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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020.
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- Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsYanomami tribe sometime seen in the news is located in which of the following country?
CorrectSolution: B
Yanomami, also called South American Indians, live in the remote forest of the Orinoco River basin in southern Venezuela and the northernmost reaches of the Amazon River basin in northern Brazil.They numbered around 27,000 individuals throughout their range.
Recently, a Yanomami indigenous boy died in Brazil after contracting Covid-19, raising fears for the Amazon tribesIncorrectSolution: B
Yanomami, also called South American Indians, live in the remote forest of the Orinoco River basin in southern Venezuela and the northernmost reaches of the Amazon River basin in northern Brazil.They numbered around 27,000 individuals throughout their range.
Recently, a Yanomami indigenous boy died in Brazil after contracting Covid-19, raising fears for the Amazon tribes - Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding pardoning power
- Commutation denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
- Remission implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.
- Respite implies a stay of the execution of a sentence for a temporary period.
- Reprieve denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The pardoning power of the President includes the following:
- Pardon
It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
- Commutation
It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment.
- Remission
It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year.
- Respite
It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
- Reprieve
It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period. Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation from the President.
IncorrectSolution: A
The pardoning power of the President includes the following:
- Pardon
It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
- Commutation
It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment.
- Remission
It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year.
- Respite
It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
- Reprieve
It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period. Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation from the President.
- Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding principle of responsibility
- Article 75 states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
- Article 75 also contains the principle of individual responsibility.
- There is provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of a minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility. Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
The principle of collective responsibility also means that the Cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers (and other ministers) even if they differed in the cabinet meeting. It is the duty of every minister to stand by cabinet decisions and support them both within and outside the Parliament. If any minister disagrees with a cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign.
Article 75 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president, which means that the President can remove a minister even at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. However, the President removes a minister only on the advice of the Prime Minister. In case of a difference of opinion or dissatisfaction with the performance of a minister, the Prime Minister can ask him to resign or advice the President to dismiss him.
In India, there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of a minister. It is not required that an order of the President for a public act should be countersigned by a minister. Moreover, the courts are barred from enquiring into the nature of advice rendered by the ministers to the president.
IncorrectSolution: A
The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility. Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
The principle of collective responsibility also means that the Cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers (and other ministers) even if they differed in the cabinet meeting. It is the duty of every minister to stand by cabinet decisions and support them both within and outside the Parliament. If any minister disagrees with a cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign.
Article 75 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president, which means that the President can remove a minister even at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. However, the President removes a minister only on the advice of the Prime Minister. In case of a difference of opinion or dissatisfaction with the performance of a minister, the Prime Minister can ask him to resign or advice the President to dismiss him.
In India, there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of a minister. It is not required that an order of the President for a public act should be countersigned by a minister. Moreover, the courts are barred from enquiring into the nature of advice rendered by the ministers to the president.
- Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding CollabCAD
- It is a collaborative network, computer enabled software system, providing a total engineering solution from 2D drafting & detailing to 3D product design.
- The aim of this initiative is to provide a great platform to students of Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) across country to create and modify 3d designs with free flow of creativity and imagination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
CollabCAD is a collaborative network, computer enabled software system, providing a total engineering solution from 2D drafting & detailing to 3D product design.
The aim of this initiative is to provide a great platform to students of Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) across country to create and modify 3d designs with free flow of creativity and imagination.
IncorrectSolution: C
CollabCAD is a collaborative network, computer enabled software system, providing a total engineering solution from 2D drafting & detailing to 3D product design.
The aim of this initiative is to provide a great platform to students of Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) across country to create and modify 3d designs with free flow of creativity and imagination.
- Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following conditions qualify for Disqualification on Ground of Defection?
- If he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House;
- If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;
- If any nominated member joins any political party before the expiry of six months.
- If any independently elected member joins any political party;
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: C
Disqualification on Ground of Defection
The Constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualifiedfrom being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on theground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. A member incurs disqualification under the defection law:
- if he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House;
- if he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;
- if any independently elected member joins any political party; and
- if any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.
The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.
