INSTA REVISION PLAN 2.0
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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2020.
The following InstaTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 75 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020. The first plan ensured that those who stuck with the plan improved their scores drastically over the 70+ days period. Now you have 100+ days to further improve not only Prelims scores, but also get better at writing answers and essays before Prelims-2020. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
4 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Muslim Women ( Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019:
- It makes all declaration of talaq, except electronic form, to be void and illegal.
- It makes declaration of talaq a non cognizable offence.
- A Muslim woman against whom talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Muslim Women ( Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019:
Any pronouncement of talaq by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be void and illegal.
In the Act, “talaq” means talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaq having the effect of instantaneous and irrevocable divorce pronounced by a Muslim husband.
Offence to be cognizable, compoundable, etc.—
Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974),—
(a) an offence punishable under this Act shall be cognizable, if information relating to the commission of the offence is given to an officer in charge of a police station by the married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced or any person related to her by blood or marriage;
(b) an offence punishable under this Act shall be compoundable, at the instance of the married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced with the permission of the Magistrate, on such terms 3 and conditions as he may determine;
(c) no person accused of an offence punishable under this Act shall be released on bail unless the Magistrate, on an application filed by the accused and after hearing the married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced, is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for granting bail to such person.
Subsistence allowance.—
Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions contained in any other law for the time being in force, a married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced shall be entitled to receive from her husband such amount of subsistence allowance, for her and dependent children, as may be determined by the Magistrate.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Muslim Women ( Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019:
Any pronouncement of talaq by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be void and illegal.
In the Act, “talaq” means talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaq having the effect of instantaneous and irrevocable divorce pronounced by a Muslim husband.
Offence to be cognizable, compoundable, etc.—
Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974),—
(a) an offence punishable under this Act shall be cognizable, if information relating to the commission of the offence is given to an officer in charge of a police station by the married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced or any person related to her by blood or marriage;
(b) an offence punishable under this Act shall be compoundable, at the instance of the married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced with the permission of the Magistrate, on such terms 3 and conditions as he may determine;
(c) no person accused of an offence punishable under this Act shall be released on bail unless the Magistrate, on an application filed by the accused and after hearing the married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced, is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for granting bail to such person.
Subsistence allowance.—
Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions contained in any other law for the time being in force, a married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced shall be entitled to receive from her husband such amount of subsistence allowance, for her and dependent children, as may be determined by the Magistrate.
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsPattamadai Pai (Mat), sometimes seen in news, belongs to
Correct
Solution: C
PATTAMADAI PAI (PATTAMADAI MATS):
This is a handwoven grass mat wall hanging unique to a town called Pattamadai (Pathamadai) in Tirunelveli in Tamil Nadu. More commonly known as ‘Korai Mat’ (‘Paai’ in Tamil; ‘Chatai’ in Hindi), its base material is Korai Grass that grows mainly along riverbeds. The mat-making technique is intricate and elaborate that involves drying, soaking, splitting and dyeing the grass strands. Traditionally these mats were used for sitting, chatting and sleeping; to stay in sync with changing tastes and needs, the artisans are now transforming these mats into beautiful wall hangings, table runners, tea mats, jewellery boxes, and wallets.
Incorrect
Solution: C
PATTAMADAI PAI (PATTAMADAI MATS):
This is a handwoven grass mat wall hanging unique to a town called Pattamadai (Pathamadai) in Tirunelveli in Tamil Nadu. More commonly known as ‘Korai Mat’ (‘Paai’ in Tamil; ‘Chatai’ in Hindi), its base material is Korai Grass that grows mainly along riverbeds. The mat-making technique is intricate and elaborate that involves drying, soaking, splitting and dyeing the grass strands. Traditionally these mats were used for sitting, chatting and sleeping; to stay in sync with changing tastes and needs, the artisans are now transforming these mats into beautiful wall hangings, table runners, tea mats, jewellery boxes, and wallets.
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Indian Star tortoise:
- It has been listed under Appendix II of CITES.
- It is mainly found in the northeastern region of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
India’s proposal to upgrade the protection of star tortoises (Geochelone elegans), the smooth-coated otter (Lutrogale perspicillata) and small-clawed otters (Anoyx cinereus) in CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species on Wild Fauna and Flora) have been approved.
