Technology.
- Youth who are identified for incubation by reputed private TBIs.
- Students who have been awarded under the Smart India Hackathon or Smart India Hardware Hackathon being conducted by Ministry of Education.
- Innovative ideas focusing on the socio-economic development of the society identified in the TBIs.
- Start-ups nominated and supported by corporates through CSR funds.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government.
- The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Government.
- As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the letter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: FRBM review panel had recommended the criterion of debt as a parameter for fiscal responsibility the central share being 40% and state 20%. Also, in terms of domestic liabilities the figures are actually reverse i:e central government 49% and state 21%.
- S3: 293. (3.) A State may not without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/what-is-government-borrowing/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: FRBM review panel had recommended the criterion of debt as a parameter for fiscal responsibility the central share being 40% and state 20%. Also, in terms of domestic liabilities the figures are actually reverse i:e central government 49% and state 21%.
- S3: 293. (3.) A State may not without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/what-is-government-borrowing/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- ‘Escape clause’ generally refers to a contract provision that specifies the conditions under which a party can be freed from an obligation.
- The escape clause under the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) Act details a set of events in which the Central government can deviate from fiscal deficit targets.
- Fiscal deficit is the total amount by which the government’s revenues for a year exceed its expenses.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Stat1: ‘Escape clause’ generally refers to a contract provision that specifies the conditions under which a party can be freed from an obligation.
- Stat2: The escape clause under the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) Act details a set of events in which the Central government can deviate from fiscal deficit targets.
- Stat3: The fiscal deficit is the total amount by which the government’s expenses for a year exceed its revenues.
- Escape clauses provide flexibility to governments to overshoot fiscal deficit targets in times of need, enabling them to respond to economic shocks. To ensure escape clauses are not misused, they are generally allowed only in exceptional circumstances, and with a check on the quantum of deviation.
- In 2017, the FRBM Review Committee headed by NK Singh said that the exceptional circumstances cited in the FRBM Act, 2003 were defined opaquely and were liable to misuse. In 2018, the FRBM Act was amended to specify three conditions upon which the escape clause can be invoked.
- First, over-riding considerations of national security, acts of war, and calamities of national proportion and collapse of agriculture severely affecting farm output and incomes.
- Second, far-reaching structural reforms in the economy with unanticipated fiscal implications.
- Three, a sharp decline in real output growth of at least 3 percentage points below the average for the previous four quarter The FRBM amendments also mentioned that the deviation from the stipulated fiscal deficit target must not exceed 0.5 percentage points in a year.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/what-is-government-borrowing/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Stat1: ‘Escape clause’ generally refers to a contract provision that specifies the conditions under which a party can be freed from an obligation.
- Stat2: The escape clause under the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) Act details a set of events in which the Central government can deviate from fiscal deficit targets.
- Stat3: The fiscal deficit is the total amount by which the government’s expenses for a year exceed its revenues.
- Escape clauses provide flexibility to governments to overshoot fiscal deficit targets in times of need, enabling them to respond to economic shocks. To ensure escape clauses are not misused, they are generally allowed only in exceptional circumstances, and with a check on the quantum of deviation.
- In 2017, the FRBM Review Committee headed by NK Singh said that the exceptional circumstances cited in the FRBM Act, 2003 were defined opaquely and were liable to misuse. In 2018, the FRBM Act was amended to specify three conditions upon which the escape clause can be invoked.
- First, over-riding considerations of national security, acts of war, and calamities of national proportion and collapse of agriculture severely affecting farm output and incomes.
- Second, far-reaching structural reforms in the economy with unanticipated fiscal implications.
- Three, a sharp decline in real output growth of at least 3 percentage points below the average for the previous four quarter The FRBM amendments also mentioned that the deviation from the stipulated fiscal deficit target must not exceed 0.5 percentage points in a year.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/what-is-government-borrowing/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is/are best describes the ‘Zombie fires’?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Types of wildland fires: There are three basic types of forest fires:
- Crown fires burn trees up their entire length to the top. These are the most intense and dangerous wildland fires.
- Surface fires burn only surface litter and duff. These are the easiest fires to put out and cause the least damage to the forest.
- Ground fires (sometimes called underground or subsurface fires) occur in deep accumulations of humus, peat and similar dead vegetation that become dry enough to burn. These fires move very slowly, but can become difficult to fully put out, or suppress. Occasionally, especially during prolonged drought, such fires can smoulder all winter underground and then emerge at the surface again in spring.
- A zombie fire is a fire that continues to burn underground and then reignites on the surface after a period of time.
- Why in News?
- ‘Zombie fires’ becoming more frequent in Arctic in addition to fires occurring in the once-frozen tundra.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/what-are-zombie-fires/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Types of wildland fires: There are three basic types of forest fires:
- Crown fires burn trees up their entire length to the top. These are the most intense and dangerous wildland fires.
- Surface fires burn only surface litter and duff. These are the easiest fires to put out and cause the least damage to the forest.
- Ground fires (sometimes called underground or subsurface fires) occur in deep accumulations of humus, peat and similar dead vegetation that become dry enough to burn. These fires move very slowly, but can become difficult to fully put out, or suppress. Occasionally, especially during prolonged drought, such fires can smoulder all winter underground and then emerge at the surface again in spring.
- A zombie fire is a fire that continues to burn underground and then reignites on the surface after a period of time.
- Why in News?
