GIVE THESE INSTA TESTS NO MATTER WHAT’S GOING TO BE YOUR SCORE OR HOW MUCH UNDER-PREPARED YOU ARE!. DON’T RUN AWAY FROM WHAT’S DIFFICULT!
THERE IS NO SHORTCUT TO SUCCESS
- STRATEGY – Towards smart preparation in Uncertain times – How to Clear UPSC IAS Prelims? Click Here
- MOTIVATION – I am finding InstaTests Difficult and want to quit Click here
- MOTIVATION – How to Stay Consistent? Click Here
- DOWNLOAD – PDF Files of InstaTests for Quick Revision Click Here
- MOTIVATION – Read our latest article written for you! Click Here
- Download CSAT Plan for next 75 Days – It’s part of INSTA Revision Daily InstaTests.Click Here
- Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2020HERE
- Know about how to follow INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan – 2020 – Click Here
- Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. Read about it HERE
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2020, and do well in mains – 2020 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Punch Mission
- It is focused on understanding the transition of particles from the Sun’s outer corona to the solar wind.
- It will consist of a ‘constellation’ of four suitcase-sized microsats that will orbit the Sun in the formation and study of the corona
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
NASA has selected Texas-based Southwest Research Institute to lead its PUNCH mission which will image the Sun. This is a landmark mission that will image regions beyond the Sun’s outer corona. Dipankar Banerjee, solar physicist from Indian Institute of Astrophysics is also a Co-Investigator of the PUNCH mission.
PUNCH, which stands for “Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere,” is focused on understanding the transition of particles from the Sun’s outer corona to the solar wind that fills interplanetary space.
PUNCH will consist of a ‘constellation’ of four suitcase-sized microsats that will orbit the Earth in formation and study how the corona, which is the atmosphere of the Sun, connects with the interplanetary medium. The mission is expected to be launched in 2022.
The mission will image and track the solar wind and also the coronal mass ejections – which are huge masses of plasma that get thrown out of the Sun’s atmosphere. The coronal mass ejections can affect and drive space weather events near the Earth.
Incorrect
Solution: A
NASA has selected Texas-based Southwest Research Institute to lead its PUNCH mission which will image the Sun. This is a landmark mission that will image regions beyond the Sun’s outer corona. Dipankar Banerjee, solar physicist from Indian Institute of Astrophysics is also a Co-Investigator of the PUNCH mission.
PUNCH, which stands for “Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere,” is focused on understanding the transition of particles from the Sun’s outer corona to the solar wind that fills interplanetary space.
PUNCH will consist of a ‘constellation’ of four suitcase-sized microsats that will orbit the Earth in formation and study how the corona, which is the atmosphere of the Sun, connects with the interplanetary medium. The mission is expected to be launched in 2022.
The mission will image and track the solar wind and also the coronal mass ejections – which are huge masses of plasma that get thrown out of the Sun’s atmosphere. The coronal mass ejections can affect and drive space weather events near the Earth.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Key Biodiversity Areas
- Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) is an umbrella term commonly used to include areas that contribute to the global persistence of biodiversity.
- The criteria for designating a site as KBA have been described by UN Environment.
- Globally KBAs are designated based on 11 criteria defined under five broad categories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Key Biodiversity Areas
Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) is an umbrella term commonly used to include areas that contribute to the global persistence of biodiversity, including vital habitat for threatened plant and animal species in terrestrial, freshwater and marine ecosystems. Globally KBAs are designated based on 11 criteria defined under five broad categories of threatened biodiversity; geographically restricted biodiversity; ecological integrity; biological processes; and, irreplaceability.
The criteria for designating a site as KBA have been described in the document “The Global Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas (2016)” by International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). IUCN identifies 531 KBA sites in India but these have no legal basis
Incorrect
Solution: C
Key Biodiversity Areas
Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) is an umbrella term commonly used to include areas that contribute to the global persistence of biodiversity, including vital habitat for threatened plant and animal species in terrestrial, freshwater and marine ecosystems. Globally KBAs are designated based on 11 criteria defined under five broad categories of threatened biodiversity; geographically restricted biodiversity; ecological integrity; biological processes; and, irreplaceability.
The criteria for designating a site as KBA have been described in the document “The Global Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas (2016)” by International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). IUCN identifies 531 KBA sites in India but these have no legal basis
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019
- The report is published by Forest Research Institute (FRI).
- Compared to the assessment of 2017, there is an increase in the total forest and tree cover of the country.
- Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019
- The report is published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) which has been mandated to assess the forest and tree resources of the country including wall-to-wall forest cover mapping in a biennial cycle. Starting 1987, 16 assessment have been completed so far. ISFR 2019 is the 16th report in the series.
- The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.73 million hectare which is 24.56 percent of the geographical area of the country.
- Compared to the assessment of 2017, there is an increase of 5,188 sq. km in the total forest and tree cover of the country.
- Top three states showing increase in forest cover are Karnataka (1,025 sq. km) followed by Andhra Pradesh (990 sq km) and Kerala (823 sq km).”
- Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.
- In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%).
- Mangrove cover has been separately reported in the ISFR 2019 and the total mangrove cover in the country is 4,975 sq km. An increase of 54 sq Km in mangrove cover has been observed as compared to the previous assessment of 2017. Top three states showing mangrove cover increase are Gujarat (37 sq km) followed by Maharashtra (16 sq km) and Odisha (8 sq km).