- These species have been listed under Appendix I of CITESand will now enjoy the highest degree of protection as there will be a complete international ban enforced on their trade.
- Appendix I of CITESlists species that are the most endangered among CITES-listed animals and plants. They are threatened with extinction and CITES prohibits international trade in specimens of these species except when the purpose of the import is not commercial, for instance for scientific research.
This species lives in three separate parts of the Indian subcontinent: western India and the extreme southeast of Pakistan (e.g., Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan in India, as well as the Thar Desert in Pakistan), in southeastern India (Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu), and on Sri Lanka. They occupy a wide variety of habitats, including semi-arid lowland forests, moist deciduous forest, thorn scrub forests, semi-desert and arid grasslands. This species has a high tolerance for habitats that are seasonally wet or dry, many populations inhabiting areas with a monsoon or rainy season followed by a long hot and dry period. Sometimes they live in agricultural areas.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/29/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-29-august-2019/
Incorrect
Solution: D
India’s proposal to upgrade the protection of star tortoises (Geochelone elegans), the smooth-coated otter (Lutrogale perspicillata) and small-clawed otters (Anoyx cinereus) in CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species on Wild Fauna and Flora) have been approved.
- These species have been listed under Appendix I of CITESand will now enjoy the highest degree of protection as there will be a complete international ban enforced on their trade.
- Appendix I of CITESlists species that are the most endangered among CITES-listed animals and plants. They are threatened with extinction and CITES prohibits international trade in specimens of these species except when the purpose of the import is not commercial, for instance for scientific research.
This species lives in three separate parts of the Indian subcontinent: western India and the extreme southeast of Pakistan (e.g., Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan in India, as well as the Thar Desert in Pakistan), in southeastern India (Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu), and on Sri Lanka. They occupy a wide variety of habitats, including semi-arid lowland forests, moist deciduous forest, thorn scrub forests, semi-desert and arid grasslands. This species has a high tolerance for habitats that are seasonally wet or dry, many populations inhabiting areas with a monsoon or rainy season followed by a long hot and dry period. Sometimes they live in agricultural areas.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/29/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-29-august-2019/
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the International Court of Justice (ICJ):
- It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN).
- The judges are elected for terms of office of nine years.
- Its official languages are English and French.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946.
The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).
The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. It is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ. Its official languages are English and French.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946.
The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).
The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. It is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ. Its official languages are English and French.
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gram Sabha
- It is a permanent body
- The term Gram Sabha is defined in the Constitution
- The power to annul a decision of the Gram Sabha rests with state Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Gram Sabha
- The term Gram Sabha is defined in the Constitution of India under Article 243(b).
- Gram Sabha is the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system and by far the largest.
- It is a permanent body.
- The power to annul a decision of the Gram Sabha rests with the Gram Sabha only.
Composition:
- Persons, those who are above 18 years of age.
- Living in the village.
- Whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat at the village level.
Powers and functions:
- Constitution mentions that Gram Sabha exercises such powers and performs such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Gram Sabha
- The term Gram Sabha is defined in the Constitution of India under Article 243(b).
- Gram Sabha is the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system and by far the largest.
- It is a permanent body.
- The power to annul a decision of the Gram Sabha rests with the Gram Sabha only.
Composition:
- Persons, those who are above 18 years of age.
- Living in the village.
- Whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat at the village level.
Powers and functions:
- Constitution mentions that Gram Sabha exercises such powers and performs such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide.
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The right to cast vote is a fundamental right
- Prisoners can cast their vote from jails through postal ballot.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Voting Rights of Prisoners
- The right to cast vote is neither a fundamental right nor a common law right and is only provided by a statute.
- The right to vote provided under the statute — Representation of the People Act — was subject to restrictions imposed by the law, which does not allow prisoners to cast vote from jails.
Who can vote and who cannot?
- Under Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, individuals in lawful custody of the police and those serving a sentence of imprisonment after conviction cannot vote. Undertrial prisoners are also excluded from participating in elections even if their names are on electoral rolls.
- Only those under preventive detention can cast their vote through postal ballots.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Voting Rights of Prisoners
- The right to cast vote is neither a fundamental right nor a common law right and is only provided by a statute.
