INSTA REVISION PLAN 3.0
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INSTA REVISION PLAN 3.0
Waiting to crack Prelims 2020?
Brace yourselves for Insta Revision Plan 3.0!
The following InstaTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 3.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Study and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests.
We all know the importance of solving MCQs and learning & revising through them at this point of preparation. For those who are already well prepared, you can attempt Insta Plan 3.0 as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
Your participation and appreciation for Insta Revision Plan 2.0 was incredible. Insta Revision Plan 2.0 had given you a perfect roadmap to balance Prelims and Mains preparation for 50 days.
Now that you have only 60 Days left for Prelims 2020, you need to gear up and re-orient your focus completely towards Prelims. Do not waste precious time by rueing over past and be 100% sincere towards your goal from TODAY! Remember these Revision Tests are to keep you focussed, analyse mistakes and help you revise better. Do not regret by letting these crucial revision tests go.
Even if you follow 70 percent of this plan, you will be in a much better position w.r.t your preparation and confidence levels. You would be inching towards success like never before.
All that matters is your CONSISTENCY!
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF)
- The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established on the eve of 1992 Rio summit.
- The SCCF is the only adaptation fund open to all vulnerable developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established in response to guidance from the Conference of the Parties (COP7) in Marrakech in 2001. The SCCF complements the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF). Unlike the LDCF, the SCCF is open to all vulnerable developing countries. In addition, it funds a wider range of activities related to climate change. To date the SCCF has a portfolio of more than $350 million supporting 85 projects globally.
Adaptation is the top priority. But the SCCF also funds, through separate financing windows, technology transfer, mitigation in selected sectors including: energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification.
Through the GEF, and with guidance from the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the SCCF targets key sectors for adaptation and technology transfer.
The SCCF is the only adaptation fund open to all vulnerable developing countries.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established in response to guidance from the Conference of the Parties (COP7) in Marrakech in 2001. The SCCF complements the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF). Unlike the LDCF, the SCCF is open to all vulnerable developing countries. In addition, it funds a wider range of activities related to climate change. To date the SCCF has a portfolio of more than $350 million supporting 85 projects globally.
Adaptation is the top priority. But the SCCF also funds, through separate financing windows, technology transfer, mitigation in selected sectors including: energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification.
Through the GEF, and with guidance from the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the SCCF targets key sectors for adaptation and technology transfer.
The SCCF is the only adaptation fund open to all vulnerable developing countries.
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Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Clean Technology Fund (CTF)
- It seeks to promote scaled-up financing for demonstration, deployment and transfer of low-carbon technologies
- The World Bank is the Trustee and Administrating Unit of the CTF Trust Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Name of Fund Clean Technology Fund (CTF)
Date Created Date fund proposed: February 2008.
Date fund made operational: 1 July 2008 (approved by the World Bank Board of Directors).
Proposed Life of Fund The design of the CTF includes a “sunset clause” which stipulates that necessary steps to conclude CTF operations shall be taken once a new (UNFCCC) financial architecture takes effect. Any remaining CTF funds may be transferred to another fund with a similar objective. Should UNFCCC negotiations result in a renewed mandate for the CTF, operations may continue with appropriate adjustments.
Administrating Organization The World Bank is the Trustee and Administrating Unit of the CTF Trust Fund.
The World Bank Group, the African Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the European Development Bank, and the Inter-American Development Bank are the implementing agencies for CTF investments.
Objectives The Clean Technology Fund (CTF) seeks to promote scaled-up financing for demonstration, deployment and transfer of low-carbon technologies with significant potential for long-term greenhouse gas emissions savings.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Name of Fund Clean Technology Fund (CTF)
Date Created Date fund proposed: February 2008.
Date fund made operational: 1 July 2008 (approved by the World Bank Board of Directors).
Proposed Life of Fund The design of the CTF includes a “sunset clause” which stipulates that necessary steps to conclude CTF operations shall be taken once a new (UNFCCC) financial architecture takes effect. Any remaining CTF funds may be transferred to another fund with a similar objective. Should UNFCCC negotiations result in a renewed mandate for the CTF, operations may continue with appropriate adjustments.
Administrating Organization The World Bank is the Trustee and Administrating Unit of the CTF Trust Fund.
The World Bank Group, the African Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the European Development Bank, and the Inter-American Development Bank are the implementing agencies for CTF investments.
Objectives The Clean Technology Fund (CTF) seeks to promote scaled-up financing for demonstration, deployment and transfer of low-carbon technologies with significant potential for long-term greenhouse gas emissions savings.
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Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 points‘6+2+1’ group, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: A
Earlier this month, the United Nations Secretariat held a meeting of what it calls the “6+2+1” group on regional efforts to support peace in Afghanistan, a group that includes six neighbouring countries: China, Iran, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan; global players the United States and Russia, and Afghanistan itself. India was conspicuous by its absence from the meeting on April 16, given its historical and strategic ties with Afghanistan, but not for the first time.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/afghan-peace-and-indias-elbow-room/article31466678.ece
Incorrect
Solution: A
Earlier this month, the United Nations Secretariat held a meeting of what it calls the “6+2+1” group on regional efforts to support peace in Afghanistan, a group that includes six neighbouring countries: China, Iran, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan; global players the United States and Russia, and Afghanistan itself. India was conspicuous by its absence from the meeting on April 16, given its historical and strategic ties with Afghanistan, but not for the first time.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/afghan-peace-and-indias-elbow-room/article31466678.ece
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Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF)
- The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) was created in 2015 with its secretariat in under Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- The Fund has been created out of cess on coal produced / imported under the “polluter pays” principle.
- The Fund is designed as a non-lapsable fund under Public Accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Key Findings by 42nd standing committee on energy on stressed gas-based power plants:
- Out of India’s total installed capacity of about 345 GW of power, gas-based capacity is about 25 GW or 7.2%. However, its share in terms of generation is only 3.8% as 14,305 MW of gas-based capacity is stranded due to non-availability of domestic gas and unaffordability of imported gas.
- It has criticized the government for diverting coal cess to compensate States for revenue loss post-GST. The coal cess collected from 2010-11 to 2017-18 amounts to Rs. 86,440 crore, out of which only Rs. 29,645 crore has actually been transferred to the NCEF.
