DAY – 62 (InstaTest-62): Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2020: Topic – Indian Polity, Previous year UPSC papers – 2004, April 2020 CA Revision

Solution: C

Corona Bonds would be a collective debt amongst EU member states, with the aim of providing financial relief to Eurozone countries battered by the corona virus.

Corona bonds are joint debt issued to member states of the EU. The funds would be common and would come from the European Investment Bank. This would be mutualised debt, taken collectively by all member states of the European Union.

Countries like Italy, Spain which have suffered huge deaths due to Covid-19 are demanding such kind of economic measures from the EU to meet the extraordinary situation. However, Germany, Netherlands, Austria and Finland, also known as the “Frugal Four“, the fiscally conservative EU states have opposed such type of idea

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/07/euro-corona-bonds/

Solution: C

Indian Councils Act of 1861

The features of this Act were as follows:

1. It made a beginning of the representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It, thus, provided that the Viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then Viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council–the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.
2. It initiated the process of decentralization by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It, thus, reversed the centralizing tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy tothe provinces in 1937.
3. It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Provinces and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1886 and 1897,respectively.
4. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council. It also gave a recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorized to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).
5. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.

Solution: C

Sources Features Borrowed

1. Government of India Act of 1935

Federal Scheme, Office of governor, Judiciary, Public Service Commissions, Emergency provisions and administrative details.

2. British Constitution

Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, legislative procedure, single

citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism.

3. US Constitution

Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review,

impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice president.

4. Irish Constitution

Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and method of election of president.

5. Canadian Constitution

Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the

Centre, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

6. Australian Constitution

Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and inter-course, and joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.

7. Weimar Constitution of Germany

Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.

8. Soviet Constitution(USSR, now Russia)

Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and

political) in the Preamble.

9. French Constitution

Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble.

10. South African Constitution

Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of Rajya Sabha.

11. Japanese Constitution

Procedure established by Law.

Solution: B
Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccination

Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis (TB).Unlike other vaccines, the BCG vaccine may also boost the innate immune system, first-line defenses that keep a variety of pathogens from entering the body or from establishing an infection
The BCG vaccine contains a live but weakened strain of tuberculosis bacteria that provokes the body to develop antibodies to attack TB bacteria. This is called an adaptive immune response, because the body develops a defense against a specific disease-causing microorganism, or pathogen, after encountering it.

https://www.who.int/news-room/commentaries/detail/bacille-calmette-gu%C3%A9rin-(bcg)-vaccination-and-covid-19

Solution: D

Maharashtra and Gujarat

In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate states–Maharashtra for Marathi speaking people and Gujarat for Gujarati speaking people.

Haryana, Chandigarh and Himachal Pradesh

In 1966, the State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana, the 17th state of the Indian Union, and the union territory of Chandigarh.

Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa

In 1987, three new States of Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa came into being as the 23rd, 24th and 25th states of the Indian Union respectively.

Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand

In 2000, three more new States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were created out of the territories of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, respectively.

Solution: B

Equality before Law and Equal Protection of Laws

Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. This provision confers rights on all persons whether citizens or foreigners. Moreover, the word ‘person’ includes legal persons, viz, statutory corporations, companies, registered societies or any other type of legal person.

The concept of ‘equality before law’ is of British origin while the concept of ‘equal protection of laws’ has been taken from the American Constitution. The first concept connotes: (a) the absence of any special privileges in favour of any person, (b) the equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts, and (c) no person (whether rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) is above the law.

The second concept, on the other hand, connotes: (a) the equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in the privileges conferred and liabilities imposed by the laws, (b) the similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated, and (c) the like should be treated alike without any discrimination.

Thus, the former is a negative concept while the latter is a positive concept. However, both of them aim at establishing equality of legal status, opportunity and justice.

Solution: D

It is a Central Sector Scheme. It aims to provide a mechanism for MPs to recommend works of developmental nature based on locally felt needs.
[The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is ₹5 crore]

Elected MPs(LS) : can recommend works in their respective constituencies. Elected MPs(RS) : can recommend works anywhere in state from which they are elected.

The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Division is entrusted with the responsibility of implementation of Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS). Under the scheme, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs.5 Crores per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency and he/she in turn implements the project.