- The right to vote provided under the statute — Representation of the People Act — was subject to restrictions imposed by the law, which does not allow prisoners to cast vote from jails.
Who can vote and who cannot?
- Under Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, individuals in lawful custody of the police and those serving a sentence of imprisonment after conviction cannot vote. Undertrial prisoners are also excluded from participating in elections even if their names are on electoral rolls.
- Only those under preventive detention can cast their vote through postal ballots.
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Leader of Opposition (LoP)
- He/She is a leader of the largest party that has not less than one-sixth of the total strength of the house.
- It is a statutory post provided by an act of the parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Leader of Opposition:
- The LOP is leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house.
- It is a statutory post defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
- LoP is referred to as the ‘shadow Prime Minister’.
- She/he is expected to be ready to take over if the government falls.
- The LoP also plays an important role in bringing cohesiveness and effectiveness to the opposition’s functioning in policy and legislative work.
- LoP plays a crucial role in bringing bipartisanship and neutrality to the appointments in institutions of accountability and transparency – CVC, CBI, CIC, Lokpal etc.
- The Speaker needs to recognise him/her as the Leader of Opposition.
- The law is clear that the Speaker is required to recognise the leader of the numerically largest party in opposition as the leader of opposition. The option of not recognising him/her is just not available.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Leader of Opposition:
- The LOP is leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house.
- It is a statutory post defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
- LoP is referred to as the ‘shadow Prime Minister’.
- She/he is expected to be ready to take over if the government falls.
- The LoP also plays an important role in bringing cohesiveness and effectiveness to the opposition’s functioning in policy and legislative work.
- LoP plays a crucial role in bringing bipartisanship and neutrality to the appointments in institutions of accountability and transparency – CVC, CBI, CIC, Lokpal etc.
- The Speaker needs to recognise him/her as the Leader of Opposition.
- The law is clear that the Speaker is required to recognise the leader of the numerically largest party in opposition as the leader of opposition. The option of not recognising him/her is just not available.
-
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries borders the Baltic Sea?
- Denmark
- Lithuania
- Sweden
- Latvia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Baltic Sea, arm of the North Atlantic Ocean, extending northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe.
Proceeding clockwise from the west, the countries bounding the Baltic are Denmark, Sweden, Finland, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, and Germany
Incorrect
Solution: D
Baltic Sea, arm of the North Atlantic Ocean, extending northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe.
Proceeding clockwise from the west, the countries bounding the Baltic are Denmark, Sweden, Finland, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, and Germany
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsWHO’s REPLACE campaign, recently seen in news, is related to
Correct
Solution: B
Eliminating trans fats is key to protecting health and saving lives: WHO estimates that every year, trans fat intake leads to more than 500,000 deaths of people from cardiovascular disease.
Industrially-produced trans fats are contained in hardened vegetable fats, such as margarine and ghee, and are often present in snack food, baked foods, and fried foods. Manufacturers often use them as they have a longer shelf life than other fats. But healthier alternatives can be used that would not affect taste or cost of food.
“WHO calls on governments to use the REPLACE action package to eliminate industrially-produced trans-fatty acids from the food supply,”said WHO Director-General, Dr Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus. “Implementing the six strategic actions in the REPLACE package will help achieve the elimination of trans fat, and represent a major victory in the global fight against cardiovascular disease.”
https://www.who.int/news-room/detail/14-05-2018-who-plan-to-eliminate-industrially-produced-trans-fatty-acids-from-global-food-supplyIncorrect
Solution: B
Eliminating trans fats is key to protecting health and saving lives: WHO estimates that every year, trans fat intake leads to more than 500,000 deaths of people from cardiovascular disease.
Industrially-produced trans fats are contained in hardened vegetable fats, such as margarine and ghee, and are often present in snack food, baked foods, and fried foods. Manufacturers often use them as they have a longer shelf life than other fats. But healthier alternatives can be used that would not affect taste or cost of food.
“WHO calls on governments to use the REPLACE action package to eliminate industrially-produced trans-fatty acids from the food supply,”said WHO Director-General, Dr Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus. “Implementing the six strategic actions in the REPLACE package will help achieve the elimination of trans fat, and represent a major victory in the global fight against cardiovascular disease.”
https://www.who.int/news-room/detail/14-05-2018-who-plan-to-eliminate-industrially-produced-trans-fatty-acids-from-global-food-supply -
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Flue-gas desulfurization technology
- It is a set of technologies used to remove sulfur dioxide (SO2) from exhaust flue gases of fossil-fuel power plants.