- The extent of bamboo bearing area of the country has been estimated 16.00 million hectare. There is an increase of 0.32 million hectare in bamboo bearing area as compared to the last assessment of ISFR 2017. The total estimated green weight of bamboo culms is 278 million tonnes, slowly an increase of 88 million tonnes as compared to ISFR 2017.
- Under the current assessment the total carbon stock in country’s forest is estimated 7,124.6 million tonnes and there an increase of 42.6 million tonnes in the carbon stock of country as compared to the last assessment of 2017.
- FSI’s assessment is largely based on digital data whether it is satellite data, vector boundaries of districts or data processing of field measurements.
Incorrect
Solution: B
India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019
- The report is published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) which has been mandated to assess the forest and tree resources of the country including wall-to-wall forest cover mapping in a biennial cycle. Starting 1987, 16 assessment have been completed so far. ISFR 2019 is the 16th report in the series.
- The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.73 million hectare which is 24.56 percent of the geographical area of the country.
- Compared to the assessment of 2017, there is an increase of 5,188 sq. km in the total forest and tree cover of the country.
- Top three states showing increase in forest cover are Karnataka (1,025 sq. km) followed by Andhra Pradesh (990 sq km) and Kerala (823 sq km).”
- Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.
- In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%).
- Mangrove cover has been separately reported in the ISFR 2019 and the total mangrove cover in the country is 4,975 sq km. An increase of 54 sq Km in mangrove cover has been observed as compared to the previous assessment of 2017. Top three states showing mangrove cover increase are Gujarat (37 sq km) followed by Maharashtra (16 sq km) and Odisha (8 sq km).
- The extent of bamboo bearing area of the country has been estimated 16.00 million hectare. There is an increase of 0.32 million hectare in bamboo bearing area as compared to the last assessment of ISFR 2017. The total estimated green weight of bamboo culms is 278 million tonnes, slowly an increase of 88 million tonnes as compared to ISFR 2017.
- Under the current assessment the total carbon stock in country’s forest is estimated 7,124.6 million tonnes and there an increase of 42.6 million tonnes in the carbon stock of country as compared to the last assessment of 2017.
- FSI’s assessment is largely based on digital data whether it is satellite data, vector boundaries of districts or data processing of field measurements.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Superconductivity.
- 1. Superconductivity is a state in which a material shows very high electrical resistance.
- Superconducting materials can save huge amounts of energy, and be used to make highly efficient electrical appliances.
- Superconductivity is possible only at high temperatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Superconductivity is a phenomenon in which the resistance of the material to the electric current flow is zero.
Because of zero resistance, superconducting materials can save huge amounts of energy, and be used to make highly efficient electrical appliances.
Superconductivity is largely possible at low temperature. Metallic superconductors usually have transition temperatures (temperatures below which they are superconductive) below 30 K (−243.2 °C) and must be cooled using liquid helium in order to achieve superconductivity.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Superconductivity is a phenomenon in which the resistance of the material to the electric current flow is zero.
Because of zero resistance, superconducting materials can save huge amounts of energy, and be used to make highly efficient electrical appliances.
Superconductivity is largely possible at low temperature. Metallic superconductors usually have transition temperatures (temperatures below which they are superconductive) below 30 K (−243.2 °C) and must be cooled using liquid helium in order to achieve superconductivity.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsNational performances under Climate Change Performance Index are assessed based on which of following categories
- GHG Emissions.
- Renewable Energy.
- Energy Use.
- Climate Policy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2019
- The latest edition of Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) was recently presented at the climate summit in Madrid.
What is Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)?
- Designed by the German environmental and development organisation Germanwatch e.V.
- o Published in cooperation with the NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network International and with financial support from Barthel Foundation.
- o Objective: To enhance transparency in international climate politics.
- o First published in 2005 and an updated version is presented at the UN Climate Change Conference annually.
- o In 2017, the methodology of the CCPI was revised and adapted to the new climate policy framework of the Paris Agreement from 2015. The CCPI was extended in order to include the measurement of a country’s progress towards the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) and the country’s 2030 targets.
- The national performances are assessed based on 14 indicators in the following four categories:
- GHG Emissions (weighting 40%).
- Renewable Energy (weighting 20%).
- Energy Use (weighting 20%).
- Climate Policy (weighting 20%).
India, at rank 9, joins the top ten countries
Incorrect
Solution: D
Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2019
- The latest edition of Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) was recently presented at the climate summit in Madrid.
What is Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)?
- Designed by the German environmental and development organisation Germanwatch e.V.
- o Published in cooperation with the NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network International and with financial support from Barthel Foundation.
- o Objective: To enhance transparency in international climate politics.
- o First published in 2005 and an updated version is presented at the UN Climate Change Conference annually.
- o In 2017, the methodology of the CCPI was revised and adapted to the new climate policy framework of the Paris Agreement from 2015. The CCPI was extended in order to include the measurement of a country’s progress towards the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) and the country’s 2030 targets.
- The national performances are assessed based on 14 indicators in the following four categories:
- GHG Emissions (weighting 40%).
- Renewable Energy (weighting 20%).
- Energy Use (weighting 20%).
- Climate Policy (weighting 20%).
India, at rank 9, joins the top ten countries
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs regarding Elephant reserves and the states they belong to
- Mayurbhanj ER : Orissa
- Anamalai ER : Kerala
- Periyar ER : Tamil Nadu
- Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong ER : Assam
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
Sl.