Nominated MPs(LS & RS) : may select works for implementation anywhere in the country Union Cabinet has approved a 30% cut in the salaries of all MP under MPLAD scheme so that the amount saved can go to the Consolidated Fund of India to fight COVID-19.

https://www.mplads.gov.in/mplads/Default.aspx

Solution: A

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children(Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).

The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject-matter of Article 45and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A. The amended directive requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to cooperative societies. It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies(Article 43B).

Solution: D

Besides the Fundamental Rights included in Part III, there are certain other rights contained in other parts of the Constitution. These rights are known as constitutional rights or legal rights or non-fundamental rights. They are:

1. No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law (Article 265 in Part XII).
2. No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law (Article 300-A in Part XII).
3. Trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free (Article 301 in Part XIII).

Even though the above rights are also equally justiciable, they are different from the Fundamental Rights. In case of violation of a Fundamental Right, the aggrieved person can directly move the Supreme Court for its enforcement under Article 32, which is in itself a fundamental right. But, in case of violation of the above rights, the aggrieved person cannot avail this constitutional remedy. He can move the High Court by an ordinary suit or under Article 226 (writ jurisdiction of high court).

Solution: D

SAFE PLUS Scheme

Small Industries Development Bank of India(SIDBI) has launched the SIDBI Assistance to Facilitate Emergency response against Corona virus (SAFE PLUS) Scheme.

It aims to provide financial assistance of up to Rs 1 crore to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises(MSMEs) that are involved in making essential items to combat COVID-19 pandemic.

https://sidbi.in/files/banners/SAFE%20PLus%20-%20One%20Pager.pdf

Solution: A

By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States

Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. If one or some or all the remaining states take no action on the bill, it does not matter; the moment half of the states give their consent, the formality is completed. There is no time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill.

The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
4. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
5. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
6. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
7. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
8. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

Solution: B

Parliamentary System

Features:

1. Dual executive.
2. Majority party rule
3. Collective responsibility.
4. Political homogeneity
5. Double membership.
6. Leadership of prime minister.
7. Dissolution of Lower House.
8. Fusion of powers.

Merits:

1. Harmony between legislature and executive.
2. Responsible government.
3. Prevents despotism.
4. Wide representation.

Demerits:

1. Unstable government.
2. No continuity of policies.
3. Against separation of powers
4. Government by amateurs.

Presidential System

Features:

1. Single executive.
2. President and legislators elected separately for a fixed term.
3. Non-responsibility
4. Political homogeneity may not exist.
5. Single membership
6. Domination of president.
7. No dissolution of Lower House.
8. Separation of powers.

Demerits:

1. Conflict between legislature and executive.
2. Non-responsible government.
3. May lead to autocracy.
4. Narrow representation.

Merits:

1. Stable government.
2. Definiteness in policies.
3. Based on separation of powers.
4. Government by experts.

Solution: B

In a Rapid Communication published on January 14, 2020, the World Health Organization (WHO) had mentioned that the India-made Truenat MTB, a molecular diagnostic test for pulmonary and extrapulmonary TB and rifampicin-resistant TB, has high accuracy.

Truenat MTB has “high diagnostic accuracy as initial test to diagnose TB and to sequentially detect rifampicin resistance”, says the WHO Communication. It will be used as an initial test thus replacing sputum smear microscopy.

Truenat is developed by the Goa-based Molbio Diagnostics. The company was provided with technical assistance and resources by the Foundation for Innovative New Diagnostics (FIND) to help commercialize Truenat. ICMR had assessed and validated the diagnostic tool.

Truenat will be cheaper per test than Xpert. The equipment and cartridges cost more in the case of Xpert.

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/tb-diagnostic-test-developed-in-india-has-high-accuracy-says-who/article30577819.ece

Solution: A

Parliamentary Legislation in the State Field

The above scheme of distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the states is to be maintained in normal times. But, in abnormal times, the scheme of distribution is either modified or suspended. In other words, the Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the State List under the following five extraordinary circumstances:

When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution

If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to goods and services tax or a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter.

During a National Emergency

The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to goods and services tax or matters in the State List, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation.

When States Make a Request

When the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make laws for regulating that matter.

To Implement International Agreements

The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions.

During President’s Rule

When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state.

Solution: C

Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of interstate water disputes. It makes two provisions:

(i) Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.

(ii) Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.

Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act(1956)]. The River Boards Act provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and development of inter-state river and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them.

The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal under this Act.