- It has high concentrations of sulfates, calcium, magnesium, heavy metals, TSS and ammonia.
- Flue-gas desulfurization technology is exists in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is a set of technologies used to remove sulfur dioxide (SO2) from exhaust flue gases of fossil-fuel power plants, as well as from the emissions of other sulfur oxide emitting processes.
When using a wet FGD scrubbing process, wastewater is generated, which must be treated before disposal. FGD wastewater contains high concentrations of sulfates, calcium, magnesium, heavy metals, TSS and ammonia.
The country’s largest power producer NTPC Thursday said it is installing sulphur dioxide-reducing technology flue-gas desulphurisation (FGD) at all its plants across the country.Incorrect
Solution: C
Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is a set of technologies used to remove sulfur dioxide (SO2) from exhaust flue gases of fossil-fuel power plants, as well as from the emissions of other sulfur oxide emitting processes.
When using a wet FGD scrubbing process, wastewater is generated, which must be treated before disposal. FGD wastewater contains high concentrations of sulfates, calcium, magnesium, heavy metals, TSS and ammonia.
The country’s largest power producer NTPC Thursday said it is installing sulphur dioxide-reducing technology flue-gas desulphurisation (FGD) at all its plants across the country. -
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Consumer Protection Act, 2019
- It replaces the consumer protection act, 1986.
- Consumer ProtectionCouncils will be established at the district, state and national levels to render adviceon consumer protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Consumer protection Act, 2019 would replace the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. It is not an amendment to the 1986 law, but a new consumer protection law and the act defines consumer rights
Central Consumer Protection Authority will be set up to promote, protect and enforce consumer rights. It can issue safety notices for goods and services, order refunds, recall goods and rule
against misleading advertisements.The CCPA will have an investigation wing. Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions will be set up at the District, State and National levels for adjudicating consumer complaints + Consumer Protection Councils will be established at the district, state and national levels to render advise on consumer protection
Incorrect
Solution: C
Consumer protection Act, 2019 would replace the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. It is not an amendment to the 1986 law, but a new consumer protection law and the act defines consumer rights
Central Consumer Protection Authority will be set up to promote, protect and enforce consumer rights. It can issue safety notices for goods and services, order refunds, recall goods and rule
against misleading advertisements.The CCPA will have an investigation wing. Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions will be set up at the District, State and National levels for adjudicating consumer complaints + Consumer Protection Councils will be established at the district, state and national levels to render advise on consumer protection
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following country is not a member of G-4 group?
Correct
Solution: B
The G4 nations comprising Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan are four countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council.
Unlike the G7, where the common denominator is the economy and long-term political motives, the G4’s primary aim is the permanent member seats on the Security Council. Each of these four countries have figured among the elected non-permanent members of the council since the UN’s establishment.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The G4 nations comprising Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan are four countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council.
Unlike the G7, where the common denominator is the economy and long-term political motives, the G4’s primary aim is the permanent member seats on the Security Council. Each of these four countries have figured among the elected non-permanent members of the council since the UN’s establishment.
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding India’s Nuclear Doctrine
- Nuclear programme of India was initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha.
- Nuclear weapons will only be used in retaliation against a nuclear attack on the Indian Territory or on Indian forces anywhere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Nuclear programme of India was initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha.
India’s Nuclear Doctrine: In 2003 India’s official nuclear doctrine was released. It spelled out two of the contingencies under which nuclear weapons were to be used.
The Indian doctrine also stated that it will not use nuclear weapons against non-nuclear-powered states, and would strictly control the export of such materials and technologies.
The onus of authorising retaliatory attacks was placed on the civilian political leadership, led by the Prime Minister.
India needs to build and maintain a Credible Minimum Deterrent. This includes;
(i). Sufficient and survivable nuclear forces to inflict unacceptable damage to the enemy.
(ii). Nuclear Forces must be operationally prepared at all times.
(iii). Effective Intelligence and Early Warning Capabilities.