- It has recommended financial support to the stressed gas-based power projects in the country from National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF).
National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF):
- Background: The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is a fund created in 2010-11.
- Funding of NCEF: The Fund has been created out of cess on coal produced / imported under the “polluter pays” principle.
- Usage of Fund: For funding research and innovative projects in clean energy technologies of public sector or private sector entities, upto the extent of 40% of the total project cost.
- Features:
- Any project/scheme relating to Innovative methods to adopt to Clean Energy technology and Research & Development are eligible for funding under the NCEF.
- Assistance is available as a loan or as a viability gap funding, as deemed fit by the Inter-Ministerial group, which decides on the merits of such projects.
- Administration:
- The Fund is designed as a non-lapsable fund under Public Accounts and with its secretariat in Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
- An Inter-Ministerial Group, chaired by the Finance Secretary in Ministry of Finance recommends projects eligible for funding under NCEF.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Key Findings by 42nd standing committee on energy on stressed gas-based power plants:
- Out of India’s total installed capacity of about 345 GW of power, gas-based capacity is about 25 GW or 7.2%. However, its share in terms of generation is only 3.8% as 14,305 MW of gas-based capacity is stranded due to non-availability of domestic gas and unaffordability of imported gas.
- It has criticized the government for diverting coal cess to compensate States for revenue loss post-GST. The coal cess collected from 2010-11 to 2017-18 amounts to Rs. 86,440 crore, out of which only Rs. 29,645 crore has actually been transferred to the NCEF.
- It has recommended financial support to the stressed gas-based power projects in the country from National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF).
National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF):
- Background: The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is a fund created in 2010-11.
- Funding of NCEF: The Fund has been created out of cess on coal produced / imported under the “polluter pays” principle.
- Usage of Fund: For funding research and innovative projects in clean energy technologies of public sector or private sector entities, upto the extent of 40% of the total project cost.
- Features:
- Any project/scheme relating to Innovative methods to adopt to Clean Energy technology and Research & Development are eligible for funding under the NCEF.
- Assistance is available as a loan or as a viability gap funding, as deemed fit by the Inter-Ministerial group, which decides on the merits of such projects.
- Administration:
- The Fund is designed as a non-lapsable fund under Public Accounts and with its secretariat in Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
- An Inter-Ministerial Group, chaired by the Finance Secretary in Ministry of Finance recommends projects eligible for funding under NCEF.
-
Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Strategic Trade Authorisation-1 (STA-1)
- India has become the first Asian country to get the STA-1.
- Traditionally, the U.S. has placed only those countries in the STA-1 list who are members of the four export control regimes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
India has become the third Asian country after Japan and South Korea to get the Strategic Trade Authorisation-1 (STA-1) status after the U.S. issued a federal notification to this effect, paving the way for high-technology product sales to New Delhi, particularly in civil space and defence sectors.
India is the 37th country to be designated the STA-1 status by the United States.
The federal notification gains significance as the Trump Administration made an exception for India, which is yet to become a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
Traditionally, the U.S. has placed only those countries in the STA-1 list who are members of the four export control regimes: Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), Wassenaar Arrangement (WA), Australia Group (AG) and the NSG.
Incorrect
Solution: C
India has become the third Asian country after Japan and South Korea to get the Strategic Trade Authorisation-1 (STA-1) status after the U.S. issued a federal notification to this effect, paving the way for high-technology product sales to New Delhi, particularly in civil space and defence sectors.
India is the 37th country to be designated the STA-1 status by the United States.
The federal notification gains significance as the Trump Administration made an exception for India, which is yet to become a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
Traditionally, the U.S. has placed only those countries in the STA-1 list who are members of the four export control regimes: Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), Wassenaar Arrangement (WA), Australia Group (AG) and the NSG.
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Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mechanism for Marketing of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) through Minimum Support Price (MSP)
- It is a Central Sector Scheme.
- The responsibility of purchasing MFP on MSP will be with TRIFED.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Ministry of Tribal Affairs has announced inclusion of 23 additional Minor Forest Produce (MFP) items in Minimum Support Price (MSP) list.
They include Van Tulsi seeds, Van Jeera, Mushroom, Black Rice and Johar Rice among others.
Significance:
This enhances the coverage from 50 to 73 items. This comes in view of the COVID-19 pandemic so that much needed support could be provided to the tribal MFP gatherers.
What is this scheme all about?
The Union Cabinet, in 2013, approved a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for marketing of non-nationalized / non monopolized Minor Forest Produce (MFP) and development of a value chain for MFP through Minimum Support Price (MSP).
This was a measure towards social safety for MFP gatherers, who are primarily members of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) most of them in Left Wing Extremism (LWE) areas.
Objectives of the scheme:
- Ensure that the tribal population gets a remunerative price for the produce they collect from the forest and provide alternative employment avenues to them.
- Establish a system to ensure fair monetary returns for forest dweller’s efforts in collection, primary processing, storage, packaging, transportation etc, while ensuring sustainability of the resource base.
- Get them a share of revenue from the sales proceeds with costs deducted.
Implementation:
- The responsibility of purchasing MFP on MSP will be with State designated agencies.
- To ascertain market price, services of market correspondents would be availed by the designated agencies particularly for major markets trading in MFP.
- The scheme supports primary value addition as well as provides for supply chain infrastructure like cold storage, warehouses etc.
- The Ministry of Tribal Affairs will be the nodal Ministry for implementation and monitoring of the scheme. The Minimum Support Price would be determined by the Ministry with technical help of TRIFED.
What is MFP?
Section 2(i) of the Forest Rights Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants etc.
The definition of “minor forest produce” includes bamboo and cane, thereby changing the categorization of bamboo and cane as “trees” under the Indian Forest Act 1927.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Ministry of Tribal Affairs has announced inclusion of 23 additional Minor Forest Produce (MFP) items in Minimum Support Price (MSP) list.
They include Van Tulsi seeds, Van Jeera, Mushroom, Black Rice and Johar Rice among others.
