INSTA REVISION PLAN 2.0
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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2020.
The following InstaTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 75 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020. The first plan ensured that those who stuck with the plan improved their scores drastically over the 70+ days period. Now you have 100+ days to further improve not only Prelims scores, but also get better at writing answers and essays before Prelims-2020. All that matters is your consistency.
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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
4 pointsConsider the following statements
- Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is a national rating system for green buildings in India.
- It was conceived by Bureau of Indian Standard and developed with Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
- It is mandatory to get GRIHA for all the commercial establishments in metropolitan cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The GRIHA V 2015 rating system consists of 31 criteria categorized under various sections such as Site Planning, Construction Management, Occupant Comfort and Wellbeing, Sustainable Building Materials, Performance Monitoring and Validation, and Innovation.
Eligibility
All buildings, which are in the design stage and have built up area more than 2,500 m2, are eligible for certification under GRIHA. Building types include, but are not limited to offices, retail spaces, institutional buildings, hotels, hospital buildings, healthcare facilities, residences, and multi-family high-rise buildings.
It was conceived by TERI and developed with Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
It is not mandatory to get GRIHA rating for any of the establishments in India.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The GRIHA V 2015 rating system consists of 31 criteria categorized under various sections such as Site Planning, Construction Management, Occupant Comfort and Wellbeing, Sustainable Building Materials, Performance Monitoring and Validation, and Innovation.
Eligibility
All buildings, which are in the design stage and have built up area more than 2,500 m2, are eligible for certification under GRIHA. Building types include, but are not limited to offices, retail spaces, institutional buildings, hotels, hospital buildings, healthcare facilities, residences, and multi-family high-rise buildings.
It was conceived by TERI and developed with Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
It is not mandatory to get GRIHA rating for any of the establishments in India.
-
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Foreign Direct Investment in India
- India received the maximum FDI equity inflow from United States of America in 2019-20.
- India received the maximum investment in automobile sector from 2000 to 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
According to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), FDI equity inflow in India stood at US$ 456.79 billion during April 2000 to December 2019, indicating that government’s effort to improve ease of doing business and relaxing FDI norms has yielded results.
During 2019-20, India received the maximum FDI equity inflow from Singapore (US$ 11.65 billion), followed by Mauritius (US$ 7.45 billion), the Netherlands (US$ 3.53 billion), Japan (US$ 2.80 billion) and the USA (US$ 2.79 billion).
Services Sector (Fin., Banking, Insurance, Non-Fin/Business, Outsourcing, R&D, Courier, Tech. Testing and Analysis, Other) has received the highest (17% of total FDI) from 2000 to 2019.
Incorrect
Solution: D
According to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), FDI equity inflow in India stood at US$ 456.79 billion during April 2000 to December 2019, indicating that government’s effort to improve ease of doing business and relaxing FDI norms has yielded results.
During 2019-20, India received the maximum FDI equity inflow from Singapore (US$ 11.65 billion), followed by Mauritius (US$ 7.45 billion), the Netherlands (US$ 3.53 billion), Japan (US$ 2.80 billion) and the USA (US$ 2.79 billion).
Services Sector (Fin., Banking, Insurance, Non-Fin/Business, Outsourcing, R&D, Courier, Tech. Testing and Analysis, Other) has received the highest (17% of total FDI) from 2000 to 2019.
-
Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding New Development Bank (NDB)
- During the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB).
- Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank, however the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
During the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014), the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB). In the Fortaleza Declaration, the leaders stressed that the NDB will strengthen cooperation among BRICS and will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global development, thus contributing to collective commitments for achieving the goal of strong, sustainable and balanced growth.
Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank, however the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power.
About New Development Bank (NDB)
It is a multilateral development bank operated by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa). It was established in 2014, at the 6th BRICS Summit at Fortaleza, Brazil.
The bank is set up to foster greater financial and development cooperation among the five emerging markets
HQ is located in Shanghai, China.
Unlike the World Bank, which assigns votes based on capital share, in the New Development Bank each participant country will be assigned one vote, and none of the countries will have veto power.
https://www.ndb.int/about-us/essence/history/Incorrect
Solution: C
During the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014), the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB). In the Fortaleza Declaration, the leaders stressed that the NDB will strengthen cooperation among BRICS and will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global development, thus contributing to collective commitments for achieving the goal of strong, sustainable and balanced growth.
Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank, however the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power.
About New Development Bank (NDB)
It is a multilateral development bank operated by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa). It was established in 2014, at the 6th BRICS Summit at Fortaleza, Brazil.
The bank is set up to foster greater financial and development cooperation among the five emerging markets
HQ is located in Shanghai, China.
Unlike the World Bank, which assigns votes based on capital share, in the New Development Bank each participant country will be assigned one vote, and none of the countries will have veto power.
https://www.ndb.int/about-us/essence/history/ -
Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
- It is a statutory body set up under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
- It consists of a Chairperson and not more than ten full-time members.