No.Elephant Range Elephant Reserve State 1 East-Central Landscape 1. Mayurjharna ER West Bengal (South-West Bengal- 2. Singhbhum ER Jharkhand Jharkhand – Orissa) 3. Mayurbhanj ER Orissa 4. Mahanadi ER * Orissa 5. Sambalpur ER * Orissa 6. Baitami ER # Orissa 7. South Orissa ER # Orissa 8. Lemru ER # Chhattishgarh 9. Badalkhol – Tamorpingla ER Chhattishgarh Total 2 Kameng-Sonitpur Landscape 10. Kameng ER Arunachal (Arunachal – Assam) 11. Sonitpur ER * Assam Total 3 Eastern-South Bank Landscape 12. Dihing-Patkai ER Assam (Assam – Arunachal) 13. South Arunachal ER Arunachal Total 4 Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong-Intanki Landscape 14. Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong ER Assam (Assam – Nagaland) 15. Dhansiri-Lungding ER Assam 16. Intanki ER Nagaland Total 5 North Bengal- Greater Manas Landscape 17. Chirang-Ripu ER Assam (Assam – West Bengal) 18. Eastern Dooars ER West Bengal Total 6 Meghalaya Landscape 19. Garo Hills ER Meghalaya (Meghalaya) 20. Khasi-hills ER # Meghalaya Total 7 Brahmagiri-Nilgiri-Eastern Ghat Landscape 21. Mysore ER Karnataka (Karnataka – Kerala- 22. Wayanad ER Kerala Tamilnadu- Andhra) 23. Nilgiri ER Tamil Nadu 24. Rayala ER Andhra 25. Nilambur ER Kerala 26. Coimbatore ER Tamil Nadu Total 8 Anamalai-Nelliampathy- High Range Landscape 27. Anamalai ER Tamil Nadu (Tamilnadu – Kerala) 28. Anamudi ER Kerala Total 9 Periyar-Agasthyamalai Landscape 29. Periyar ER Kerala (Kerala – Tamilnadu) 30. Srivilliputhur ER Tamil Nadu Total 10 North-Western Landscape 31. Shivalik ER Uttarakhand (Uttarakhand – Uttar Pradesh) 32. Uttar Pradesh ER U.P. Incorrect
Solution: D
Sl.
No.Elephant Range Elephant Reserve State 1 East-Central Landscape 1. Mayurjharna ER West Bengal (South-West Bengal- 2. Singhbhum ER Jharkhand Jharkhand – Orissa) 3. Mayurbhanj ER Orissa 4. Mahanadi ER * Orissa 5. Sambalpur ER * Orissa 6. Baitami ER # Orissa 7. South Orissa ER # Orissa 8. Lemru ER # Chhattishgarh 9. Badalkhol – Tamorpingla ER Chhattishgarh Total 2 Kameng-Sonitpur Landscape 10. Kameng ER Arunachal (Arunachal – Assam) 11. Sonitpur ER * Assam Total 3 Eastern-South Bank Landscape 12. Dihing-Patkai ER Assam (Assam – Arunachal) 13. South Arunachal ER Arunachal Total 4 Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong-Intanki Landscape 14. Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong ER Assam (Assam – Nagaland) 15. Dhansiri-Lungding ER Assam 16. Intanki ER Nagaland Total 5 North Bengal- Greater Manas Landscape 17. Chirang-Ripu ER Assam (Assam – West Bengal) 18. Eastern Dooars ER West Bengal Total 6 Meghalaya Landscape 19. Garo Hills ER Meghalaya (Meghalaya) 20. Khasi-hills ER # Meghalaya Total 7 Brahmagiri-Nilgiri-Eastern Ghat Landscape 21. Mysore ER Karnataka (Karnataka – Kerala- 22. Wayanad ER Kerala Tamilnadu- Andhra) 23. Nilgiri ER Tamil Nadu 24. Rayala ER Andhra 25. Nilambur ER Kerala 26. Coimbatore ER Tamil Nadu Total 8 Anamalai-Nelliampathy- High Range Landscape 27. Anamalai ER Tamil Nadu (Tamilnadu – Kerala) 28. Anamudi ER Kerala Total 9 Periyar-Agasthyamalai Landscape 29. Periyar ER Kerala (Kerala – Tamilnadu) 30. Srivilliputhur ER Tamil Nadu Total 10 North-Western Landscape 31. Shivalik ER Uttarakhand (Uttarakhand – Uttar Pradesh) 32. Uttar Pradesh ER U.P. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Urea Subsidy
- Presently, urea is made available to farmers at statutorily controlled price.
- 100% Neem Coated Urea was made mandatory in 2019
- Urea production units use Natural Gas as well as Naphtha as feedstock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Urea Subsidy is a part of Central Sector Scheme of Department of Fertilizers wholly financed by the Government of India.
The difference between the delivered cost of fertilizers at farm gate and MRP payable by the farmer is given as subsidy to the fertilizer manufacturer/importer by the Government of India.
Urea production units use Natural Gas as well as Naphtha as feedstock/fuel.
Presently, urea is made available to farmers at statutorily controlled price.
Features of Urea
Urea, a white crystalline solid containing 46% nitrogen, is widely used in the agricultural industry as an animal feed additive and fertilizer.
Unlike many fertilizers, Urea can be applied to soil as a solid or solution.