Significance:
This enhances the coverage from 50 to 73 items. This comes in view of the COVID-19 pandemic so that much needed support could be provided to the tribal MFP gatherers.
What is this scheme all about?
The Union Cabinet, in 2013, approved a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for marketing of non-nationalized / non monopolized Minor Forest Produce (MFP) and development of a value chain for MFP through Minimum Support Price (MSP).
This was a measure towards social safety for MFP gatherers, who are primarily members of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) most of them in Left Wing Extremism (LWE) areas.
Objectives of the scheme:
- Ensure that the tribal population gets a remunerative price for the produce they collect from the forest and provide alternative employment avenues to them.
- Establish a system to ensure fair monetary returns for forest dweller’s efforts in collection, primary processing, storage, packaging, transportation etc, while ensuring sustainability of the resource base.
- Get them a share of revenue from the sales proceeds with costs deducted.
Implementation:
- The responsibility of purchasing MFP on MSP will be with State designated agencies.
- To ascertain market price, services of market correspondents would be availed by the designated agencies particularly for major markets trading in MFP.
- The scheme supports primary value addition as well as provides for supply chain infrastructure like cold storage, warehouses etc.
- The Ministry of Tribal Affairs will be the nodal Ministry for implementation and monitoring of the scheme. The Minimum Support Price would be determined by the Ministry with technical help of TRIFED.
What is MFP?
Section 2(i) of the Forest Rights Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants etc.
The definition of “minor forest produce” includes bamboo and cane, thereby changing the categorization of bamboo and cane as “trees” under the Indian Forest Act 1927.
-
Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
- The higher value of Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) indicates high Dissolved Oxygen (DO) content of water.
- BOD it is a reliable method of measuring water pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Dissolved Oxygen (DO)
- Presence of organic and inorganic wastes in water decreases the dissolved oxygen content of the water.
- Water having DO content below 8.0 mg/L may be considered as contaminated.
- Water having DO content below. 4.0 mg/L is considered to be highly polluted.
- DO content of water is important for the survival of aquatic organisms.
- A number of factors like surface turbulence, photosynthetic activity, O2 consumption by organisms and decomposition of organic matter are the factors which determine the amount of DO present in water.
- The higher amounts of waste increase the rates of decomposition and O2 consumption thereby decreases the DO content of water.
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
- Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
- BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
- The higher value of BOD indicates low DO content of water.
- Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials, it is not a reliable method of measuring water pollution.
Chemical oxygen demand (COD)
- Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in the water.
- COD measures the amount of oxygen in parts per million required to oxidise organic (biodegradable and non-biodegradable) and oxidizable inorganic compounds in the water sample.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Dissolved Oxygen (DO)
- Presence of organic and inorganic wastes in water decreases the dissolved oxygen content of the water.
- Water having DO content below 8.0 mg/L may be considered as contaminated.
- Water having DO content below. 4.0 mg/L is considered to be highly polluted.
- DO content of water is important for the survival of aquatic organisms.
- A number of factors like surface turbulence, photosynthetic activity, O2 consumption by organisms and decomposition of organic matter are the factors which determine the amount of DO present in water.
- The higher amounts of waste increase the rates of decomposition and O2 consumption thereby decreases the DO content of water.
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
- Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
- BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
- The higher value of BOD indicates low DO content of water.
- Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials, it is not a reliable method of measuring water pollution.
Chemical oxygen demand (COD)
- Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in the water.
- COD measures the amount of oxygen in parts per million required to oxidise organic (biodegradable and non-biodegradable) and oxidizable inorganic compounds in the water sample.
-
Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- SFIO is a multi-disciplinary organization under Ministry of Finance, consisting of experts in the field of accountancy, forensic auditing, law etc.
- It was constituted on the recommendation of Naresh Chandra Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a statutory corporate fraud investigating agency in India. Initially, it was set up by a resolution adopted by the Government of India on 2 July 2003 and carried out investigations within the existing legal framework under section 235 to 247 of the erstwhile Companies Act, 1956. It was constituted on the recommendation of Naresh Chandra Committee.
Later, Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013, accorded the statutory status to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO). It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India & primarily supervised by officers from Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Corporate Law Service, Indian Revenue Service and other Central Services.
The organisation has experts from various financial sector domains. The SFIO is mandated to conduct Multi-disciplinary investigations of major corporate frauds.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a statutory corporate fraud investigating agency in India. Initially, it was set up by a resolution adopted by the Government of India on 2 July 2003 and carried out investigations within the existing legal framework under section 235 to 247 of the erstwhile Companies Act, 1956. It was constituted on the recommendation of Naresh Chandra Committee.
Later, Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013, accorded the statutory status to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO). It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India & primarily supervised by officers from Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Corporate Law Service, Indian Revenue Service and other Central Services.
The organisation has experts from various financial sector domains. The SFIO is mandated to conduct Multi-disciplinary investigations of major corporate frauds.
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Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of lakes based on their nutrient content
- Oligotrophic: Highly nutrient rich
- Mesotrophic: Moderate nutrients
- Eutrophic: Very low nutrients
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: A
Eutrophication
- Lakes receive their water from surface runoff and along with its various chemical substances and minerals.
- Over periods spanning millennia, ageing occurs as the lakes accumulate mineral and organic matter and gradually, get filled up.
- The nutrient-enrichment of the lakes promotes the growth of algae, aquatic plants and various fauna. This process is known as natural eutrophication.
- Similar nutrient enrichment of lakes at an accelerated rate is caused by human activities and the consequent ageing phenomenon is known as cultural eutrophication.
- On the basis of their nutrient content, lakes are categorized as Oligotrophic (very low nutrients), Mesotrophic (moderate nutrients) and Eutrophic (highly nutrient rich).
- A vast majority of lakes in India are either eutrophic or mesotrophic because of the nutrients derived from their surroundings or organic wastes entering them.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Eutrophication
- Lakes receive their water from surface runoff and along with its various chemical substances and minerals.
- Over periods spanning millennia, ageing occurs as the lakes accumulate mineral and organic matter and gradually, get filled up.
- The nutrient-enrichment of the lakes promotes the growth of algae, aquatic plants and various fauna. This process is known as natural eutrophication.