IncorrectSolution: C
Disqualification on Ground of Defection
The Constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualifiedfrom being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on theground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. A member incurs disqualification under the defection law:
- if he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House;
- if he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;
- if any independently elected member joins any political party; and
- if any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.
The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.
- Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Calling Attention Motion
- It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
- It is an Indian innovation and is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Calling Attention Motion
It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. Like the zero hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954. However, unlike the zero hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
IncorrectSolution: C
Calling Attention Motion
It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. Like the zero hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954. However, unlike the zero hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
- Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsMeru Jatra Festival, sometime seen in the news, is celebrated in which of the following organisation?
CorrectSolution: B
MeruJatra Festival is a 21-day long seasonal folk dance festival that is celebrated in the month of ‘Chaitra’. MeruJatra marks the end of the 21-day-long festival of penance named ‘DandaNata’.
During the festival, people who participate in the festival(Danduas) undergo self-inflicted pain to pay their obeisance to the lord Kali. The origin of the festival is generally traced to 8th and 9th AD after the decadence of Buddhism in Orissa.
Odisha’s Ganjam district administration has banned the MeruJatra festival and congregations due to Covid-19
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/ban-on-meru-jatra-festival/article31326060.ece
IncorrectSolution: B
MeruJatra Festival is a 21-day long seasonal folk dance festival that is celebrated in the month of ‘Chaitra’. MeruJatra marks the end of the 21-day-long festival of penance named ‘DandaNata’.
During the festival, people who participate in the festival(Danduas) undergo self-inflicted pain to pay their obeisance to the lord Kali. The origin of the festival is generally traced to 8th and 9th AD after the decadence of Buddhism in Orissa.
Odisha’s Ganjam district administration has banned the MeruJatra festival and congregations due to Covid-19
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/ban-on-meru-jatra-festival/article31326060.ece
- Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Point of Order
- A member can raise a point of order when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure.
- Debate is allowed on a point of order.
- It suspends the proceedings before the House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Point of Order
A member can raise a point of order when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure. A point of order should relate to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of the House or such articles of the Constitution that regulate the business of the House and should raise a question that is within the cognizance of the Speaker. It is usually raised by an opposition member in order to control the government. It is an extra ordinary device as it suspends the proceedings before the House. No debate is allowed on a point of order.
IncorrectSolution: C
Point of Order
A member can raise a point of order when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure. A point of order should relate to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of the House or such articles of the Constitution that regulate the business of the House and should raise a question that is within the cognizance of the Speaker. It is usually raised by an opposition member in order to control the government. It is an extra ordinary device as it suspends the proceedings before the House. No debate is allowed on a point of order.
- Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding financial bill (II)
- A financial bill (II)is a bill that contains not only any or all the matters mentioned in Article 110, but also other matters of general legislation.
- The special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House for the consideration of the bill.
- In case of a disagreement between the two Houses over such a bill, the president can summon a joint sitting of the two Houses to resolve the deadlock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Financial Bills (I)
A financial bill (I) is a bill that contains not only any or all the matters mentioned in Article 110, but also other matters of general legislation.
Financial Bills (II)
A financial bill (II) contains provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, but does not include any of the matters mentioned in Article 110. It is treated as an ordinary bill and in all respects, it is governed by the same legislative procedure which is applicable to an ordinary bill. The only special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration of the bill.
IncorrectSolution: B
Financial Bills (I)
A financial bill (I) is a bill that contains not only any or all the matters mentioned in Article 110, but also other matters of general legislation.
Financial Bills (II)
A financial bill (II) contains provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, but does not include any of the matters mentioned in Article 110. It is treated as an ordinary bill and in all respects, it is governed by the same legislative procedure which is applicable to an ordinary bill. The only special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration of the bill.
- Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding World Press Freedom Index 2020
- It is published annually by Reporters without Borderssince 2002.
- India ranks below 100 for the very first time.
- It is based on an evaluation of media freedom that measures pluralism, media independence, the quality of the legal framework and the safety of journalists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
World Press Freedom Index 2020
It is published annually by Reporters Without Borders since 2002, the World Press Freedom Index measures the level of media freedom in 180 countries.