Solution: D

National Board for Wildlife:

• It is a “Statutory Organization” constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• Its role is “advisory” in nature and advises the Central Government on framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife in the country.
• Primary function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and forests.
• It has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
• No alternation of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL.
• Composition: The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister. It has 47 members including the Prime Minister. Among these, 19 members are ex-officio members. Other members include three Members of Parliament (two from Lok Sabha and one from Rajya Sabha), five NGOs and 10 eminent ecologists, conservationists and environmentalists.

Solution: A

Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights(except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).

Distinction Between Articles 358 and 359

The differences between Articles 358 and 359 can be summarized as follows:

1. Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.
2. Article 358 automatically suspends the fundamental rights under Article 19 as soon as the emergency is declared. On the other hand, Article 359 does not automatically suspend any Fundamental Right. It only empowers the president to suspend the enforcement of the specified Fundamental Rights.
3. Article 358 operates only in case of External Emergency (that is, when the emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression) and not in the case of Internal Emergency (i.e., when the Emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion). Article 359, on the other hand, operates in case of both External Emergency as well as Internal Emergency.
4. Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights under Article 19 for the entire duration of Emergency while Article 359suspends the enforcement of Fundamental Rights for a period specified by the president which may either be the entire duration of Emergency or a shorter period.
5. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359may extend to the entire country or a part of it.
6. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21.
7. Article 358 enables the State to make any law or take any executive action inconsistent with Fundamental Rights under Article 19 while Article 359 enables the State to make any law or take any executive action inconsistent with those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.

There is also a similarity between Article 358 and Article 359.Both provide immunity from challenge to only those laws which are related with the Emergency and not other laws. Also, the executive action taken only under such a law is protected by both.

Solution: D

Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission:

1. The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
2. The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
3. Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.

Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz.,

1. The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
2. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
3. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

Solution: D

Vital (ventilator intervention technology accessible locally)

• A new high-pressure ventilator developed by NASA engineers and tailored to treat corona virus (COVID-19) patients
• The device, called VITAL (Ventilator Intervention Technology Accessible Locally), was developed by engineers at NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory in Southern California to free up the nation’s limited supply of traditional ventilators so they may be used on patients with the most severe COVID-19 symptoms.
• VITAL can be built faster and maintained more easily than a traditional ventilator, and is composed of far fewer parts, many of which are currently available to potential manufacturers through existing supply chains
• Its flexible design means it also can be modified for use in field hospitals being set up in convention centers, hotels, and other high-capacity facilities across the country and around the globe.
• Like all ventilators, VITAL requires patients to be sedated and an oxygen tube inserted into their airway to breathe
• VITAL is intended to last three to four months and is specifically tailored for COVID-19 patients.
• VITAL is designed to treat patients with milder symptoms, thereby keeping country’s limited supply of traditional ventilators available for patients with more severe COVID-19 symptoms.

Solution: A

The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.

The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president. They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. They can be suspended or removed by the president. They can also resign from their offices at any time by submitting their resignation letters to the president.

The number of members of a JSPSC and their conditions of service are determined by the president.

A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state governors. Each governor places the report before the state legislature.

The UPSC can also serve the needs of a state on the request of the state governor and with the approval of the president.

Solution: D

India do not support CTBT (as CTBT doesn’t address complete disarmament. The Treaty will enter into force after all 44 States listed in Annex 2 to the Treaty will ratify it. These States had nuclear facilities at the time the Treaty was negotiated and adopted. India, North Korea and Pakistan have not yet signed the Treaty.

Four UN member states have never accepted the Nuclear non-proliferation treaty NPT, three of which possess or are thought to possess nuclear weapons: India, Israel, and Pakistan.

India has ratified the Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention (BTWC) and pledges to abide by its obligations. There is no clear evidence, circumstantial or otherwise, that directly points toward an offensive BW program. India has defensive biological warfare (BW) capabilities and has conducted research on countering various diseases. India also has an extensive and advanced dual-use pharmaceutical industry.

Solution: C

Functions of the GST council

The Council is required to make recommendations to the centre and the states on the following matters:

(a) The taxes, cesses and surcharges levied by the centre, the states and the local bodies that would get merged in GST.

(b) The goods and services that may be subjected to GST orexempted from GST.

(c) Model GST Laws, principles of levy, apportionment of GST levied on supplies in the course of inter-state trade or commerce and the principles that govern the place of supply.