- They can hold the office for three years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Context: The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has released its recommendations on “ensuring adequate numbering resources for fixed line and mobile services”.
Background:
The Telecom Department had asked TRAI to furnish its recommendations on the strategies of National Digital Communications Policy which also talks of “ensuring adequate numbering resources, by developing unified numbering plan for fixed line and mobile services.”
Key recommendations:
- There needs to be no change in dialling plan for fixed-to-fixed, mobile-to-fixed, and mobile-to-mobile calls.
- For creation of sufficient numbering space, dial all fixed to mobile calls with the prefix “0”. In the current scheme of things, “0″ is prefixed for calls made from fixed lines to mobiles in another service area.
- Need for a revised and new National Numbering Plan (NNP) to free up unutilised capacities, to create space for mobiles services.
- All the SIM-based Machine-to-Machine connections using 10-digit mobile numbering series should be shifted to the 13-digit numbering series allocated by Telecom Department for M2M communication at the earliest.
About TRAI:
It is a statutory body set up under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
It is the regulator of the telecommunications sector in India.
The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI.
Important functions:
TRAI regularly issues orders and directions on various subjects such as tariffs, interconnections, quality of service, Direct To Home (DTH) services and mobile number portability.
Composition:
- It consists of a Chairperson and not more than two full-time members and not more than two part-time members.
- They are appointed by the Central Government and the duration for which they can hold their office is three years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Context: The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has released its recommendations on “ensuring adequate numbering resources for fixed line and mobile services”.
Background:
The Telecom Department had asked TRAI to furnish its recommendations on the strategies of National Digital Communications Policy which also talks of “ensuring adequate numbering resources, by developing unified numbering plan for fixed line and mobile services.”
Key recommendations:
- There needs to be no change in dialling plan for fixed-to-fixed, mobile-to-fixed, and mobile-to-mobile calls.
- For creation of sufficient numbering space, dial all fixed to mobile calls with the prefix “0”. In the current scheme of things, “0″ is prefixed for calls made from fixed lines to mobiles in another service area.
- Need for a revised and new National Numbering Plan (NNP) to free up unutilised capacities, to create space for mobiles services.
- All the SIM-based Machine-to-Machine connections using 10-digit mobile numbering series should be shifted to the 13-digit numbering series allocated by Telecom Department for M2M communication at the earliest.
About TRAI:
It is a statutory body set up under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
It is the regulator of the telecommunications sector in India.
The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI.
Important functions:
TRAI regularly issues orders and directions on various subjects such as tariffs, interconnections, quality of service, Direct To Home (DTH) services and mobile number portability.
Composition:
- It consists of a Chairperson and not more than two full-time members and not more than two part-time members.
- They are appointed by the Central Government and the duration for which they can hold their office is three years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
-
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the members of the proposed 5G club of 10 democracies or ‘D10’ club
- G7 countries
- Australia
- South Korea
- India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Britain is proposing a ‘D10’ club of democratic partners that groups the G7 nations with Australia and the Asian technology leaders South Korea and India.
Context: The British government has approached the US with the prospect of creating a 5G club of 10 democracies, including India, amid growing security concerns related to Chinese telecom giant Huawei.
What’s the issue?
- This comes just months after British Prime Minister Boris Johnson granted Huawei a limited role in supplying kits for the UK’s 5G networks and capped its market share to 35 per cent. Back then, the UK was one of those who stood out in the face of a US-led drive to ban Huawei from entering the 5G sector.
- But by the third week of May, the Johnson government came under increasing pressure from its own Conservative party members, who demanded that Huawei’s equipment should not be allowed in UK’s 5G networks beyond 2023, owing to potential national security concerns.
- Following these demands, reports emerged the government was drawing up a plan to phase out Huawei from UK’s 5G networks in the next three years. Last week, a review was launched by the country’s intelligence chiefs, who would look into Huawei’s role in UK’s 5G plans.
Proposed D10 club of democratic partners:
It includes G7 countries – UK, US, Italy, Germany, France, Japan and Canada – plus Australia, South Korea and India.
It will aim to create alternative suppliers of 5G equipment and other technologies to avoid relying on China.
Implications:
- The key thrust behind this alliance is to allow more and more 5G equipment and technology providers to come up.
- At the same time, ensure that these new entrants belong to like-minded democratic regimes, thus alleviating any security concerns.
- The plan to form a democratic alliance in order to marginalise the Chinese tech giant Huawei comes at a time when there is rising global backlash against China for its initial handling of the coronavirus outbreak.
- There is also growing consensus among the British political class regarding resetting relations with Beijing, following the global pandemic and the havoc it has caused in the UK.
Moreover, there has been a concerted effort by the US and several other countries to keep Huawei away from their countries’ 5G networks. These countries have raised concerns regarding potential surveillance and breach of their national security by China using the state-run Huawei.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Britain is proposing a ‘D10’ club of democratic partners that groups the G7 nations with Australia and the Asian technology leaders South Korea and India.