100% Neem Coated Urea was made mandatory in 2015.
Benefits of Neem Coating Urea
o Improvement in soil health.
o Reduction in costs with respect to plant protection chemicals.
o Reduction in pest and disease attack.
o Plugging the diversion of the subsidized Urea towards non-agricultural purposes.
o It reduces loss of Nitrogen/ammonia from urea when it remains on the soil surface for extended periods of time during warm weather.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Urea Subsidy is a part of Central Sector Scheme of Department of Fertilizers wholly financed by the Government of India.
The difference between the delivered cost of fertilizers at farm gate and MRP payable by the farmer is given as subsidy to the fertilizer manufacturer/importer by the Government of India.
Urea production units use Natural Gas as well as Naphtha as feedstock/fuel.
Presently, urea is made available to farmers at statutorily controlled price.
Features of Urea
Urea, a white crystalline solid containing 46% nitrogen, is widely used in the agricultural industry as an animal feed additive and fertilizer.
Unlike many fertilizers, Urea can be applied to soil as a solid or solution.
100% Neem Coated Urea was made mandatory in 2015.
Benefits of Neem Coating Urea
o Improvement in soil health.
o Reduction in costs with respect to plant protection chemicals.
o Reduction in pest and disease attack.
o Plugging the diversion of the subsidized Urea towards non-agricultural purposes.
o It reduces loss of Nitrogen/ammonia from urea when it remains on the soil surface for extended periods of time during warm weather.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Basel Ban Amendment
- It was adopted by the parties to the Basel Convention in 1995.
- The amendment prohibits all export of hazardous wastes from non-OECD countries to OECD countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Parties agreed that Parties listed in Annex VII (members of OECD, EU, Liechtenstein) prohibit immediately all transboundary movements of hazardous wastes which are destined for final disposal operations from OECD to non-OECD States.
About the 1995 Basel Ban Amendment:
- Adopted by the parties to the Basel Convention in 1995.
- To protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes.
- The amendment prohibits all export of hazardous wastes, including electronic wastes and obsolete ships from 29 wealthiest countries of the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) to non-OECD countries.
Basel Ban Amendment
- The 1995 Basel Ban Amendment, a global waste dumping prohibition, has become an international law after Croatia (97th country to ratify) ratified it on September 6, 2019.
What next?
o It will become a new Article in the Convention and will enter into force in the 97 countries after 90 days — on December 5.
- Basel Convention — Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal:
o Opened for signature on 22 March 1989
o entered into force on 5 May 1992
o Parties — 187.
o It is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs).
o It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Parties agreed that Parties listed in Annex VII (members of OECD, EU, Liechtenstein) prohibit immediately all transboundary movements of hazardous wastes which are destined for final disposal operations from OECD to non-OECD States.
About the 1995 Basel Ban Amendment:
- Adopted by the parties to the Basel Convention in 1995.
- To protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes.
- The amendment prohibits all export of hazardous wastes, including electronic wastes and obsolete ships from 29 wealthiest countries of the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) to non-OECD countries.
Basel Ban Amendment
- The 1995 Basel Ban Amendment, a global waste dumping prohibition, has become an international law after Croatia (97th country to ratify) ratified it on September 6, 2019.
What next?
o It will become a new Article in the Convention and will enter into force in the 97 countries after 90 days — on December 5.
- Basel Convention — Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal:
o Opened for signature on 22 March 1989
o entered into force on 5 May 1992
o Parties — 187.
o It is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs).
o It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
- It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- CITES is non-legally binding on state parties to the convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
- It is an International agreement to regulate worldwide commercial trade in wild animal and plant species.
- It restricts trade in items made from such plants and animals, such as food, clothing, medicine, and souvenirs.
- It was signed on March 3, 1973 (Hence world wildlife day is celebrated on march 3).
- It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- Secretariat — Geneva (Switzerland).
- CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to implement its goals.
Classifications:
- It classifies plants and animals according to three categories, or appendices, based on how threatened. They are.
- Appendix I: It lists species that are in danger of extinction. It prohibits commercial trade of these plants and animals except in extraordinary situations for scientific or educational reasons.
- Appendix II species: They are those that are not threatened with extinction but that might suffer a serious decline in number if trade is not restricted. Their trade is regulated by permit.
- Appendix III species: They are protected in at least one country that is a CITES member states and that has petitioned others for help in controlling international trade in that species.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
- It is an International agreement to regulate worldwide commercial trade in wild animal and plant species.
- It restricts trade in items made from such plants and animals, such as food, clothing, medicine, and souvenirs.
- It was signed on March 3, 1973 (Hence world wildlife day is celebrated on march 3).
- It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- Secretariat — Geneva (Switzerland).
- CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to implement its goals.
Classifications:
- It classifies plants and animals according to three categories, or appendices, based on how threatened. They are.
- Appendix I: It lists species that are in danger of extinction. It prohibits commercial trade of these plants and animals except in extraordinary situations for scientific or educational reasons.
- Appendix II species: They are those that are not threatened with extinction but that might suffer a serious decline in number if trade is not restricted. Their trade is regulated by permit.
- Appendix III species: They are protected in at least one country that is a CITES member states and that has petitioned others for help in controlling international trade in that species.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Government E-Marketplace
- It is an online market place for procurement of common use goods and services directly from farmers and small scale industries.