(d) The threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST.

(e) The rates including floor rates with bands of GST.

(f) Any special rate or rates for a specified period to raise additional resources during any natural calamity or disaster.

(g) Special provision with respect to the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

(h) Any other matter relating to GST, as the Council may decide.

Solution: A

“COVID-19 Crisis through a Migration Lens” Report:

• “COVID-19 Crisis through a Migration Lens” Report has been released by World Bank.
• According to the report the magnitude of internal migration is about two-and-a-half times that of international migration.
• “The lockdown in India has impacted the livelihoods of a large proportion of the country’s nearly 40 million internal migrants. Around 50,000–60,000 moved from urban centers to rural areas of origin in the span of a few days,” the bank said in a report.

Solution: A

The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country.

The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.

The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.

Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote.

However, the Attorney General is not a fulltime counsel for the Government. He does not fall in the category of government servants. Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice.

Solution: A

Styrene, also known as ethenylbenzene, vinylbenzene, and phenylethene, is an organic compound. This derivative of benzene is a colorless oily liquid although aged samples can appear yellowish.

Styrene is a chemical compound used to manufacture plastic and rubber. It is toxic to the brain and lungs. Its minimal risk level – an estimate of daily human exposure that is likely without appreciable noncancerous health effects – is 5 ppm.

Acute exposure to styrene gas causes dizziness, nausea, vomiting and breathlessness. When it comes in contact with skin and mucosal membranes, its effects include blistering and irritation.

Styrene gas’s effects on the brain include a feeling of drunkenness, changes in colour vision, tiredness, confusion, and problems maintaining balance.

The possible cause of death in animals and humans is possibly asphyxia – oxygen deprivation. Autopsies should tell us more.

The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) has classified styrene as a possible carcinogen. Note however that this classification is based on chronic non-lethal exposure, not on acute exposure.

https://science.thewire.in/health/visakhapatnam-styrene-gas-leak-health-effects/

Solution: A

Seat numbers are numbered from left to right which is evident from the given data.

Thus, Seat number of Ram = 153.

Seat number of Sham = 154

Seat number of Krishna = 152

Seat number of Ishwar = 151

Solution: D

Eight people – Swati, Prachi, Richa, Kavya, Sheena, Charu, Malika and Naira are sitting in a straight line facing North.

They have different ages – 10, 13, 15, 18, 25, 26, 31 and 40 but not necessarily in the same order.

There are 2 persons sitting between Swati and the one whose age is 18 years.Neither of them is sitting at an extreme end. Therefore, Swati is not sitting at extreme end and her age is not 18 years.

The difference between the ages of Kavya and Malika is 3 years.

Thus, possible ages Kavya and Malika are (10, 13) or (13, 10) . Because it is given that age of Sheena is 18 years. Thus, possible ages Kavya and Malika (15, 18) or (18, 15) are not possible

Richa is sitting second to right of one having age 18 years.

Prachi is sitting third to left of one having age 31 years. Thus, Prachi’s age is not 31 years.

There are three girls sitting between Kavya and Sheena whose age is 18 years old. Therefore, age of Sheena is 18 years.

Thus, Richa is sitting second to right of Sheena.

Prachi and Malika are immediate neighbors. Richa is not 31 years old.

There are at least 4 persons sitting to the right of Kavya.

Naira and the one having age 18 years are immediate neighbors. Thus, Naira and Sheena are immediate neighbors.

The one who is 31 years old is not sitting at second position from any end.

Sheena is 3 years older than Swati.Thus, age of Swati is 15 years.

Charu is one year older than Richa. Thus, age of Charu is 26 and age of Richa is 25.

Since, it is given that age of Prachi is not 31 years, Prachi’s age is 40 years and Naira’s age is 31 years.

Arrangement from left to right in north direction is

Kavya-Swati-Prachi-Malika-Sheena-Naira-Richa-Charu

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: D

There are four persons sitting to the left of Sheena (Kavya, Swati, Prachi and Malika)

Solution: D

Age of Prachi = 40 years

Age of Richa = 25 years

Therefore, difference = 15 years.

Answer. C.

The focus of the passage is on bringing out the view that there is an idea that public servants have an inherent sense of altruism, which is what inspires them to serve the public and display conduct worthy of public service ethos. The focus is not on explaining that public and private sector jobs differ. Hence C