It is based on an evaluation of media freedom that measures pluralism, media independence, the quality of the legal framework and the safety of journalists.
Norway ranks first for the fourth consecutive year and Finland and Denmark in second and third place
India has dropped two places to be ranked 142nd.
IncorrectSolution: A
World Press Freedom Index 2020
It is published annually by Reporters Without Borders since 2002, the World Press Freedom Index measures the level of media freedom in 180 countries.
It is based on an evaluation of media freedom that measures pluralism, media independence, the quality of the legal framework and the safety of journalists.
Norway ranks first for the fourth consecutive year and Finland and Denmark in second and third place
India has dropped two places to be ranked 142nd.
- Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding grants
- Exceptional Grant is for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year.
- Excess Grant is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted in Budget.
- Token Grant is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by re-appropriation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Various grants are made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special circumstances:
Supplementary Grant
It is granted when the amount authorized by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.
Additional Grant
It is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year.
Excess Grant
It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Vote of Credit
It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha.
Exceptional Grant
It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
Token Grant
It is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by re-appropriation. A demand for the grant of a token sum (of Re 1) is submitted to the vote of the Lok Sabha and if assented, funds are made available.
IncorrectSolution: A
Various grants are made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special circumstances:
Supplementary Grant
It is granted when the amount authorized by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.
Additional Grant
It is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year.
Excess Grant
It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Vote of Credit
It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha.
Exceptional Grant
It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
Token Grant
It is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by re-appropriation. A demand for the grant of a token sum (of Re 1) is submitted to the vote of the Lok Sabha and if assented, funds are made available.
- Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Committee on Public Undertakings
- This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
- The members of the committee who are from the Lok Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
- The term of office of the members is co terminus with the tenure of Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Committee on Public Undertakings
This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee. Originally, it had 15 members (10from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the Lok Sabhaand 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members of this committee are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office of the members is one year.
A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
IncorrectSolution: A
Committee on Public Undertakings
This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee. Originally, it had 15 members (10from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the Lok Sabhaand 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members of this committee are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office of the members is one year.
A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
- Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bougainville Islands
- It is known for copper deposits.
- It is an autonomous region of Indonesia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Bougainville Island is the main island of the Autonomous Region of Bougainville of Papua New Guinea.
The island is known to have the world’s largest copper deposits.
Bougainville Island is the largest of the Solomon Islands archipelago.
IncorrectSolution: A
Bougainville Island is the main island of the Autonomous Region of Bougainville of Papua New Guinea.
The island is known to have the world’s largest copper deposits.
Bougainville Island is the largest of the Solomon Islands archipelago.
- Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding General Purposes Committee
- This committee considers and advises on matters concerning affairs of the House, which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other parliamentary committee.
- In each House, this committee consists of the Deputy Speaker (Deputy Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha) as its ex-officio chairman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
General Purposes Committee
This committee considers and advises on matters concerning affairs of the House, which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other parliamentary committee. In each House, this committee consists of the presiding officer (Speaker / Chairman) as its ex-officio chairman, Deputy Speaker (Deputy Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha), members of panel of chairpersons(panel of vice chairpersons in the case of Rajya Sabha), chairpersons of all the departmental standing committees of the House, leaders of recognised parties and groups in the House and such other members as nominated by the presiding officer.
IncorrectSolution: A
General Purposes Committee
This committee considers and advises on matters concerning affairs of the House, which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other parliamentary committee. In each House, this committee consists of the presiding officer (Speaker / Chairman) as its ex-officio chairman, Deputy Speaker (Deputy Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha), members of panel of chairpersons(panel of vice chairpersons in the case of Rajya Sabha), chairpersons of all the departmental standing committees of the House, leaders of recognised parties and groups in the House and such other members as nominated by the presiding officer.
- Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG)
- IPG is an autonomous body and was formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly (Legislative).
- The membership of IPG is open to all members of Parliament.
- The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex officio president of the Group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG)
IPG is an autonomous body. It was formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly(Legislative).The membership of IPG is open to all members of Parliament. The former members of Parliament can also become associate members of the Group. But, the associate members are entitled to limited rights only. They are not entitled to representation at meetings and conferences of the IPU and the CPA. They are also not entitled to the travel concessions provided to members by certain branches of the CPA.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex officio president of the Group. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are the ex officio vice-presidents of the Group. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha acts as the ex-officio Secretary-General of the Group.