- It was setup in 2016.
- It aims to enhance transparency, efficiency and speed in public procurement of goods and services and eliminate corruption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Government e-Marketplace is an online market place for procurement of common use goods and services by government ministries, departments and CPSEs.
It was setup in 2016. The platform offers online, end to end solution for procurement of commonly used goods and services for all central government departments and state governments, public sector units and affiliated bodies.
It aims to enhance transparency, efficiency and speed in public procurement of goods and services and eliminate corruption.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Government e-Marketplace is an online market place for procurement of common use goods and services by government ministries, departments and CPSEs.
It was setup in 2016. The platform offers online, end to end solution for procurement of commonly used goods and services for all central government departments and state governments, public sector units and affiliated bodies.
It aims to enhance transparency, efficiency and speed in public procurement of goods and services and eliminate corruption.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
- Conference of Parties to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD COP 14) was hosted by India.
- The theme of the Conference was ‘Restore land, Sustain future’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- The 14th meeting of the Conference of Parties to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD COP 14) was held in New Delhi.
- India took over the Presidency of the COP from China.
- Framework for the Assessment of Benefits of Action/Cost of Inaction for Drought Preparedness report was released at the 14th Conference of Parties (COP14) to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
About UNCCD:
- Established in 1994.
- It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
- It is the only convention stemming from a direct recommendation of the Rio Conference’s Agenda 21.
- To help publicize the Convention, 2006 was declared “International Year of Deserts and Desertification”.
- Focus areas: The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.
- Aim: Its 197 Parties aim, through partnerships, to implement the Convention and achieve the Sustainable Development Goals. The end goal is to protect land from over-use and drought, so it can continue to provide food, water and energy.
- The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the nodal Ministry for this Convention.
The 14th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP-14) to the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) ended on 13th September 2019.
- Held in Greater Noida, this was the first time that India hosted an edition of the UNCCD COP.
- The theme of the Conference was ‘Restore land, Sustain future’.
- India being the global host for COP 14 has taken over the COP Presidency from China for the next two years till 2021.
- India is among the select few countries to have hosted the COP of all three Rio conventions on climate change, biodiversity and land.
Incorrect
Solution: D
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- The 14th meeting of the Conference of Parties to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD COP 14) was held in New Delhi.
- India took over the Presidency of the COP from China.
- Framework for the Assessment of Benefits of Action/Cost of Inaction for Drought Preparedness report was released at the 14th Conference of Parties (COP14) to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
About UNCCD:
- Established in 1994.
- It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
- It is the only convention stemming from a direct recommendation of the Rio Conference’s Agenda 21.
- To help publicize the Convention, 2006 was declared “International Year of Deserts and Desertification”.
- Focus areas: The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.
- Aim: Its 197 Parties aim, through partnerships, to implement the Convention and achieve the Sustainable Development Goals. The end goal is to protect land from over-use and drought, so it can continue to provide food, water and energy.
- The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the nodal Ministry for this Convention.
The 14th edition of the Conference of Parties (COP-14) to the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) ended on 13th September 2019.
- Held in Greater Noida, this was the first time that India hosted an edition of the UNCCD COP.
- The theme of the Conference was ‘Restore land, Sustain future’.
- India being the global host for COP 14 has taken over the COP Presidency from China for the next two years till 2021.
- India is among the select few countries to have hosted the COP of all three Rio conventions on climate change, biodiversity and land.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Red Atlas Action Plan Map’ atlas
- It is a first of its kind ready reckoner map, prepared by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- The atlas is aimed at flood mitigation, preparedness, operations and management aspects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
‘Red Atlas Action Plan Map’ atlas and CFLOWS-Chennai
- Vice-President M Venkaiah Naidu recently unveiled the ‘Red Atlas Action Plan Map’ atlas and the ‘Coastal Flood Warning System App (CFLOWS-Chennai)’ for flood mitigation in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
What is Red Atlas Action Plan Map?
o It is a first of its kind ready reckoner map, prepared by Union Ministry of Earth Sciences to aid state government of Tamil Nadu in effective flood mitigation in Chennai which witnessed the worst deluge in 2015.
o The atlas is aimed at flood mitigation, preparedness, operations and management aspects.
- Coastal Flood Warning System app for Chennai (CFLOWS- CHENNAI):
o Launched by NIOT.
o It is India’s first integrated coastal flood warning system.
o It is an integrated GIS-based decision support system to provide forecast on potential inundation 10 days in advance.
o It will be hosted and made operational at National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR)
Incorrect
Solution: B
‘Red Atlas Action Plan Map’ atlas and CFLOWS-Chennai
- Vice-President M Venkaiah Naidu recently unveiled the ‘Red Atlas Action Plan Map’ atlas and the ‘Coastal Flood Warning System App (CFLOWS-Chennai)’ for flood mitigation in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
What is Red Atlas Action Plan Map?
o It is a first of its kind ready reckoner map, prepared by Union Ministry of Earth Sciences to aid state government of Tamil Nadu in effective flood mitigation in Chennai which witnessed the worst deluge in 2015.
o The atlas is aimed at flood mitigation, preparedness, operations and management aspects.
- Coastal Flood Warning System app for Chennai (CFLOWS- CHENNAI):
o Launched by NIOT.
o It is India’s first integrated coastal flood warning system.
o It is an integrated GIS-based decision support system to provide forecast on potential inundation 10 days in advance.
o It will be hosted and made operational at National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR)
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements Bharat Stage VI (BS –VI) norms
- The BS-VI fuel is estimated to bring around an 80 per cent reduction of sulphur, from 50 parts per million to 10 ppm.