- Similar nutrient enrichment of lakes at an accelerated rate is caused by human activities and the consequent ageing phenomenon is known as cultural eutrophication.
- On the basis of their nutrient content, lakes are categorized as Oligotrophic (very low nutrients), Mesotrophic (moderate nutrients) and Eutrophic (highly nutrient rich).
- A vast majority of lakes in India are either eutrophic or mesotrophic because of the nutrients derived from their surroundings or organic wastes entering them.
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Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
Index Released by
- Human Capital Index World Bank
- Global Hunger Index IFPRI
- Global Competitiveness Index IMF
Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly?
Correct
Solution: C
India has been ranked at 115 out of 157 countries on Human Capital Index (HCI) released by World Bank as part of World Development Report (WDR) 2019.Broader theme of the World Development Report.
The Global Competitiveness Index (GCI), which was launched in 1979, maps the competitiveness landscape of 141 economies through 103 indicators organised into 12 pillars. It is released by World Economic Forum.
The pillars, which cover broad socio-economic elements are: institutions, infrastructure, ICT adoption, macroeconomic stability, health, skills, product market, labour market, the financial system, market size, business dynamism and innovation capabilitrt (WDR) is “The Changing Nature of Work”.
Global Hunger Index report, jointly published by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), Concern Worldwide, and Welthungerhilfe (WHH), shows that, while the world has made gradual progress in reducing hunger on a global scale since 2000, this progress has been uneven.
Incorrect
Solution: C
India has been ranked at 115 out of 157 countries on Human Capital Index (HCI) released by World Bank as part of World Development Report (WDR) 2019.Broader theme of the World Development Report.
The Global Competitiveness Index (GCI), which was launched in 1979, maps the competitiveness landscape of 141 economies through 103 indicators organised into 12 pillars. It is released by World Economic Forum.
The pillars, which cover broad socio-economic elements are: institutions, infrastructure, ICT adoption, macroeconomic stability, health, skills, product market, labour market, the financial system, market size, business dynamism and innovation capabilitrt (WDR) is “The Changing Nature of Work”.
Global Hunger Index report, jointly published by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), Concern Worldwide, and Welthungerhilfe (WHH), shows that, while the world has made gradual progress in reducing hunger on a global scale since 2000, this progress has been uneven.
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Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Particulate pollutants
- Particulate pollutants are matter suspended in air such as dust and soot.
- Their size ranges from 0.001 to 500 micrometres (µm) in diameter.
- According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 10 µm or less in diameter (PM 10) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Particulate pollutants
- Particulate pollutants are matter suspended in air such as dust and soot.
- Major source of SPM (suspended particulate matter) are industries, vehicles, power plants, construction activities, oil refinery, railway yard, market place, industries, etc.
- Their size ranges from 0.001 to 500 micrometres (µm) in diameter.
- Particles less than 10 µm float and move freely with the air current.
- Particles which are more than 10 µm in diameter settle down.
- Particles less than 0.02 µm form persistent aerosols.
- According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 2.5 µm or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
- These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and pneumoconiosis (disease of the lungs caused due to inhalation of dust. It is characterized by inflammation, coughing, and fibrosis – excess deposition of fibrous tissue).
Incorrect
Solution: A
Particulate pollutants
- Particulate pollutants are matter suspended in air such as dust and soot.
- Major source of SPM (suspended particulate matter) are industries, vehicles, power plants, construction activities, oil refinery, railway yard, market place, industries, etc.
- Their size ranges from 0.001 to 500 micrometres (µm) in diameter.
- Particles less than 10 µm float and move freely with the air current.
- Particles which are more than 10 µm in diameter settle down.
- Particles less than 0.02 µm form persistent aerosols.
- According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 2.5 µm or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
- These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and pneumoconiosis (disease of the lungs caused due to inhalation of dust. It is characterized by inflammation, coughing, and fibrosis – excess deposition of fibrous tissue).
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Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the objectives of the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP)
- To determine status and trends of ambient air quality
- To Identify Non-Attainment Cities
- To ascertain whether the prescribed ambient air quality standards are violated
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Central Pollution Control Board is executing a nation-wide programme of ambient air quality monitoring known as National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP). The network consists of 793 operating stations covering 344 cities/towns in 29 states and 6 Union Territories of the country.
The objectives of the N.A.M.P. are to determine status and trends of ambient air quality; to ascertain whether the prescribed ambient air quality standards are violated; to Identify Non-attainment Cities; to obtain the knowledge and understanding necessary for developing preventive and corrective measures and to understand the natural cleansing process undergoing in the environment through pollution dilution, dispersion, wind based movement, dry deposition, precipitation and chemical transformation of pollutants generated.Under N.A.M.P., four air pollutants viz ., Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2, Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM10) and Fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5) have been identified for regular monitoring at all the locations. The monitoring of meteorological parameters such as wind speed and wind direction, relative humidity (RH) and temperature were also integrated with the monitoring of air quality.
The monitoring of pollutants is carried out for 24 hours (4-hourly sampling for gaseous pollutants and 8-hourly sampling for particulate matter) with a frequency of twice a week, to have one hundred and four (104) observations in a year. The monitoring is being carried out with the help of Central Pollution Control Board; State Pollution Control Boards; Pollution Control Committees; National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur. CPCB co-ordinates with these agencies to ensure the uniformity, consistency of air quality data and provides technical and financial support to them for operating the monitoring stations. N.A.M.P. is being operated through various monitoring agencies. Large number of personnel and equipments are involved in the sampling, chemical analyses, data reporting etc. It increases the probability of variation and personnel biases reflecting in the data, hence it is pertinent to mention that these data be treated as indicative rather than absolute.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Central Pollution Control Board is executing a nation-wide programme of ambient air quality monitoring known as National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP). The network consists of 793 operating stations covering 344 cities/towns in 29 states and 6 Union Territories of the country.