IncorrectSolution: D
Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG)
IPG is an autonomous body. It was formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly(Legislative).The membership of IPG is open to all members of Parliament. The former members of Parliament can also become associate members of the Group. But, the associate members are entitled to limited rights only. They are not entitled to representation at meetings and conferences of the IPU and the CPA. They are also not entitled to the travel concessions provided to members by certain branches of the CPA.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex officio president of the Group. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are the ex officio vice-presidents of the Group. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha acts as the ex-officio Secretary-General of the Group.
- Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gopal Krishna Gokhale
- He became president of INC in Banaras session in 1905.
- He established the Servants of India Society
- He started the Hitavada English weekly newspaper.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
Context: PM paid tributes to Gopal Krishna Gokhale on his birth anniversary. He was born on 9 May 1866.
Who was he?
- Gopal Krishna Gokhale was an Indian political leader, a social reformer during the Indian Independence Movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s political mentor.
- Gokhale campaigned for Indian self-rule and also social reform. He was the leader of the moderate faction of the Congress party that advocated reforms by working with existing government institutions
Contributions of GK Gokhale in freedom movement of India:
- He gave budget speeches as a member of the Imperial Legislative Council.
- He contributed articles to the English weekly Mahratta.
- He started english weekly newspaper, The Hitavada
- He served as Secretary of the Deccan Education Society.
- After being given charge of the Bombay Provincial Conference in 1893, he was elected to the Senate of the Bombay University.
- He visited Ireland and arranged for Irish nationalist Alfred Webb to serve as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1894.
- As a member of the Pune Municipality, twice elected its president, Gokhale continued to strive to solve the problems of the poor, and those who came to him with grievances.
- Gokhale also published a daily newspaper entitled Jnanaprakash, which allowed him to voice his reformist views on politics and society.
- He was later elected to the Council of India of the Governor-General of India in 1903.
- He was appointed as the Companion of the Order of the Indian Empire in 1904 New Year’s Honours List.
- He became president of INC in 1905 in Banaras session
- In 1905, he founded the Servants of India Society, which trained people to be selfless workers so they could work for the common good of the people. He was also elected as the President of the Indian National Congress.
- He was instrumental in the formation of the Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909, which eventually became law.
- Gokhale was a mentor to both Mohammed Jinnah and Mahatma Gandhi. Mahatma Gandhi even wrote a book called, ‘Gokhale, My Political Guru’. His core beliefs about the importance of political liberty, social reform and economic progress for all Indians are still relevant to our times.
IncorrectSolution: D
Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
Context: PM paid tributes to Gopal Krishna Gokhale on his birth anniversary. He was born on 9 May 1866.
Who was he?
- Gopal Krishna Gokhale was an Indian political leader, a social reformer during the Indian Independence Movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s political mentor.
- Gokhale campaigned for Indian self-rule and also social reform. He was the leader of the moderate faction of the Congress party that advocated reforms by working with existing government institutions
Contributions of GK Gokhale in freedom movement of India:
- He gave budget speeches as a member of the Imperial Legislative Council.
- He contributed articles to the English weekly Mahratta.
- He started english weekly newspaper, The Hitavada
- He served as Secretary of the Deccan Education Society.
- After being given charge of the Bombay Provincial Conference in 1893, he was elected to the Senate of the Bombay University.
- He visited Ireland and arranged for Irish nationalist Alfred Webb to serve as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1894.
- As a member of the Pune Municipality, twice elected its president, Gokhale continued to strive to solve the problems of the poor, and those who came to him with grievances.
- Gokhale also published a daily newspaper entitled Jnanaprakash, which allowed him to voice his reformist views on politics and society.
- He was later elected to the Council of India of the Governor-General of India in 1903.
- He was appointed as the Companion of the Order of the Indian Empire in 1904 New Year’s Honours List.