- BS VI makes on-board diagnostics (OBD) mandatory for all vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Bharat Stage emission standards are emission standards that have been set up by the Central government to regulate the output of air pollutants from internal combustion engine equipment, including motor vehicles.
With appropriate fuel and technology, they limit the release of air pollutants such as nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, particulate matter (PM) and sulphur oxides from vehicles using internal combustion engines.
It was introduced in 2000.
India has been following European (Euro) emission norms, although with a time lag of five years.
The BS IV norms had been enforced across the country since April 2017.
In 2016, the Centre had announced that the country would skip the BS-V norms altogether and adopt BS-VI norms by 2020.
The main difference in standards between the existing BS-IV and the new BS-VI auto fuel norms is the presence of sulphur.
The BS-VI fuel is estimated to bring around an 80 per cent reduction of sulphur, from 50 parts per million to 10 ppm.
The emission of NOx (nitrogen oxides) from diesel cars is also expected to come down by nearly 70 per cent and 25 per cent from cars with petrol engines.
BS VI also makes on-board diagnostics (OBD) mandatory for all vehicles.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bharat Stage emission standards are emission standards that have been set up by the Central government to regulate the output of air pollutants from internal combustion engine equipment, including motor vehicles.
With appropriate fuel and technology, they limit the release of air pollutants such as nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, particulate matter (PM) and sulphur oxides from vehicles using internal combustion engines.
It was introduced in 2000.
India has been following European (Euro) emission norms, although with a time lag of five years.
The BS IV norms had been enforced across the country since April 2017.
In 2016, the Centre had announced that the country would skip the BS-V norms altogether and adopt BS-VI norms by 2020.
The main difference in standards between the existing BS-IV and the new BS-VI auto fuel norms is the presence of sulphur.
The BS-VI fuel is estimated to bring around an 80 per cent reduction of sulphur, from 50 parts per million to 10 ppm.
The emission of NOx (nitrogen oxides) from diesel cars is also expected to come down by nearly 70 per cent and 25 per cent from cars with petrol engines.
BS VI also makes on-board diagnostics (OBD) mandatory for all vehicles.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mangroves for the Future (MFF)
- It was developed by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
- It is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development.
- It is an initiative exclusively for the sustainable development of mangroves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Mangroves for the Future (MFF)
The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods. It was United States President Bill Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters. In response to this vision, IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) developed Mangroves for the Future in 2006.
Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development. Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP, MFF provides a platform for collaboration among the many different agencies, sectors and countries which are addressing challenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues. The goal is to promote an integrated ocean-wide approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal communities.
Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative, but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem, such as coral reefs, estuaries, lagoons, sandy beaches, sea grass and wetlands.
Member countries: Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Maldives, Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Viet Nam.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Mangroves for the Future (MFF)
The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods. It was United States President Bill Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters. In response to this vision, IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) developed Mangroves for the Future in 2006.
Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development. Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP, MFF provides a platform for collaboration among the many different agencies, sectors and countries which are addressing challenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues. The goal is to promote an integrated ocean-wide approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal communities.
Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative, but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem, such as coral reefs, estuaries, lagoons, sandy beaches, sea grass and wetlands.
Member countries: Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Maldives, Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Viet Nam.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Zoo Authority
- It was established as a statutory body under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Secretary to Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the chairperson.
- Its main objective is to complement and strengthen the national effort in conservation of the rich biodiversity of the country.
Which of the statement above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Central Zoo Authority
A separate chapter, Chapter IVA contain Section 38 A to 38 J was added to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for establishment of the Central Zoo Authority in India. Accordingly, the Central Zoo Authority was established as a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment & Forests by the Government of India in the year 1992. The Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary.
Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the chairperson.
The main objective of this Authority is to complement and strengthen the national effort in conservation of the rich biodiversity of the country, particularly the fauna as per the National Zoo Policy, 1998. Other objectives of this Authority include- enforcing minimum standards and norms for upkeep and healthcare of animals in Indian zoos and to control mushrooming of unplanned and ill-conceived zoos.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Central Zoo Authority
A separate chapter, Chapter IVA contain Section 38 A to 38 J was added to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for establishment of the Central Zoo Authority in India. Accordingly, the Central Zoo Authority was established as a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment & Forests by the Government of India in the year 1992. The Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary.
Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the chairperson.
The main objective of this Authority is to complement and strengthen the national effort in conservation of the rich biodiversity of the country, particularly the fauna as per the National Zoo Policy, 1998. Other objectives of this Authority include- enforcing minimum standards and norms for upkeep and healthcare of animals in Indian zoos and to control mushrooming of unplanned and ill-conceived zoos.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS)
- It has been launched by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- It has been launched as per Kyoto Protocol guidelines.
- Various industries can buy and sell the ability to emit particulate matter, by trading permits in kilograms under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS):
- Launched in Surat by Gujarat Government, the Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS) is a regulatory tool that is aimed at reducing the pollution load in an area and at the same time minimising the cost of compliance for the industry.
- ETS is a market in which the traded commodity is particulate matter emissions.
- It is also being described as the world’s first market for trading in particulate matter emissions.
How is it being implemented?