- ‘Zombie fires’ becoming more frequent in Arctic in addition to fires occurring in the once-frozen tundra.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/what-are-zombie-fires/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about BrahMos Missile:
-
- It flies almost ten times the speed of sound.
- It is a surface-to-surface supersonic cruise missile.
- The missile was jointly developed by India and Israel.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Why in News?
- Successfully flight tested.
- Key points:
- It is a surface-to-surface supersonic cruise missile featuring indigenous Booster and Airframe Section.
- It flies almost three times the speed of sound at Mach 2.8.
- The new BrahMos missile can strike targets over 400-km away with pin-point accuracy.
- The missile was jointly developed by India and Russia and was first tested in 2001.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-october-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Why in News?
- Successfully flight tested.
- Key points:
- It is a surface-to-surface supersonic cruise missile featuring indigenous Booster and Airframe Section.
- It flies almost three times the speed of sound at Mach 2.8.
- The new BrahMos missile can strike targets over 400-km away with pin-point accuracy.
- The missile was jointly developed by India and Russia and was first tested in 2001.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-october-2020/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct about Power Grid Corporation of India?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Option1: Based on its performance POWERGRID was recognized as a Mini-ratna category-I Public Sector Undertaking in October 1998. It is conferred with the status of “Navratna” by the Government of India in May 2008 and “Maharatna” status in October 2019.
- Option2: POWERGRID transmits about 50% of the total power generated in India on its transmission network.
- Option3: POWERGRID operates throughout India. Its transmission network consists of roughly 1,53,635 circuit kilometers and 243 EHVAC and HVDC substations, which provide total transformation capacity of 3,67,097 MVA.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-october-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Option1: Based on its performance POWERGRID was recognized as a Mini-ratna category-I Public Sector Undertaking in October 1998. It is conferred with the status of “Navratna” by the Government of India in May 2008 and “Maharatna” status in October 2019.
- Option2: POWERGRID transmits about 50% of the total power generated in India on its transmission network.
- Option3: POWERGRID operates throughout India. Its transmission network consists of roughly 1,53,635 circuit kilometers and 243 EHVAC and HVDC substations, which provide total transformation capacity of 3,67,097 MVA.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-october-2020/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsRecently, India signed a signed Statement of Intent on ‘Decarbonization and Energy Transition Agenda’, with which of the following countries?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Decarbonization and Energy Transition Agenda:
- India and Netherlands have signed Statement of Intent on ‘Decarbonization and Energy Transition Agenda’.
- The Statement of Intent (SoI) supports decarbonization and energy transition agenda for accommodating cleaner and more energy.
- The focus of the partnership is on co-creating innovative technological solutions by leveraging the expertise of the two entities. This will be achieved through an exchange of knowledge and collaborative activities.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-october-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Decarbonization and Energy Transition Agenda:
- India and Netherlands have signed Statement of Intent on ‘Decarbonization and Energy Transition Agenda’.
- The Statement of Intent (SoI) supports decarbonization and energy transition agenda for accommodating cleaner and more energy.
- The focus of the partnership is on co-creating innovative technological solutions by leveraging the expertise of the two entities. This will be achieved through an exchange of knowledge and collaborative activities.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-october-2020/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Option A and C: Any increase in a reserve ratio prevents the banks from lending more money, and reduces the money multiplier.
- Option B: Promoting the use of credit cards, taking more loans etc. can lead to lending and re-lending of the same money supply several times increasing the money multiplier.
- Option D: Even if this increases, and the banks reduce their lending, there may be no increase in the money multiplier.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-october-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Option A and C: Any increase in a reserve ratio prevents the banks from lending more money, and reduces the money multiplier.
- Option B: Promoting the use of credit cards, taking more loans etc. can lead to lending and re-lending of the same money supply several times increasing the money multiplier.
- Option D: Even if this increases, and the banks reduce their lending, there may be no increase in the money multiplier.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/10/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-october-2020/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Option A incorrect since it is difficult to envisage how this can be achieved because it is one thing to create an artificial chromosome and quite another to to make it functional. Option B is Artificial Gene Synthesis whereas Option D is Plant and Animal Tissue Culture Technology. Option C is Cloning.
- S2: Artificial gene synthesis, sometimes known as DNA printing is a method in synthetic biology that is used to create artificial genes in the laboratory. The method has been used to generate functional bacterial or yeast chromosomes containing approximately one million base pairs.
- See https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK21881/ and https://www2.le.ac.uk/projects/vgec/schoolsandcolleges/topics/recombinanttechniques
- and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Artificial_gene_synthesis
- https://www.nature.com/scitable/topicpage/recombinant-dna-technology-and-transgenic-animals-34513
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Option A incorrect since it is difficult to envisage how this can be achieved because it is one thing to create an artificial chromosome and quite another to to make it functional. Option B is Artificial Gene Synthesis whereas Option D is Plant and Animal Tissue Culture Technology. Option C is Cloning.
- S2: Artificial gene synthesis, sometimes known as DNA printing is a method in synthetic biology that is used to create artificial genes in the laboratory. The method has been used to generate functional bacterial or yeast chromosomes containing approximately one million base pairs.
- See https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK21881/ and https://www2.le.ac.uk/projects/vgec/schoolsandcolleges/topics/recombinanttechniques
- and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Artificial_gene_synthesis
- https://www.nature.com/scitable/topicpage/recombinant-dna-technology-and-transgenic-animals-34513