- He became president of INC in 1905 in Banaras session
- In 1905, he founded the Servants of India Society, which trained people to be selfless workers so they could work for the common good of the people. He was also elected as the President of the Indian National Congress.
- He was instrumental in the formation of the Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909, which eventually became law.
- Gokhale was a mentor to both Mohammed Jinnah and Mahatma Gandhi. Mahatma Gandhi even wrote a book called, ‘Gokhale, My Political Guru’. His core beliefs about the importance of political liberty, social reform and economic progress for all Indians are still relevant to our times.
- Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the Qualification of Supreme Court Judges?
- He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for seven years or more.
- He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years.
- He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: B
A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (a) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or (b) He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or (c) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president. From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined from time to time by the Parliament. They cannot be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency.
IncorrectSolution: B
A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (a) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or (b) He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or (c) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president. From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined from time to time by the Parliament. They cannot be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency.
- Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding writ jurisdiction of High court
- The high court can issue writs to any person, authority and government only within its territorial jurisdiction.
- The High Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo-warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right. The high court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.
There is also a difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and that of the high court. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes. It means that the writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. But the Parliament can confer on the Supreme Court, the power to issue writs for other purposes also.
IncorrectSolution: D
Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo-warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right. The high court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.
There is also a difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and that of the high court. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes. It means that the writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. But the Parliament can confer on the Supreme Court, the power to issue writs for other purposes also.
- Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gandhi Peace Prize
- It has been given by Prime Minister’s Office
- It is open to all persons regardless of nationality, creed, race or sex.
- The prize is not awarded posthumously.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Gandhi Peace Prize:
- Instituted in the year 1995 on the occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
- This annual award is given to individuals and institutions for their contributions towards social, economic and political transformation through non-violence and other Gandhian methods.
- The award carries a cash prize of Rs 1 crore, a citation and a Plaque as well as an exquisite traditional handicraft/handloom item.
- The Award for every year is selected by a Jury under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister.
- It is open to all persons regardless of nationality, creed, race or sex.
- The prize is not awarded posthumously.
Why in News?
Ministry of Culture has extended the nomination period for the Gandhi Peace Prize from 30th April to 15th June 2020, due to the lockdown in the wake of the Covid-19.
IncorrectSolution: B
Gandhi Peace Prize:
- Instituted in the year 1995 on the occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
- This annual award is given to individuals and institutions for their contributions towards social, economic and political transformation through non-violence and other Gandhian methods.
- The award carries a cash prize of Rs 1 crore, a citation and a Plaque as well as an exquisite traditional handicraft/handloom item.
- The Award for every year is selected by a Jury under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister.
- It is open to all persons regardless of nationality, creed, race or sex.
- The prize is not awarded posthumously.
Why in News?
Ministry of Culture has extended the nomination period for the Gandhi Peace Prize from 30th April to 15th June 2020, due to the lockdown in the wake of the Covid-19.
- Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding constitutional position of the Legislative council being unequal with Assembly
- A Money Bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council.
- The final power of passing an ordinary bill also lies with the assembly.
- The council has effective say in the ratification of a constitutional amendment bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The constitutional position of the Legislative council
Unequal with Assembly
In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are unequal to that of the assembly:
- A Money Bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council.
- The council cannot amend or reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the assembly within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations.
- The assembly can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendation of the council. In both the cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses.
- The final power to decide whether a particular bill is a money bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the assembly.
- The final power of passing an ordinary bill also lies with the assembly. At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months–three months in the first instance and one month in the second instance. In other words, the council is not even a revising body like the Rajya Sabha; it is only a dilatory chamber or an advisory body.
- The council can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the assembly).
- The council cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because, the council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the assembly. But, the council can discus and criticize the policies and activities of the Government.
- When an ordinary bill, which has originated in the council and was sent to the assembly, is rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead.
- The council does not participate in the election of the president of India and representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha.
- The council has no effective say in the ratification of a constitutional amendment bill. In this respect also, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
- Finally, the very existence of the council depends on the will of the assembly. The council can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of the assembly.
IncorrectSolution: A
The constitutional position of the Legislative council
Unequal with Assembly
In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are unequal to that of the assembly:
- A Money Bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council.