Context: The British government has approached the US with the prospect of creating a 5G club of 10 democracies, including India, amid growing security concerns related to Chinese telecom giant Huawei.
What’s the issue?
- This comes just months after British Prime Minister Boris Johnson granted Huawei a limited role in supplying kits for the UK’s 5G networks and capped its market share to 35 per cent. Back then, the UK was one of those who stood out in the face of a US-led drive to ban Huawei from entering the 5G sector.
- But by the third week of May, the Johnson government came under increasing pressure from its own Conservative party members, who demanded that Huawei’s equipment should not be allowed in UK’s 5G networks beyond 2023, owing to potential national security concerns.
- Following these demands, reports emerged the government was drawing up a plan to phase out Huawei from UK’s 5G networks in the next three years. Last week, a review was launched by the country’s intelligence chiefs, who would look into Huawei’s role in UK’s 5G plans.
Proposed D10 club of democratic partners:
It includes G7 countries – UK, US, Italy, Germany, France, Japan and Canada – plus Australia, South Korea and India.
It will aim to create alternative suppliers of 5G equipment and other technologies to avoid relying on China.
Implications:
- The key thrust behind this alliance is to allow more and more 5G equipment and technology providers to come up.
- At the same time, ensure that these new entrants belong to like-minded democratic regimes, thus alleviating any security concerns.
- The plan to form a democratic alliance in order to marginalise the Chinese tech giant Huawei comes at a time when there is rising global backlash against China for its initial handling of the coronavirus outbreak.
- There is also growing consensus among the British political class regarding resetting relations with Beijing, following the global pandemic and the havoc it has caused in the UK.
Moreover, there has been a concerted effort by the US and several other countries to keep Huawei away from their countries’ 5G networks. These countries have raised concerns regarding potential surveillance and breach of their national security by China using the state-run Huawei.
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding African Swine Fever (ASF)
- ASF is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease that infects domestic and wild buffaloes.
- ASF is not a threat to human beings since it only spreads from animals to other animals.
- The fever has no cure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Background:
ASF has been seen in other Asian countries as well. Most recently, the Philippines had to cull more than 7,000 pigs to arrest the spread of ASF.
About African Swine Fever (ASF):
- ASF is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease that infects domestic and wild pigs, typically resulting in an acute form of hemorrhagic fever.
- It was first detected in Africa in the 1920s.
- The mortality is close to 100 per cent, and since the fever has no cure, the only way to stop it spreading is by culling the animals.
- ASF is not a threat to human beings since it only spreads from animals to other animals.
According to the FAO, “its extremely high potential for transboundary spread has placed all the countries in the region in danger and has raised the spectre of ASF once more escaping from Africa. It is a disease of growing strategic importance for global food security and household income”.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Background:
ASF has been seen in other Asian countries as well. Most recently, the Philippines had to cull more than 7,000 pigs to arrest the spread of ASF.
About African Swine Fever (ASF):
- ASF is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease that infects domestic and wild pigs, typically resulting in an acute form of hemorrhagic fever.
- It was first detected in Africa in the 1920s.
- The mortality is close to 100 per cent, and since the fever has no cure, the only way to stop it spreading is by culling the animals.
- ASF is not a threat to human beings since it only spreads from animals to other animals.
According to the FAO, “its extremely high potential for transboundary spread has placed all the countries in the region in danger and has raised the spectre of ASF once more escaping from Africa. It is a disease of growing strategic importance for global food security and household income”.
-
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsInterahamwe militia, a Hutu paramilitary organization often seen in news are active in which of the following region
Correct
Solution: B
Interahamwe militia:
- It is a far-right Hutu paramilitary organization active in the Democratic Republic of the Congo and Uganda.
- Formed around 1990 as the youth wing of the National Republican Movement for Democracy and Development (MRND according to its French name), the then-ruling party of Rwanda.
- The Interahamwe were the main perpetrators of the Rwandan genocide, during which an estimated 500,000 to 1,000,000 Tutsi, Twa, and moderate Hutus were killed from April to July 1994, and the term “Interahamwe” was widened to mean any civilian bands killing Tutsi.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Interahamwe militia:
- It is a far-right Hutu paramilitary organization active in the Democratic Republic of the Congo and Uganda.
- Formed around 1990 as the youth wing of the National Republican Movement for Democracy and Development (MRND according to its French name), the then-ruling party of Rwanda.
- The Interahamwe were the main perpetrators of the Rwandan genocide, during which an estimated 500,000 to 1,000,000 Tutsi, Twa, and moderate Hutus were killed from April to July 1994, and the term “Interahamwe” was widened to mean any civilian bands killing Tutsi.