The objectives of the N.A.M.P. are to determine status and trends of ambient air quality; to ascertain whether the prescribed ambient air quality standards are violated; to Identify Non-attainment Cities; to obtain the knowledge and understanding necessary for developing preventive and corrective measures and to understand the natural cleansing process undergoing in the environment through pollution dilution, dispersion, wind based movement, dry deposition, precipitation and chemical transformation of pollutants generated.Under N.A.M.P., four air pollutants viz ., Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2, Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM10) and Fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5) have been identified for regular monitoring at all the locations. The monitoring of meteorological parameters such as wind speed and wind direction, relative humidity (RH) and temperature were also integrated with the monitoring of air quality.
The monitoring of pollutants is carried out for 24 hours (4-hourly sampling for gaseous pollutants and 8-hourly sampling for particulate matter) with a frequency of twice a week, to have one hundred and four (104) observations in a year. The monitoring is being carried out with the help of Central Pollution Control Board; State Pollution Control Boards; Pollution Control Committees; National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur. CPCB co-ordinates with these agencies to ensure the uniformity, consistency of air quality data and provides technical and financial support to them for operating the monitoring stations. N.A.M.P. is being operated through various monitoring agencies. Large number of personnel and equipments are involved in the sampling, chemical analyses, data reporting etc. It increases the probability of variation and personnel biases reflecting in the data, hence it is pertinent to mention that these data be treated as indicative rather than absolute.
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Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA)
- It is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Conventions on Inter-Country Adoptions, 1993
- It functions as a nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development established under Juvenile Justice Act, 2015. CARA functions as a nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoption.
It is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Conventions on Inter-Country Adoptions, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003.
CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies
Incorrect
Solution: C
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development established under Juvenile Justice Act, 2015. CARA functions as a nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoption.
It is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Conventions on Inter-Country Adoptions, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003.
CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies
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Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
- It aims to achieve a national-level target of 20-30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by between 2017 and 2024.
- Environmental Pollution Control Authority (EPCA) will execute this nation-wide programme.
- The programme will be notified under the Environment Protection Act to create a firm mandate and implement NCAP in a time bound manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Union Environment Ministry has asked for city-level plans for the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) as these problems need to be dealt with at the local level.
What is the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)?
Launched in January 2019, it is the first ever effort in the country to frame a national framework for air quality management with a time-bound reduction target.
The programme will not be notified under the Environment Protection Act or any other Act to create a firm mandate with a strong legal back up for cities and regions to implement NCAP in a time bound manner for effective reduction.
The plan includes 102 non-attainment cities, across 23 states and Union territories, which were identified by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) on the basis of their ambient air quality data between 2011 and 2015.
What are Non-attainment?
Non-attainment cities are those which have been consistently showing poorer air quality than the National Ambient Air Quality Standards. These include Delhi, Varanasi, Bhopal, Kolkata, Noida, Muzaffarpur, and Mumbai.
Target: Achieve a national-level target of 20-30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by between 2017 and 2024.
Implementation: Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) will execute this nation-wide programme in consonance with the section 162 (b) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.
As part of the programme, the Centre also plans to scale up the air quality monitoring network across India. At least 4,000 monitors are needed across the country, instead of the existing 101 real-time air quality (AQ) monitors, according to an analysis.
The plan proposes a three-tier system, including real-time physical data collection, data archiving, and an action trigger system in all 102 cities, besides extensive plantation plans, research on clean-technologies, landscaping of major arterial roads, and stringent industrial standards.
It also proposes state-level plans of e-mobility in the two-wheeler sector, rapid augmentation of charging infrastructure, stringent implementation of BS-VI norms, boosting public transportation system, and adoption of third-party audits for polluting industries.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Union Environment Ministry has asked for city-level plans for the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) as these problems need to be dealt with at the local level.
What is the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)?
Launched in January 2019, it is the first ever effort in the country to frame a national framework for air quality management with a time-bound reduction target.
The programme will not be notified under the Environment Protection Act or any other Act to create a firm mandate with a strong legal back up for cities and regions to implement NCAP in a time bound manner for effective reduction.
The plan includes 102 non-attainment cities, across 23 states and Union territories, which were identified by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) on the basis of their ambient air quality data between 2011 and 2015.
What are Non-attainment?
Non-attainment cities are those which have been consistently showing poorer air quality than the National Ambient Air Quality Standards. These include Delhi, Varanasi, Bhopal, Kolkata, Noida, Muzaffarpur, and Mumbai.
Target: Achieve a national-level target of 20-30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by between 2017 and 2024.
Implementation: Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) will execute this nation-wide programme in consonance with the section 162 (b) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.
As part of the programme, the Centre also plans to scale up the air quality monitoring network across India. At least 4,000 monitors are needed across the country, instead of the existing 101 real-time air quality (AQ) monitors, according to an analysis.
The plan proposes a three-tier system, including real-time physical data collection, data archiving, and an action trigger system in all 102 cities, besides extensive plantation plans, research on clean-technologies, landscaping of major arterial roads, and stringent industrial standards.
It also proposes state-level plans of e-mobility in the two-wheeler sector, rapid augmentation of charging infrastructure, stringent implementation of BS-VI norms, boosting public transportation system, and adoption of third-party audits for polluting industries.
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Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Population Register (NPR)
- It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR
- The NPR database would contain both demographic biometric details.
- It will be conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
National Population Register (NPR):
- It is a Register of usual residents of the country.
- It is being prepared at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
- It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
- Objectives: To create a comprehensive identity database of every usual resident in the country.
- It will be conducted by the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Home Ministry.
Who is a usual resident?
A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
Components:
- The NPR database would contain demographic as well as biometric details.
- As per the provisions of the NPR, a resident identity card (RIC) will be issued to individuals over the age of 18.
- This will be a chip-embedded smart card containing the demographic and biometric attributes of each individual.
- The UID number will also be printed on the card
Incorrect
Solution: B
National Population Register (NPR):
- It is a Register of usual residents of the country.
- It is being prepared at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
- It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
- Objectives: To create a comprehensive identity database of every usual resident in the country.
- It will be conducted by the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Home Ministry.
Who is a usual resident?
A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
Components:
- The NPR database would contain demographic as well as biometric details.
- As per the provisions of the NPR, a resident identity card (RIC) will be issued to individuals over the age of 18.
- This will be a chip-embedded smart card containing the demographic and biometric attributes of each individual.