- The Gujarat Pollution Control Board (GPCB) sets a cap on the total emission load from all industries.
- Various industries can buy and sell the ability to emit particulate matter, by trading permits (in kilograms) under this cap. For this reason, ETS is also called a cap-and-trade market.
Significance and benefits:
- The reason for trading is that in a cap and trade market, the regulator will measure pollution over a period of time and industries must own enough permits to cover their total emissions.
- Factories who find it very expensive to reduce pollution, will seek to buy more permits. Those who can easily reduce pollution are encouraged to do so because then they have excess permits to sell.
- Eventually, after buying and selling by plants that find it cheap to cut pollution and those for whom it is expensive, most pollution is taken care of.
- Whatever the final allocation, the total number of permits does not change so the total pollution is still equal to the predefined cap. And yet the costs to industry are decreased.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS):
- Launched in Surat by Gujarat Government, the Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS) is a regulatory tool that is aimed at reducing the pollution load in an area and at the same time minimising the cost of compliance for the industry.
- ETS is a market in which the traded commodity is particulate matter emissions.
- It is also being described as the world’s first market for trading in particulate matter emissions.
How is it being implemented?
- The Gujarat Pollution Control Board (GPCB) sets a cap on the total emission load from all industries.
- Various industries can buy and sell the ability to emit particulate matter, by trading permits (in kilograms) under this cap. For this reason, ETS is also called a cap-and-trade market.
Significance and benefits:
- The reason for trading is that in a cap and trade market, the regulator will measure pollution over a period of time and industries must own enough permits to cover their total emissions.
- Factories who find it very expensive to reduce pollution, will seek to buy more permits. Those who can easily reduce pollution are encouraged to do so because then they have excess permits to sell.
- Eventually, after buying and selling by plants that find it cheap to cut pollution and those for whom it is expensive, most pollution is taken care of.
- Whatever the final allocation, the total number of permits does not change so the total pollution is still equal to the predefined cap. And yet the costs to industry are decreased.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Initiative on Sustainability, Stability and Security (3S)
- It is an inter-governmental initiative that works to prevent the emerging threats linked to the depletion and mismanagement of natural resources.
- India is a member of this initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is the Initiative on Sustainability, Stability and Security (3S) in Africa?
It is an inter-governmental initiative that works to address the underlying causes of instability and prevent the emerging threats linked to the depletion and mismanagement of natural resources leading to chaos.
By tackling conditions such as land degradation and scarcity, rural unemployment, insecurity of tenure and competition for resources in a joined up way, the 3S Initiative is adopting an innovative approach. The bold, innovative and ambitious approach has been widely acknowledged and welcomed by the international community.
At the First African Action Summit (Marrakesh, 16 November 2016), the Heads of State and Government launched the initiative and committed to accelerate its implementation building on their own resources and mobilizing multilateral and bilateral donors.
India is not a member of this initiative.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is the Initiative on Sustainability, Stability and Security (3S) in Africa?
It is an inter-governmental initiative that works to address the underlying causes of instability and prevent the emerging threats linked to the depletion and mismanagement of natural resources leading to chaos.
By tackling conditions such as land degradation and scarcity, rural unemployment, insecurity of tenure and competition for resources in a joined up way, the 3S Initiative is adopting an innovative approach. The bold, innovative and ambitious approach has been widely acknowledged and welcomed by the international community.
At the First African Action Summit (Marrakesh, 16 November 2016), the Heads of State and Government launched the initiative and committed to accelerate its implementation building on their own resources and mobilizing multilateral and bilateral donors.
India is not a member of this initiative.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Carbon disclosure project
- CDP Global is an international non-profit organization.
- The CDP is a global disclosure system that enables companies, cities, states and regions to measure and manage their environmental impacts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Carbon disclosure project
CDP Global is an international non-profit organization comprising of CDP Worldwide Group and CDP North America, Inc. It is directed by a board of trustees and board of directors respectively. As an international organization, CDP receives funding support from a wide range of sources.
Vision and mission
We want to see a thriving economy that works for people and planet in the long term. We focus investors, companies and cities on taking action to build a truly sustainable economy by measuring and understanding their environmental impact.
Carbon Disclosure Project
- The CDP India annual report has been released by CDP (Carbon Disclosure Project) India.
- The report examines carbon reduction activities of companies.
- India is now among the top five countries globally when it comes to adopting science-based target initiatives (SBT) with as many as 38 Indian companies in 2019 committing to going beyond policy requirements to plan urgent climate action, a significant rise from 25 firms in 2018.
About CDP:
o The CDP is a global disclosure system that enables companies, cities, states and regions to measure and manage their environmental impacts.
o It collects and collates self-reported environmental data in the world.
o It is aimed at measuring the carbon reduction activities undertaken by different companies and firms operating in various countries across the globe.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Carbon disclosure project
CDP Global is an international non-profit organization comprising of CDP Worldwide Group and CDP North America, Inc. It is directed by a board of trustees and board of directors respectively. As an international organization, CDP receives funding support from a wide range of sources.
Vision and mission
We want to see a thriving economy that works for people and planet in the long term. We focus investors, companies and cities on taking action to build a truly sustainable economy by measuring and understanding their environmental impact.
Carbon Disclosure Project
- The CDP India annual report has been released by CDP (Carbon Disclosure Project) India.
- The report examines carbon reduction activities of companies.