(iv). Communication of Deterrence Capability to the enemy.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Nuclear programme of India was initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha.
India’s Nuclear Doctrine: In 2003 India’s official nuclear doctrine was released. It spelled out two of the contingencies under which nuclear weapons were to be used.
The Indian doctrine also stated that it will not use nuclear weapons against non-nuclear-powered states, and would strictly control the export of such materials and technologies.
The onus of authorising retaliatory attacks was placed on the civilian political leadership, led by the Prime Minister.
India needs to build and maintain a Credible Minimum Deterrent. This includes;
(i). Sufficient and survivable nuclear forces to inflict unacceptable damage to the enemy.
(ii). Nuclear Forces must be operationally prepared at all times.
(iii). Effective Intelligence and Early Warning Capabilities.
(iv). Communication of Deterrence Capability to the enemy.
-
Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Amazon Fund
- It is a REDD+ mechanism created to raise donationsfor non-reimbursable investments in efforts to prevent, monitor and combatdeforestation
- It is managed by World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Amazon Fund is a REDD+ mechanism created to raise donations for non-reimbursable investments in efforts to prevent, monitor and combat deforestation, as well as to promote the preservation and sustainable use in the Brazilian Amazon.
MANAGEMENT
The Amazon Fund is managed by BNDES, the Brazilian Development Bank, which is responsible for raising and investing funds, monitoring the projects supported, rendering accounts and communicating results obtained.
The Amazon Fund has a Guidance Committee (COFA), responsible for establishing guidelines and monitoring the results obtained; and a Technical Committee (CTFA), that is in charge of certifying the calculations made by the Ministry of Environment concerning the effective reductions of carbon emissions from deforestation.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Amazon Fund is a REDD+ mechanism created to raise donations for non-reimbursable investments in efforts to prevent, monitor and combat deforestation, as well as to promote the preservation and sustainable use in the Brazilian Amazon.
MANAGEMENT
The Amazon Fund is managed by BNDES, the Brazilian Development Bank, which is responsible for raising and investing funds, monitoring the projects supported, rendering accounts and communicating results obtained.
The Amazon Fund has a Guidance Committee (COFA), responsible for establishing guidelines and monitoring the results obtained; and a Technical Committee (CTFA), that is in charge of certifying the calculations made by the Ministry of Environment concerning the effective reductions of carbon emissions from deforestation.
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Joint Forest Management Committee (JFMC)
- It is an agency formed at a village level or a cluster of villages situated adjacent to Reserved Forests.
- JFMC is responsible for selecting the plant species to be planted in the forest, suggesting physical and financial targets, conducting awareness programs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Joint Forest Management Committee (JFMC) is an agency formed at a village level or a cluster of villages situated adjacent to Reserved Forests (RF) registered with the Territorial Divisional Forest Office.
JFMC is responsible for selecting the plant species to be planted in the forest, suggesting physical and financial targets, conducting awareness programs. The JFMC objectives are to ensure sustainable management of forest resources, to improve forest cover via afforestation, to restore degraded forest land, to promote conservation awareness through environmental education, restore watershed capability in catchment areas and to assure employment opportunities to the tribal communities.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Joint Forest Management Committee (JFMC) is an agency formed at a village level or a cluster of villages situated adjacent to Reserved Forests (RF) registered with the Territorial Divisional Forest Office.
JFMC is responsible for selecting the plant species to be planted in the forest, suggesting physical and financial targets, conducting awareness programs. The JFMC objectives are to ensure sustainable management of forest resources, to improve forest cover via afforestation, to restore degraded forest land, to promote conservation awareness through environmental education, restore watershed capability in catchment areas and to assure employment opportunities to the tribal communities.
Post your INSTA Revision Test score as well as your answers for the below Mains Questions in the Comments section for review.
Static question:
Critically analyse the role and challenges for NGOs in empowering the vulnerable sections of the society in Urban India. (250 words)
Ethics question :
(a) All human beings aspire for happiness. Do you agree? What does happiness mean to you? Explain with answers. (150 Words) (10 M)
(b)What does ethics seek to promote in human life? Why is it all the more important in Public Administration? (150 Words) (10 M)
Downloads :
Download answer booklet for MAINS test HERE