- The UID number will also be printed on the card
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Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding PESA Act
- In the schedule areas, there will be a minimum of 50% seats reservation for Scheduled Tribes (STs) at all the tiers of Panchayats.
- The chairpersons at all levels of the Panchayats in Schedule areas shall be reserved for STs.
- The recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Gram Panchayats is mandatory for grant of prospecting license or mining lease for minor minerals in that area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Salient Provisions of PESA Act
- In the Schedule areas, every village will have a Gram Sabha consisting of persons whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayats at the village level.
- In the schedule areas, there will be a minimum of 50% seats reservation for Scheduled Tribes (STs) at all the tiers of Panchayats.
- If the area has different tribal communities, the reservation of different tribal communities shall be on the basis of proportion to their population.
- The chairpersons at all levels of the Panchayats in Schedule areas shall be reserved for STs.
- If there are no ST members at intermediate or district level Panchayats, the state government shall nominate such underrepresented STs by maximum of one-tenth of the total elected members of the Panchayats.
- Every legislation on the Panchayats in scheduled area shall be in conformity with the customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practice of the community resources.
Gram Sabha has the power to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of people, their cultural identity, community resources and customary mode of dispute resolution. It also has power to approve plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development, to identify persons as beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other programmes, to give certificate of utilisation of funds for various plans and programmes.
If there is an acquisition of land in these areas, Gram Sabha must be consulted. However, actual planning and implementation of the projects shall be co-ordinated at the state level. So, in land acquisition, the role of Panchayats in these areas is advisory only.
The recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Gram Panchayats is mandatory for grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in that area.
Gram Sabha has the right to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Salient Provisions of PESA Act
- In the Schedule areas, every village will have a Gram Sabha consisting of persons whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayats at the village level.
- In the schedule areas, there will be a minimum of 50% seats reservation for Scheduled Tribes (STs) at all the tiers of Panchayats.
- If the area has different tribal communities, the reservation of different tribal communities shall be on the basis of proportion to their population.
- The chairpersons at all levels of the Panchayats in Schedule areas shall be reserved for STs.
- If there are no ST members at intermediate or district level Panchayats, the state government shall nominate such underrepresented STs by maximum of one-tenth of the total elected members of the Panchayats.
- Every legislation on the Panchayats in scheduled area shall be in conformity with the customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practice of the community resources.
Gram Sabha has the power to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of people, their cultural identity, community resources and customary mode of dispute resolution. It also has power to approve plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development, to identify persons as beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other programmes, to give certificate of utilisation of funds for various plans and programmes.
If there is an acquisition of land in these areas, Gram Sabha must be consulted. However, actual planning and implementation of the projects shall be co-ordinated at the state level. So, in land acquisition, the role of Panchayats in these areas is advisory only.
The recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Gram Panchayats is mandatory for grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in that area.
Gram Sabha has the right to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant.
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Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following birds is/are migrates to India during a particular season?
- Black Winged Stilt
- Amur Falcon
- Bar Headed Goose
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Indian subcontinent plays host to a number of migratory birds in summers as well as winters. It is estimated that over hundred species of migratory birds fly to India, either in search of feeding grounds or to escape the severe winter of their native habitat. The numerous wildlife sanctuaries set up in the country serve as their temporary habitat.
Some of the migratory species are:
Siberian Cranes
Amur Falcon
Greater Flamingo
Demoiselle Crane
Bluethroat
Black Winged Stilt
Blue Tailed Bee Eater
Bar Headed Goose
Incorrect
Solution: D
Indian subcontinent plays host to a number of migratory birds in summers as well as winters. It is estimated that over hundred species of migratory birds fly to India, either in search of feeding grounds or to escape the severe winter of their native habitat. The numerous wildlife sanctuaries set up in the country serve as their temporary habitat.
Some of the migratory species are:
Siberian Cranes
Amur Falcon
Greater Flamingo
Demoiselle Crane
Bluethroat
Black Winged Stilt
Blue Tailed Bee Eater
Bar Headed Goose
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Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Legislative Council
- Legislative Assemblies have the power to override suggestions/amendments made to a legislation by the Council
- MLCs can vote in election of the Vice-President but they can’t vote in the elections of Rajya Sabha members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Legislative Councils:
India has a bicameral system i.e., two Houses of Parliament. At the state level, the equivalent of the Lok Sabha is the Vidhan Sabha or Legislative Assembly; that of the Rajya Sabha is the Vidhan Parishad or Legislative Council.
Why do we need a second house?
- To act as a check on hasty actions by the popularly elected House.
- To ensure that individuals who might not be cut out for the rough-and-tumble of direct elections too are able to contribute to the legislative process.
- Having a second chamber would allow for more debate and sharing of work between the Houses.
Arguments against having a second house:
- Rather than fulfilling the lofty objective of getting intellectuals into the legislature, the forum is likely to be used to accommodate party functionaries who fail to get elected.
- It is also an unnecessary drain on the exchequer.
- Unlike Rajya Sabha which has substantial powers to shape non-financial legislation, Legislative Councils lack the constitutional mandate to do so. Legislative Assemblies have the power to override suggestions/amendments made to a legislation by the Council.
- While Rajya Sabha MPs can vote in the election of the President and Vice-President, members of Legislative Councils can’t. MLCs also can’t vote in the elections of Rajya Sabha members.
- As regards Money bills, only fourteen days’ delay can be caused by the Council, which is more or less a formality rather than a barrier in the way of Money Bill passed by the Assembly.
How is a legislative council created?
Under Article 169 of the constitution, Parliament may by law create or abolish the second chamber in a state if the Legislative Assembly of that state passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority.
Strength of the house:
As per article 171 clause (1) of the Indian Constitution, the total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall not exceed one third of the total number of the members in the legislative Assembly of that state and the total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall in no case be less than 40.
How are members of the Council elected?
- 1/3rd of members are elected by members of the Assembly.
- 1/3rd by electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards and other local authorities in the state.
- 1/12th by an electorate consisting of teachers.
- 1/12th by registered graduates.