-
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Olympic Association
- It is the governing body for the Olympics and Commonwealth Games
- It was established with Sir Dorabji Tata as the Founding President
- It is registered as a Non-Profit Organization under the Societies Registration Act of 1860.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Indian Olympic Association has constituted an 11-member committee, led by Athletics Federation of India president Adille Sumariwala, to monitor annual grant and affiliation fee of its members for the 2020-2021 cycle.
About IOA:
Indian Olympic Association is the governing body for the Olympic Movement and the Commonwealth Games in India.
It is an affiliated member of the International Olympic Committee (IOC), Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF), Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) and Association of National Olympic Committees (ANOC).
Recognised by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Functions:
- Administers various aspects of sports governance and athletes’ welfare in the country.
- Oversees the representation of athletes or teams participating in the Olympic Games, Commonwealth Games, Asian Games and other international multi-sport competitions of IOC, CGF, OCA and ANOC.
Foundation:
The IOA was established in the year 1927 with Sir Dorabji Tata and Dr. A.G. Noehren as the Founding President and Secretary General respectively. It is registered as a Non-Profit Organisation under the Societies Registration Act of 1860.
Composition:
The members of IOA include National Sports Federations, State Olympic Associations, IOC Members and other select multi-sport organisations.
Governance:
The Indian Olympic Association is currently governed by a 32-member Executive Council. The election for the Executive Council is held once in every 4 years.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Indian Olympic Association has constituted an 11-member committee, led by Athletics Federation of India president Adille Sumariwala, to monitor annual grant and affiliation fee of its members for the 2020-2021 cycle.
About IOA:
Indian Olympic Association is the governing body for the Olympic Movement and the Commonwealth Games in India.
It is an affiliated member of the International Olympic Committee (IOC), Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF), Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) and Association of National Olympic Committees (ANOC).
Recognised by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Functions:
- Administers various aspects of sports governance and athletes’ welfare in the country.
- Oversees the representation of athletes or teams participating in the Olympic Games, Commonwealth Games, Asian Games and other international multi-sport competitions of IOC, CGF, OCA and ANOC.
Foundation:
The IOA was established in the year 1927 with Sir Dorabji Tata and Dr. A.G. Noehren as the Founding President and Secretary General respectively. It is registered as a Non-Profit Organisation under the Societies Registration Act of 1860.
Composition:
The members of IOA include National Sports Federations, State Olympic Associations, IOC Members and other select multi-sport organisations.
Governance:
The Indian Olympic Association is currently governed by a 32-member Executive Council. The election for the Executive Council is held once in every 4 years.
-
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Working Mechanism for Consultation & Coordination on India-China Border Affairs (WMCC)
- WMCC was established in 2019 as an institutional mechanism for consultation and coordination for management of India-China border areas.
- It is headed by joint secretary-level officials from both sides.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Working Mechanism for Consultation & Coordination on India-China Border Affairs (WMCC)
What to study?
For Prelims and Mains: WMCC- composition, objectives and functions.
Context: India and China have activated the “working mechanism” at the diplomatic level.
This has been activated alongside the military-to-military conversation taking place at the field level to “dis-engage” and “de-escalate” the situation.
About WMCC:
The WMCC was established in 2012 as an institutional mechanism for consultation and coordination for management of India – China border areas, as well as to exchange views on strengthening communication and cooperation, including between the border security personnel of the two sides.
Composition: It is headed by joint secretary-level officials from both sides. They are entrusted to help the special representative for boundary talks, a position currently held by NSA Ajit Doval.
What’s happening now?
India’s assessment is that the Chinese are involved in what is known in military parlance as “holding the line”. While there is no agreed Line of Actual Control (LAC), both Chinese and Indian troops patrol up to their “claim lines” and then return.
In the current situation, it appears that the Chinese have crossed their perception of LAC and are now camping at the spot in a bid to “hold the line”. This “holding the line” tactic is backed by a large number of Chinese troops — much more than ordinary patrols, which is usually has 25-30 soldiers. This appears to give the impression that the Chinese are keen to dig their heels in.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Working Mechanism for Consultation & Coordination on India-China Border Affairs (WMCC)
What to study?
For Prelims and Mains: WMCC- composition, objectives and functions.
Context: India and China have activated the “working mechanism” at the diplomatic level.
This has been activated alongside the military-to-military conversation taking place at the field level to “dis-engage” and “de-escalate” the situation.
About WMCC:
The WMCC was established in 2012 as an institutional mechanism for consultation and coordination for management of India – China border areas, as well as to exchange views on strengthening communication and cooperation, including between the border security personnel of the two sides.
Composition: It is headed by joint secretary-level officials from both sides. They are entrusted to help the special representative for boundary talks, a position currently held by NSA Ajit Doval.
What’s happening now?
India’s assessment is that the Chinese are involved in what is known in military parlance as “holding the line”. While there is no agreed Line of Actual Control (LAC), both Chinese and Indian troops patrol up to their “claim lines” and then return.