- The council cannot amend or reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the assembly within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations.
- The assembly can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendation of the council. In both the cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses.
- The final power to decide whether a particular bill is a money bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the assembly.
- The final power of passing an ordinary bill also lies with the assembly. At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months–three months in the first instance and one month in the second instance. In other words, the council is not even a revising body like the Rajya Sabha; it is only a dilatory chamber or an advisory body.
- The council can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the assembly).
- The council cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because, the council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the assembly. But, the council can discus and criticize the policies and activities of the Government.
- When an ordinary bill, which has originated in the council and was sent to the assembly, is rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead.
- The council does not participate in the election of the president of India and representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha.
- The council has no effective say in the ratification of a constitutional amendment bill. In this respect also, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
- Finally, the very existence of the council depends on the will of the assembly. The council can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of the assembly.
- Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding CHAMPIONS portal
- It has been launched by Ministry of Science and Technology
- It is aimed at assisting Indian MSMEs march into big league as National and Global CHAMPIONS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
CHAMPIONS portal:
- Launched by the Union Ministry of MSME.
- It is a Technology driven Control Room-Cum-Management Information System.
- CHAMPIONS stands for Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for Increasing the Output and National Strength.
- It utilizes modern ICT tools such as telephone, internet and video conference, and aims to assist Indian MSMEs to march into big league as National and Global CHAMPIONS.
- It aims to make the smaller units big by providing them various facilities such as solving their grievances, encouraging, supporting, helping and hand holding.
- The system utilising modern ICT tools is aimed at assisting Indian MSMEs march into big league as National and Global CHAMPIONS.
IncorrectSolution: B
CHAMPIONS portal:
- Launched by the Union Ministry of MSME.
- It is a Technology driven Control Room-Cum-Management Information System.
- CHAMPIONS stands for Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for Increasing the Output and National Strength.
- It utilizes modern ICT tools such as telephone, internet and video conference, and aims to assist Indian MSMEs to march into big league as National and Global CHAMPIONS.
- It aims to make the smaller units big by providing them various facilities such as solving their grievances, encouraging, supporting, helping and hand holding.
- The system utilising modern ICT tools is aimed at assisting Indian MSMEs march into big league as National and Global CHAMPIONS.
- Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Tribunals
- While Article 323 A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323 B contemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters.
- While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323 B can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures.
- Under Article 323 A, there is no question of hierarchy of tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles–Article 323A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters.
Article 323 A empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Centre, the states, local bodies, public corporations and other public authorities. In other words, Article 323 A enables the Parliament to take out the adjudication of disputes relating to service matters from the civil courts and high courts and place it before the administrative ribunals.
Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state legislatures are authorized to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:
(a) Taxation
(b) Foreign exchange, import and export
(c) Industrial and labour
(d) Land reforms
(e) Ceiling on urban property
(f) Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
(g) Food stuffs
(h) Rent and tenancy rights3
Articles 323 A and 323 B differs in the following three aspects:
- While Article 323 A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323 B contemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters(mentioned above).
- While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323 B can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures with respect to matters falling within their legislative competence.
- Under Article 323 A, only one tribunal for the Centre and one for each state or two or more states may be established. There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
IncorrectSolution: D
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles–Article 323A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters.
Article 323 A empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Centre, the states, local bodies, public corporations and other public authorities. In other words, Article 323 A enables the Parliament to take out the adjudication of disputes relating to service matters from the civil courts and high courts and place it before the administrative ribunals.
Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state legislatures are authorized to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:
(a) Taxation
(b) Foreign exchange, import and export
(c) Industrial and labour
(d) Land reforms
(e) Ceiling on urban property
(f) Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
(g) Food stuffs
(h) Rent and tenancy rights3
Articles 323 A and 323 B differs in the following three aspects:
- While Article 323 A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323 B contemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters(mentioned above).
- While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323 B can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures with respect to matters falling within their legislative competence.
- Under Article 323 A, only one tribunal for the Centre and one for each state or two or more states may be established. There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
- Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Commonwealth of Nations
- It is an organization of fifty-three states that were principally below the colonial rule of British Government
- It was established in 1949 by the London Declaration.