- The remaining members are nominated by the Governor from among those who have distinguished themselves in literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Legislative Councils:
India has a bicameral system i.e., two Houses of Parliament. At the state level, the equivalent of the Lok Sabha is the Vidhan Sabha or Legislative Assembly; that of the Rajya Sabha is the Vidhan Parishad or Legislative Council.
Why do we need a second house?
- To act as a check on hasty actions by the popularly elected House.
- To ensure that individuals who might not be cut out for the rough-and-tumble of direct elections too are able to contribute to the legislative process.
- Having a second chamber would allow for more debate and sharing of work between the Houses.
Arguments against having a second house:
- Rather than fulfilling the lofty objective of getting intellectuals into the legislature, the forum is likely to be used to accommodate party functionaries who fail to get elected.
- It is also an unnecessary drain on the exchequer.
- Unlike Rajya Sabha which has substantial powers to shape non-financial legislation, Legislative Councils lack the constitutional mandate to do so. Legislative Assemblies have the power to override suggestions/amendments made to a legislation by the Council.
- While Rajya Sabha MPs can vote in the election of the President and Vice-President, members of Legislative Councils can’t. MLCs also can’t vote in the elections of Rajya Sabha members.
- As regards Money bills, only fourteen days’ delay can be caused by the Council, which is more or less a formality rather than a barrier in the way of Money Bill passed by the Assembly.
How is a legislative council created?
Under Article 169 of the constitution, Parliament may by law create or abolish the second chamber in a state if the Legislative Assembly of that state passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority.
Strength of the house:
As per article 171 clause (1) of the Indian Constitution, the total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall not exceed one third of the total number of the members in the legislative Assembly of that state and the total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall in no case be less than 40.
How are members of the Council elected?
- 1/3rd of members are elected by members of the Assembly.
- 1/3rd by electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards and other local authorities in the state.
- 1/12th by an electorate consisting of teachers.
- 1/12th by registered graduates.
- The remaining members are nominated by the Governor from among those who have distinguished themselves in literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service.
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Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Aichi Targets’, frequently seen in news, are associated with:
Correct
Solution: C
The ‘Aichi Target’ adopted by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its Nagoya conference.
In the COP-10 meeting, the parties agreed that previous biodiversity protection targets are not achieved, thus need to do come up with new plans and targets
The short term plan provides a set of 20 ambitious yet achievable targets, collectively known as the Aichi Targets.
QSource: https://www.cbd.int/sp/targets/
Incorrect
Solution: C
The ‘Aichi Target’ adopted by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its Nagoya conference.
In the COP-10 meeting, the parties agreed that previous biodiversity protection targets are not achieved, thus need to do come up with new plans and targets
The short term plan provides a set of 20 ambitious yet achievable targets, collectively known as the Aichi Targets.
QSource: https://www.cbd.int/sp/targets/
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Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission
- The delimitation is aims to provide equal representation to equal segments of a population
- Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every five years.
- Its orders are final and cannot be questioned before any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Delimitation:
- Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state Assembly seats to represent changes in population.
- In this process, the number of seats allocated to different states in Lok Sabha and the total number seats in a Legislative Assembly may also change.
- The main objective of delimitation is to provide equal representation to equal segments of a population.
- It also aims at a fair division of geographical areas so that one political party doesn’t have an advantage over others in an election.
Delimitation Commission:
Delimitation is carried out by an independent Delimitation Commission.
- The Constitution mandates that its orders are final and cannot be questioned before any court as it would hold up an election indefinitely.
- Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census.
- Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission.
- Composition: The commission is made up of a retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner and the respective State Election Commissioners.
- Functions: The Commission is supposed to determine the number and boundaries of constituencies in a way that the population of all seats, so far as practicable, is the same. The Commission is also tasked with identifying seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes; these are where their population is relatively large.
- All this is done on the basis of the latest Census and, in case of difference of opinion among members of the Commission, the opinion of the majority prevails.
- The draft proposals of the Delimitation Commission are published in the Gazette of India, official gazettes of the states concerned and at least two vernacular papers for public feedback.
- The Commission also holds public sittings. After hearing the public, it considers objections and suggestions, received in writing or orally during public sittings, and carries out changes, if any, in the draft proposal.
- The final order is published in the Gazette of India and the State Gazette and comes into force on a date specified by the President.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Delimitation:
- Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state Assembly seats to represent changes in population.
- In this process, the number of seats allocated to different states in Lok Sabha and the total number seats in a Legislative Assembly may also change.
- The main objective of delimitation is to provide equal representation to equal segments of a population.
- It also aims at a fair division of geographical areas so that one political party doesn’t have an advantage over others in an election.
Delimitation Commission:
Delimitation is carried out by an independent Delimitation Commission.
- The Constitution mandates that its orders are final and cannot be questioned before any court as it would hold up an election indefinitely.
- Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census.
- Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission.
- Composition: The commission is made up of a retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner and the respective State Election Commissioners.
- Functions: The Commission is supposed to determine the number and boundaries of constituencies in a way that the population of all seats, so far as practicable, is the same. The Commission is also tasked with identifying seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes; these are where their population is relatively large.
- All this is done on the basis of the latest Census and, in case of difference of opinion among members of the Commission, the opinion of the majority prevails.
- The draft proposals of the Delimitation Commission are published in the Gazette of India, official gazettes of the states concerned and at least two vernacular papers for public feedback.
- The Commission also holds public sittings. After hearing the public, it considers objections and suggestions, received in writing or orally during public sittings, and carries out changes, if any, in the draft proposal.
- The final order is published in the Gazette of India and the State Gazette and comes into force on a date specified by the President.
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Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Pollutant Associated Disease
- Cadmium Itai-Itai
- Nitrates Blue Baby Syndrome
- Oxides of Sulphur Yokkaichi asthma
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
Itai Itai:
Water contaminated with cadmium can cause itai itai desease, Lung & Liver cancer Itai Itai also known as ouch ouch disease (a painful decease of bones & joints) caused by water contamination by cadmium.