In the current situation, it appears that the Chinese have crossed their perception of LAC and are now camping at the spot in a bid to “hold the line”. This “holding the line” tactic is backed by a large number of Chinese troops — much more than ordinary patrols, which is usually has 25-30 soldiers. This appears to give the impression that the Chinese are keen to dig their heels in.
-
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding United Nations Peacekeeping operations.
- Every peacekeeping mission is authorized by the Security Council.
- Peacekeeping forces are contributed by member states on a voluntary basis.
- Every Member State is legally obligated to pay their respective share for peacekeeping.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Context: International Day of UN Peacekeepers 2020 will be observed on May 29.
The theme for this year’s Day is “Women in Peacekeeping: A Key to Peace” to help mark the 20th anniversary of the adoption of UN Security Council Resolution 1325 on Women, Peace and Security.
Why may 29?
The first UN peacekeeping mission was established on 29th May 1948, when the Security Council authorized the deployment of a small number of UN military observers to the Middle East.
What is peacekeeping? It’s significance?
United Nations Peacekeeping is a joint effort between the Department of Peace Operations and the Department of Operational Support.
Every peacekeeping mission is authorized by the Security Council.
The financial resources of UN Peacekeeping operations are the collective responsibility of UN Member States. According to UN Charter every Member State is legally obligated to pay their respective share for peacekeeping.
Composition:
UN peacekeepers (often referred to as Blue Berets or Blue Helmets because of their light blue berets or helmets) can include soldiers, police officers, and civilian personnel. Peacekeeping forces are contributed by member states on a voluntary basis. Civilian staff of peace operations are international civil servants, recruited and deployed by the UN Secretariat.
Features:
- United Nations Peacekeeping helps countries torn by conflict create conditions for lasting peace.
- Peacekeeping has unique strengths, including legitimacy, burden sharing, and an ability to deploy and sustain troops and police from around the globe, integrating them with civilian peacekeepers to advance multidimensional mandates.
UN Peacekeeping is guided by three basic principles:
- Consent of the parties.
- Impartiality
- Non-use of force except in self-defense and defense of the mandate.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Context: International Day of UN Peacekeepers 2020 will be observed on May 29.
The theme for this year’s Day is “Women in Peacekeeping: A Key to Peace” to help mark the 20th anniversary of the adoption of UN Security Council Resolution 1325 on Women, Peace and Security.
Why may 29?
The first UN peacekeeping mission was established on 29th May 1948, when the Security Council authorized the deployment of a small number of UN military observers to the Middle East.
What is peacekeeping? It’s significance?
United Nations Peacekeeping is a joint effort between the Department of Peace Operations and the Department of Operational Support.
Every peacekeeping mission is authorized by the Security Council.
The financial resources of UN Peacekeeping operations are the collective responsibility of UN Member States. According to UN Charter every Member State is legally obligated to pay their respective share for peacekeeping.
Composition:
UN peacekeepers (often referred to as Blue Berets or Blue Helmets because of their light blue berets or helmets) can include soldiers, police officers, and civilian personnel. Peacekeeping forces are contributed by member states on a voluntary basis. Civilian staff of peace operations are international civil servants, recruited and deployed by the UN Secretariat.
Features:
- United Nations Peacekeeping helps countries torn by conflict create conditions for lasting peace.
- Peacekeeping has unique strengths, including legitimacy, burden sharing, and an ability to deploy and sustain troops and police from around the globe, integrating them with civilian peacekeepers to advance multidimensional mandates.
UN Peacekeeping is guided by three basic principles:
- Consent of the parties.
- Impartiality
- Non-use of force except in self-defense and defense of the mandate.
-
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Purandaradasa
- Purandara Dasa is regarded as the pitamaha of Carnatic music.
- He was a contemporary of Kanakadasa.
- It teaches complete self-surrender and unadulterated love towards Lord Krishna, the Supreme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Department of Archaeology, Heritage and Museums will soon commence field research work at Keshavapura in Araga Gram Panchayat (GP) of Tirthahalli taluk to explore definitive archaeological evidences that may put an end to speculations regarding the birthplace of Purandara Dasa.
What’s the issue?
There is much speculation about where Purandara Dasa, regarded as the pitamaha of Carnatic music, was born.
An expert committee was constituted by Kannada University, Hampi. It had come to the conclusion that it was most likely a small village called Kshemapura (now called Keshavapura) at Araga hobli in Tirthahalli taluk of Shivamogga district in Karnataka. The committee found enough evidence to believe this place, which was a major province of the Vijayanagara empire, was the birthplace of the saint.
But, some have been arguing that the saint-poet was born in Purandaragadh, near Pune in Maharashtra, and finally settled in Hampi.
About Purandaradasa:
Purandara Dasa (1484–1564) was a Haridasa, great devotee of Lord Krishna and a saint.
He was a disciple of the celebrated Madhwa philosopher-saint Vyasatirtha, and a contemporary of yet another great Haridasa, Kanakadasa.