- It operates by intergovernmental consensus of the member states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
Commonwealth of Nations:
- The Commonwealth of Nations, at one time known as British Commonwealth, is an organisation of fifty-three states that were principally below the colonial rule of British Government.
- They came into existence with the proclamation of sovereignty of the state from the colonial rule of British Empire and were later given self-governance.
- The London Declaration was a declaration issued by the 1949 Commonwealth Prime Ministers’ Conference on the issue of India’s continued membership of the Commonwealth of Nations after its transition to a republican constitution.
- It proclaims that the Commonwealth nations are “free and equal.” The insignia of this Commonwealth Association is Queen Elizabeth II who is considered the Supreme of the Commonwealth nations.
- The member states of the commonwealth are not legally liable or bound to each other. They are rather united by language, history, culture, likeness of the democracy, human rights and the rule of law.
- Composition: intergovernmental organization of 53 member states that are mostly former territories of the British Empire.
- It operates by intergovernmental consensus of the member states.
- Established in 1949 by the London Declaration.
- Structure: Head of the Commonwealth — Queen Elizabeth II is the Head of the Commonwealth. The position is symbolic.
IncorrectSolution: D
Commonwealth of Nations:
- The Commonwealth of Nations, at one time known as British Commonwealth, is an organisation of fifty-three states that were principally below the colonial rule of British Government.
- They came into existence with the proclamation of sovereignty of the state from the colonial rule of British Empire and were later given self-governance.
- The London Declaration was a declaration issued by the 1949 Commonwealth Prime Ministers’ Conference on the issue of India’s continued membership of the Commonwealth of Nations after its transition to a republican constitution.
- It proclaims that the Commonwealth nations are “free and equal.” The insignia of this Commonwealth Association is Queen Elizabeth II who is considered the Supreme of the Commonwealth nations.
- The member states of the commonwealth are not legally liable or bound to each other. They are rather united by language, history, culture, likeness of the democracy, human rights and the rule of law.
- Composition: intergovernmental organization of 53 member states that are mostly former territories of the British Empire.
- It operates by intergovernmental consensus of the member states.
- Established in 1949 by the London Declaration.
- Structure: Head of the Commonwealth — Queen Elizabeth II is the Head of the Commonwealth. The position is symbolic.
- Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Compulsory Provisions under 73rd Constitutional amendment act
- Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
- Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
- Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Voting rights of the chairperson and other members of a panchayat elected directly or indirectly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Compulsory Provisions
- Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
- Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
- Voting rights of the chairperson and other members of a panchayat elected directly or indirectly.
- 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
- Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons)for women in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat.
- Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
- Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
B. Voluntary Provisions
- Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
- Determining the manner of election of the chairperson of the village panchayat.
- Giving representation to the chairpersons of the village panchayats in the intermediate panchayats or in the case of a state not having intermediate panchayats, in the district panchayats.
- Giving representation to the chairpersons of the intermediate panchayats in the district panchayats.
- Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.
- Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons)for backward classes in panchayats at any level.
- Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government (in brief, making them autonomous bodies).
- Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
- Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
- Assigning to a panchayat the taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government.
- Making the grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the consolidated fund of the state.
- Providing for constitution of funds for crediting all moneys of the panchayats.
IncorrectSolution: B
Compulsory Provisions
- Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
- Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
- Voting rights of the chairperson and other members of a panchayat elected directly or indirectly.
- 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
- Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons)for women in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat.
- Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
- Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
B. Voluntary Provisions
- Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
- Determining the manner of election of the chairperson of the village panchayat.
- Giving representation to the chairpersons of the village panchayats in the intermediate panchayats or in the case of a state not having intermediate panchayats, in the district panchayats.
- Giving representation to the chairpersons of the intermediate panchayats in the district panchayats.
- Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.
- Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons)for backward classes in panchayats at any level.
- Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government (in brief, making them autonomous bodies).
- Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
- Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
- Assigning to a panchayat the taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government.
- Making the grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the consolidated fund of the state.
- Providing for constitution of funds for crediting all moneys of the panchayats.
- Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsEnergy Transition Index has been released by
CorrectSolution: D
Context: World Economic Forum has released its global Energy Transition index.
About Energy Transition Index (ETI):
- The Energy Transition Index (ETI) is a fact-based ranking intended to enable policy-makers and businesses to plot the course for a successful energy transition.
- The benchmarking of energy systems is carried out annually across countries. Part of the World Economic Forum’s Fostering Effective Energy Transition initiative, it builds on its predecessor, the Energy Architecture Performance Index. The ETI does not only benchmark countries on their current energy system performance, but also provides a forward‑looking lens as it measures their readiness for the energy transition.
Performance of India:
- India has moved up two places to rank 74th.
- It has shown improvements on all key parameters of economic growth, energy security and environmental sustainability.
- Gains have come from a government-mandated renewable energy expansion programme, now extended to 275 GW by 2027.
- India has also made significant strides in energy efficiency through bulk procurement of LED bulbs, smart meters, and programs for labeling of appliances.
- India is one of the few countries in the world to have made consistent year-on-year progress since 2015.
- India’s improvements have come across all three dimensions of the energy triangle — economic development and growth, energy access and security, and environmental sustainability.
IncorrectSolution: D
Context: World Economic Forum has released its global Energy Transition index.
About Energy Transition Index (ETI):
- The Energy Transition Index (ETI) is a fact-based ranking intended to enable policy-makers and businesses to plot the course for a successful energy transition.
- The benchmarking of energy systems is carried out annually across countries. Part of the World Economic Forum’s Fostering Effective Energy Transition initiative, it builds on its predecessor, the Energy Architecture Performance Index. The ETI does not only benchmark countries on their current energy system performance, but also provides a forward‑looking lens as it measures their readiness for the energy transition.
Performance of India:
- India has moved up two places to rank 74th.
- It has shown improvements on all key parameters of economic growth, energy security and environmental sustainability.
- Gains have come from a government-mandated renewable energy expansion programme, now extended to 275 GW by 2027.
- India has also made significant strides in energy efficiency through bulk procurement of LED bulbs, smart meters, and programs for labeling of appliances.
- India is one of the few countries in the world to have made consistent year-on-year progress since 2015.
- India’s improvements have come across all three dimensions of the energy triangle — economic development and growth, energy access and security, and environmental sustainability.
- Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsDirection for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow:
Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. D is between A and B. C is between F and E. A andF are opposite to each other. A is at the immediate right of D.
Who is at the second left of E?
CorrectSolution: A
IncorrectSolution: A
- Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsWho is sitting exactly opposite to B?
CorrectSolution: D
IncorrectSolution: D
- Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsWho is sitting immediate right to C?
CorrectSolution: B
IncorrectSolution: B
- Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThere are eight members in a family in three generation i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and M. Among them there are only two married couples and only four males. R is married to P. Q is the only child of S. U is married and she has a mother-in-law. S is paternal grandmother of T. P is father of T’s mother and V. M is not a female member of a family. T is brother of M.
How is R related to M?
CorrectSolution: C
R is the maternal grandmother of M.
IncorrectSolution: C
R is the maternal grandmother of M.
- Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
Shutting down internet access is a supply-side attempt to curb panic, rumours and hate speech. But it surely has negative economic costs, in terms of a shutdown of legitimate e-commerce. It hurts businesses and services that depend on digital connectivity. India had the dubious distinction of being the world’s leader in internet shutdowns last year, according to Software Freedom Law Center. India has more users of WhatsApp than the US, and is also among Facebook’s top three markets globally by subscriber count.
Which of the following option(s) is/are valid argument(s) against enforcing a social media ban?
- Transparency gets impacted by such bans
- India ranks poorly in social media freedom indices
- There are economic ramifications to social media ban
CorrectAnswer.D.
Reading of the passage indicates that I is incorrect and III is correct. The question is talking in general about the arguments against social media ban and not restricting itself specifically to India. Hence II is incorrect.
IncorrectAnswer.D.
Reading of the passage indicates that I is incorrect and III is correct. The question is talking in general about the arguments against social media ban and not restricting itself specifically to India. Hence II is incorrect.