Blue Baby Syndrome:
Excess nitrates in drinking water reacts with hemoglobin to form non- functional methaemoglobin which impairs oxygen transport
Yokkaichi asthma (SO2):
The burning of petroleum and crude oil released large quantities of sulfur oxide that caused severe smog, resulting in severe cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic bronchitis, pulmonary emphysema, and bronchial asthma among the local inhabitants
Incorrect
Solution: D
Itai Itai:
Water contaminated with cadmium can cause itai itai desease, Lung & Liver cancer Itai Itai also known as ouch ouch disease (a painful decease of bones & joints) caused by water contamination by cadmium.
Blue Baby Syndrome:
Excess nitrates in drinking water reacts with hemoglobin to form non- functional methaemoglobin which impairs oxygen transport
Yokkaichi asthma (SO2):
The burning of petroleum and crude oil released large quantities of sulfur oxide that caused severe smog, resulting in severe cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic bronchitis, pulmonary emphysema, and bronchial asthma among the local inhabitants
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Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following protocol/convention was amended through Kigali amendment?
Correct
Solution: B
Aiming at protecting the climate and the ozone layer, in October of 2016, during the 28th Meeting of the Parties to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in Kigali/Rwanda, more than 170 countries agreed to amend the Protocol. The Kigali Amendment aims for the phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by cutting their production and consumption. Given their zero impact on the depletion of the ozone layer, HFCs are currently used as replacements of hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), however they are powerful greenhouse gases.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Aiming at protecting the climate and the ozone layer, in October of 2016, during the 28th Meeting of the Parties to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in Kigali/Rwanda, more than 170 countries agreed to amend the Protocol. The Kigali Amendment aims for the phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by cutting their production and consumption. Given their zero impact on the depletion of the ozone layer, HFCs are currently used as replacements of hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), however they are powerful greenhouse gases.
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Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 points“Upper Atmosphere” book was written by
Correct
Solution: D
Context: Last year On 23 August, Chandrayaan-2 captured images of various craters on the moon while passing over its north polar region. Of the various craters, it spotted one called ‘Mitra’. It is an impact based crater named after noted Indian physicist Sisir Kumar Mitra.
Sisir Kumar Mitra:
- Mitra led the research in ionosphere– the upper region of the atmosphere–and radiophysics.
- He was the first to introduce the teaching of radio communication in India.
- His book, ‘Upper Atmosphere’ published in 1947 is still considered the Bible for research workers in the field of ionosphere.
- In 1950s, he advocated space research and high altitude rocket research programmes which had been successfully conducted by US and USSR.
- Soon after his death in 1963, India set up rocket and launching stations near the geomagnetic equatorial line and a large number of rockets and satellites were fired, bringing invaluable information of the upper atmosphere and beyond.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Context: Last year On 23 August, Chandrayaan-2 captured images of various craters on the moon while passing over its north polar region. Of the various craters, it spotted one called ‘Mitra’. It is an impact based crater named after noted Indian physicist Sisir Kumar Mitra.
Sisir Kumar Mitra:
- Mitra led the research in ionosphere– the upper region of the atmosphere–and radiophysics.
- He was the first to introduce the teaching of radio communication in India.
- His book, ‘Upper Atmosphere’ published in 1947 is still considered the Bible for research workers in the field of ionosphere.
- In 1950s, he advocated space research and high altitude rocket research programmes which had been successfully conducted by US and USSR.
- Soon after his death in 1963, India set up rocket and launching stations near the geomagnetic equatorial line and a large number of rockets and satellites were fired, bringing invaluable information of the upper atmosphere and beyond.
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Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Animal Welfare board:
- It is a statutory body established under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Animal Welfare board was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, the Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body advising the Government of India on animal welfare laws, and promotes animal welfare in the country of India.
Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.
The Board was initially within the jurisdiction of the Government of India’s Ministry of Food and Agriculture. In 1990, the subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred to the Ministry of Environment and Forests, where it now resides.
- The Board consists of 28 Members, who serve for a period of 3 years.
- It works to ensure that animal welfare laws in the country are followed and provides grants to Animal Welfare Organisations.
The Board oversees Animal Welfare Organisations (AWOs) by granting recognition to them if they meet its guidelines
Incorrect
Solution: B
Animal Welfare board was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, the Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body advising the Government of India on animal welfare laws, and promotes animal welfare in the country of India.
Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.
The Board was initially within the jurisdiction of the Government of India’s Ministry of Food and Agriculture. In 1990, the subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred to the Ministry of Environment and Forests, where it now resides.
- The Board consists of 28 Members, who serve for a period of 3 years.
- It works to ensure that animal welfare laws in the country are followed and provides grants to Animal Welfare Organisations.
The Board oversees Animal Welfare Organisations (AWOs) by granting recognition to them if they meet its guidelines
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Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Project SURE
- The project has been launched by the NITI Aayog.
- It will be the first holistic effort by the apparel industry towards gradually introducing a broader framework for establishing critical sustainability goals for the fashion industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Project SURE:
- The SURE project is a commitment by India’s apparel industry to set a sustainable pathway for the Indian fashion industry.
- SURE stands for ‘Sustainable Resolution’ – a firm commitment from the industry to move towards fashion that contributes to a clean environment.
- The project has been launched by the union Textiles Ministry, along with Clothing Manufacturers Association of India (CMAI); United Nations in India; and IMG Reliance.
- Significance: It will be the first holistic effort by the apparel industry towards gradually introducing a broader framework for establishing critical sustainability goals for the industry.
- This framework would help the industry reduce its carbon emissions, increase resource efficiency, tackle waste and water management, and create positive social impact to achieve long-term sustainability targets.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Project SURE:
- The SURE project is a commitment by India’s apparel industry to set a sustainable pathway for the Indian fashion industry.
- SURE stands for ‘Sustainable Resolution’ – a firm commitment from the industry to move towards fashion that contributes to a clean environment.
- The project has been launched by the union Textiles Ministry, along with Clothing Manufacturers Association of India (CMAI); United Nations in India; and IMG Reliance.
- Significance: It will be the first holistic effort by the apparel industry towards gradually introducing a broader framework for establishing critical sustainability goals for the industry.
- This framework would help the industry reduce its carbon emissions, increase resource efficiency, tackle waste and water management, and create positive social impact to achieve long-term sustainability targets.