Purandaradasa was the pioneer who blended the rich musical streams, namely the Dravidian and Aryan music, into a single stream known as Carnatic music.
Prior to his initiation to Haridasa tradition, Purandara Dasa was a rich merchant and was called as Srinivasa Nayaka.
Contributions to Indian Music:
- He formulated the basic lessons of teaching Carnatic music by structuring graded exercises known as Svaravalis and Alankaras
- He introduced the raga Mayamalavagowla as the first scale to be learnt by beginners in the field – a practice that is still followed today.
- He also composed Gitas (simple songs) for novice students.
- He is noted for composing Dasa Sahithya, as a Bhakti movement vocalist, and a music scholar.
Social reforms:
- Purandara Dasa tried to reform existing practices in the society, and preached to others in the local language, Kannada by singing devotional songs. Most of his keertanas deals with social reform and pinpoints defects found in the society.
- It teaches complete self-surrender and unadulterated love towards Lord Krishna, the Supreme.
- The philosophy of Bhakti in Purandara Dasa’s compositions stems from the essential teachings of the realistic-pluralistic Madhwa Philosophy of Vaishnavism.
- Purandara Dasa fought the evils of casteism through his songs. In his song aavakulavaadarenu aavanadarenu aatma bhavavariyada mele he wonders what is the use if one does not understand the spirit of humanism whatever caste or status one might be accredited to.
- According to Purandara Dasa there were no inequalities among men and women. Both of them had same rights and obligations in their conduct of everyday life as well as observation of pity.
- He made some forceful expressions on untouchability, which was dogging society.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Department of Archaeology, Heritage and Museums will soon commence field research work at Keshavapura in Araga Gram Panchayat (GP) of Tirthahalli taluk to explore definitive archaeological evidences that may put an end to speculations regarding the birthplace of Purandara Dasa.
What’s the issue?
There is much speculation about where Purandara Dasa, regarded as the pitamaha of Carnatic music, was born.
An expert committee was constituted by Kannada University, Hampi. It had come to the conclusion that it was most likely a small village called Kshemapura (now called Keshavapura) at Araga hobli in Tirthahalli taluk of Shivamogga district in Karnataka. The committee found enough evidence to believe this place, which was a major province of the Vijayanagara empire, was the birthplace of the saint.
But, some have been arguing that the saint-poet was born in Purandaragadh, near Pune in Maharashtra, and finally settled in Hampi.
About Purandaradasa:
Purandara Dasa (1484–1564) was a Haridasa, great devotee of Lord Krishna and a saint.
He was a disciple of the celebrated Madhwa philosopher-saint Vyasatirtha, and a contemporary of yet another great Haridasa, Kanakadasa.
Purandaradasa was the pioneer who blended the rich musical streams, namely the Dravidian and Aryan music, into a single stream known as Carnatic music.
Prior to his initiation to Haridasa tradition, Purandara Dasa was a rich merchant and was called as Srinivasa Nayaka.
Contributions to Indian Music:
- He formulated the basic lessons of teaching Carnatic music by structuring graded exercises known as Svaravalis and Alankaras
- He introduced the raga Mayamalavagowla as the first scale to be learnt by beginners in the field – a practice that is still followed today.
- He also composed Gitas (simple songs) for novice students.
- He is noted for composing Dasa Sahithya, as a Bhakti movement vocalist, and a music scholar.
Social reforms:
- Purandara Dasa tried to reform existing practices in the society, and preached to others in the local language, Kannada by singing devotional songs. Most of his keertanas deals with social reform and pinpoints defects found in the society.
- It teaches complete self-surrender and unadulterated love towards Lord Krishna, the Supreme.
- The philosophy of Bhakti in Purandara Dasa’s compositions stems from the essential teachings of the realistic-pluralistic Madhwa Philosophy of Vaishnavism.
- Purandara Dasa fought the evils of casteism through his songs. In his song aavakulavaadarenu aavanadarenu aatma bhavavariyada mele he wonders what is the use if one does not understand the spirit of humanism whatever caste or status one might be accredited to.
- According to Purandara Dasa there were no inequalities among men and women. Both of them had same rights and obligations in their conduct of everyday life as well as observation of pity.
- He made some forceful expressions on untouchability, which was dogging society.
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are criteria for Heat Waves as given by Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
- Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains.
- When the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared.
- Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 35°C for Hilly regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Several parts of north India are reeling under an intense heatwave with many districts in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh posting temperatures over 45 degrees Celsius or five degrees above what is normal.
What is a heatwave?
A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer season.
Heat Waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July.
Criteria for Heat Waves:
The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) has given the following criteria for Heat Waves:
- Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.
- When the normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40°C, Heat Wave Departure from normal is 5°C to 6°C and Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 7°C or more.
- When the normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40°C, Heat Wave Departure from normal is 4°C to 5°C and Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 6°C or more.
- When the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Several parts of north India are reeling under an intense heatwave with many districts in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh posting temperatures over 45 degrees Celsius or five degrees above what is normal.
What is a heatwave?
A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer season.
Heat Waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July.
Criteria for Heat Waves:
The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) has given the following criteria for Heat Waves:
- Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.
- When the normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40°C, Heat Wave Departure from normal is 5°C to 6°C and Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 7°C or more.
- When the normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40°C, Heat Wave Departure from normal is 4°C to 5°C and Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 6°C or more.
- When the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared.
-
Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding WHO Executive Board
- The executive Board is composed of 34 members technically qualified in the field of health.
- Union Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan is set to take charge as chairman of the WHO Executive Board at its 147th session.
- The Board chairman’s post is held by rotation for one year by each of the WHO’s six regional groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Union Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan is set to take charge as chairman of the WHO Executive Board at its 147th session.
Vardhan would succeed Dr Hiroki Nakatani of Japan, currently the Chairman of the 34-member WHO Executive Board.
What is the WHO Executive Board?
It is one of the WHO’s two decision making bodies. The other one is the World Health Assembly. The agency’s headquarters are located at Geneva in Switzerland.
Composition:
The executive Board is composed of 34 members technically qualified in the field of health.
The Board chairman’s post is held by rotation for one year by each of the WHO’s six regional groups: African Region, Region of the Americas, South-East Asia Region, European Region, Eastern Mediterranean Region, and Western Pacific Region.
Term:
Members are elected for three-year terms.
Functions:
- Sets out agenda for the Health Assembly and resolutions for forwarding to the Assembly are adopted.
- Gives effect to the decisions and policies of the Health Assembly.
- Advises it and facilitates its work.
- The Board and the Assembly create a forum for debate on health issues and for addressing concerns raised by Member States.
Both the Board and the Assembly produce three kinds of documents — Resolutions and Decisions passed by the two bodies, Official Records as published in WHO Official publications, and Documents that are presented “in session” of the two bodies.
Key facts:
- India became a party to the WHO Constitution on 12 January 1948.
- The first Regional Director for South East Asia was an Indian, Dr Chandra Mani, who served between 1948-1968.
- Since 2019, Dr Soumya Swaminathan has been the WHO’s Chief Scientist.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Union Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan is set to take charge as chairman of the WHO Executive Board at its 147th session.
Vardhan would succeed Dr Hiroki Nakatani of Japan, currently the Chairman of the 34-member WHO Executive Board.
What is the WHO Executive Board?
It is one of the WHO’s two decision making bodies. The other one is the World Health Assembly. The agency’s headquarters are located at Geneva in Switzerland.
Composition:
The executive Board is composed of 34 members technically qualified in the field of health.
The Board chairman’s post is held by rotation for one year by each of the WHO’s six regional groups: African Region, Region of the Americas, South-East Asia Region, European Region, Eastern Mediterranean Region, and Western Pacific Region.
Term:
Members are elected for three-year terms.
Functions:
- Sets out agenda for the Health Assembly and resolutions for forwarding to the Assembly are adopted.
- Gives effect to the decisions and policies of the Health Assembly.
- Advises it and facilitates its work.
- The Board and the Assembly create a forum for debate on health issues and for addressing concerns raised by Member States.
Both the Board and the Assembly produce three kinds of documents — Resolutions and Decisions passed by the two bodies, Official Records as published in WHO Official publications, and Documents that are presented “in session” of the two bodies.
Key facts:
- India became a party to the WHO Constitution on 12 January 1948.
- The first Regional Director for South East Asia was an Indian, Dr Chandra Mani, who served between 1948-1968.
- Since 2019, Dr Soumya Swaminathan has been the WHO’s Chief Scientist.
-
Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of drugs and the respective diseases treated:
Drug Name: Used for the treatment of:
- Remdesivir Rheumatology conditions
- Lopinavir HIV/AIDS
- Interferon beta-1a Ebola
- Hydroxychloroquine Multiple sclerosis
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: A
“Solidarity” is an international clinical trial to help find an effective treatment for COVID-19, launched by the World Health Organization and partners.
The Solidarity Trial will compare four treatment options against standard of care, to assess their relative effectiveness against COVID-19. By enrolling patients in multiple countries, the Solidarity Trial aims to rapidly discover whether any of the drugs slow disease progression or improve survival. Other drugs can be added based on emerging evidence.
Until there is sufficient evidence, WHO cautions against physicians and medical associations recommending or administering these unproven treatments to patients with COVID-19 or people self-medicating with them. WHO is concerned by reports of individuals self-medicating with chloroquine and causing themselves serious harm. WHO guidance on compassionate use can be found
As of 3 June 2020, more than 3500 patients have been recruited in 35 countries, with over 400 hospitals actively recruiting patients. Overall, over 100 countries have joined or expressed an interest in joining the trial, and WHO is actively supporting 60 of them with:
- ethical and regulatory approvals of the WHO core protocol;
- identification of hospitals participating in the trial;
- training of hospital clinicians on the web-based randomization and data system;
- shipping the trial drugs as requested by each participating country.
Treatment options under study
Based on evidence from laboratory, animal and clinical studies, the following treatment options were selected: Remdesivir; Lopinavir/Ritonavir; Lopinavir/Ritonavir with Interferon beta-1a; and Hydroxychloroquine.
Remdesivir was previously tested as an Ebola treatment. It has generated promising results in animal studies for Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS-CoV) and severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), which are also caused by coronaviruses, suggesting it may have some effect in patients with COVID-19.
Lopinavir/Ritonavir is a licensed treatment for HIV. Evidence for COVID-19, MERS and SARS is yet to show it can improve clinical outcomes or prevent infection. This trial aims to identify and confirm any benefit for COVID-19 patients. While there are indications from laboratory experiments that this combination may be effective against COVID-19, studies done so far in COVID-19 patients have been inconclusive.
Interferon beta-1a is used to treat multiple sclerosis.
Hydroxychloroquine is used to treat rheumatology conditions
Incorrect
Solution: A
“Solidarity” is an international clinical trial to help find an effective treatment for COVID-19, launched by the World Health Organization and partners.
The Solidarity Trial will compare four treatment options against standard of care, to assess their relative effectiveness against COVID-19. By enrolling patients in multiple countries, the Solidarity Trial aims to rapidly discover whether any of the drugs slow disease progression or improve survival. Other drugs can be added based on emerging evidence.
Until there is sufficient evidence, WHO cautions against physicians and medical associations recommending or administering these unproven treatments to patients with COVID-19 or people self-medicating with them. WHO is concerned by reports of individuals self-medicating with chloroquine and causing themselves serious harm. WHO guidance on compassionate use can be found
As of 3 June 2020, more than 3500 patients have been recruited in 35 countries, with over 400 hospitals actively recruiting patients. Overall, over 100 countries have joined or expressed an interest in joining the trial, and WHO is actively supporting 60 of them with:
- ethical and regulatory approvals of the WHO core protocol;
- identification of hospitals participating in the trial;
- training of hospital clinicians on the web-based randomization and data system;
- shipping the trial drugs as requested by each participating country.
Treatment options under study
Based on evidence from laboratory, animal and clinical studies, the following treatment options were selected: Remdesivir; Lopinavir/Ritonavir; Lopinavir/Ritonavir with Interferon beta-1a; and Hydroxychloroquine.
Remdesivir was previously tested as an Ebola treatment. It has generated promising results in animal studies for Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS-CoV) and severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), which are also caused by coronaviruses, suggesting it may have some effect in patients with COVID-19.
Lopinavir/Ritonavir is a licensed treatment for HIV. Evidence for COVID-19, MERS and SARS is yet to show it can improve clinical outcomes or prevent infection. This trial aims to identify and confirm any benefit for COVID-19 patients. While there are indications from laboratory experiments that this combination may be effective against COVID-19, studies done so far in COVID-19 patients have been inconclusive.
Interferon beta-1a is used to treat multiple sclerosis.
Hydroxychloroquine is used to treat rheumatology conditions
-
Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Toda tribes
- They are pastoral tribe of the Nīlgiri Hills.
- Their language belongs to the Dravidian family of language.
- They are recognized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in the state of Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Toda, pastoral tribe of the Nīlgiri Hills of southern India. Numbering only about 800 in the early 1960s, they were rapidly increasing in population because of improved health facilities. The Toda language is Dravidian but is the most aberrant of that linguistic stock.
The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups are: –
- Pre-agricultural level of technology,
- Low level of literacy,
- Economic backwardness,
- A declining or stagnant population.
PVTGs in the state of Tamil Nadu:
- Kattu Nayakans
- Kotas
- Kurumbas
- Irulas
- Paniyans
- Todas
Incorrect
Solution: D
Toda, pastoral tribe of the Nīlgiri Hills of southern India. Numbering only about 800 in the early 1960s, they were rapidly increasing in population because of improved health facilities. The Toda language is Dravidian but is the most aberrant of that linguistic stock.
The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups are: –
- Pre-agricultural level of technology,
- Low level of literacy,
- Economic backwardness,
- A declining or stagnant population.
PVTGs in the state of Tamil Nadu:
- Kattu Nayakans
- Kotas
- Kurumbas
- Irulas
- Paniyans
- Todas
Post your INSTA Revision Test score as well as your answers for the below Mains Questions in the Comments section for review.
Static question:
“Post independence, the States’ reorganisation and integration of India, especially the integration of north-Eastern states is still an incomplete and unsatisfactory job that’s riddled with many challenges and uncertainties .” Discuss. (250 words)
Ethics question :
What do you understand by ‘values’ and ‘ethics’? In what way is it important to be ethical along with being professionally competent? (10 marks | 150 words)