- India is now among the top five countries globally when it comes to adopting science-based target initiatives (SBT) with as many as 38 Indian companies in 2019 committing to going beyond policy requirements to plan urgent climate action, a significant rise from 25 firms in 2018.
About CDP:
o The CDP is a global disclosure system that enables companies, cities, states and regions to measure and manage their environmental impacts.
o It collects and collates self-reported environmental data in the world.
o It is aimed at measuring the carbon reduction activities undertaken by different companies and firms operating in various countries across the globe.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Technical Textiles Mission
- Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved the setting up of a National Technical Textiles Mission
- It aims at taking domestic market size from $40 million to $50 million by 2024.
- It had prepared four-year roadmap for robust development of the India’s textiles industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
National Technical Textiles Mission:
Context: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved the setting up of a National Technical Textiles Mission at a total outlay of ₹1,480 Crore.
- Aim: To position the country as a global leader in technical textiles and increase the use of technical textiles in the domestic market.
Key facts:
- The Mission will be implemented for four years from 2020-2021 and will have four components:
- The first component will focus on research and development and innovation and will have an outlay of ₹1,000 crore. The research will be at both, fibre level and application-based in geo, agro, medical, sports and mobile textiles and development of bio-degradable technical textiles.
- The second component will be for promotion and development of market for technical textiles. The Mission will aim at taking domestic market size to $40 billion to $50 billion by 2024.
- The third component will focus on export promotion so that technical textile exports from the country reach from the ₹14,000 crore now to ₹20,000 crore by 2021-2022 and ensure 10% average growth every year till the Mission ends.
- The last component will be on education, training and skill development.
- The Mission will aim at taking domestic market size to $40 billion to $50 billion by 2024.
Incorrect
Solution: B
National Technical Textiles Mission:
Context: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved the setting up of a National Technical Textiles Mission at a total outlay of ₹1,480 Crore.
- Aim: To position the country as a global leader in technical textiles and increase the use of technical textiles in the domestic market.
Key facts:
- The Mission will be implemented for four years from 2020-2021 and will have four components:
- The first component will focus on research and development and innovation and will have an outlay of ₹1,000 crore. The research will be at both, fibre level and application-based in geo, agro, medical, sports and mobile textiles and development of bio-degradable technical textiles.
- The second component will be for promotion and development of market for technical textiles. The Mission will aim at taking domestic market size to $40 billion to $50 billion by 2024.
- The third component will focus on export promotion so that technical textile exports from the country reach from the ₹14,000 crore now to ₹20,000 crore by 2021-2022 and ensure 10% average growth every year till the Mission ends.
- The last component will be on education, training and skill development.
- The Mission will aim at taking domestic market size to $40 billion to $50 billion by 2024.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following species is/are part of ‘Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats (IDWH)?
- Dugong
- Snow Leopard
- Asiatic Lion
- Great Indian Bustard
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
What is Species Recovery Programme?
The country’s flagship and charismatic species face a variety of threats, ranging from habitat destruction and illegal wildlife trade to reduction in forest cover outside protected areas. Significant populations of these species exist outside Protected Areas moving for dispersal from their natal habitats or for seasonal migrations.
The erstwhile Ministry of Environment and Forest scheme of ‘Assistance for the Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries’ was reformulated and renamed as ‘Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats (IDWH)’ during the 11th Plan period (2007-2012). The MoEF, in consultation with Wildlife Institute of India and other scientific institutions/ organizations, identified 16 terrestrial and 7 aquatic species with the objective of saving critically endangered species/ecosystems that to ensure their protection outside Protected Areas, across the wider landscape/seascape.
Species Recovery Plans were prepared for several of these species. The Lion (Panthera leo persica) and Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) populations are showing an increasing trend, and the Sangai (Rucervus eldii eldii) and Hangul (Cervus elaphus hanglu) populations are stable; but the populations of the Great Indian bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) and the Nicobar megapode (Megapodius nicobariensis) have recorded declines. Vulture populations, in particular Gyps bengalensis, that had declined substantially in recent times have registered a small upward trend, indicating that conservation measures taken for the species are showing a positive outcome. Efforts are underway for developing protocols for monitoring the status and trends of the remaining IDWH species.
Species under IDWH Scheme:
- Asian Wild Buffalo
- Asiatic Lion
- Brow-Antlered Deer or Sangai
- Dugong
- Edible Nest Swiftlet
- Gangetic River Dolphin
- Great Indian Bustard
- Hangul
- Indian Rhino or Great One-horned Rhinoceros
- Jerdon’s Courser
- Malabar Civet
- Marine Turtles
- Nicobar Megapode
- Nilgiri Tahr
- Snow Leopard
- Swamp Deer
- Vultures
Incorrect
Solution: D
What is Species Recovery Programme?
The country’s flagship and charismatic species face a variety of threats, ranging from habitat destruction and illegal wildlife trade to reduction in forest cover outside protected areas. Significant populations of these species exist outside Protected Areas moving for dispersal from their natal habitats or for seasonal migrations.
The erstwhile Ministry of Environment and Forest scheme of ‘Assistance for the Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries’ was reformulated and renamed as ‘Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats (IDWH)’ during the 11th Plan period (2007-2012). The MoEF, in consultation with Wildlife Institute of India and other scientific institutions/ organizations, identified 16 terrestrial and 7 aquatic species with the objective of saving critically endangered species/ecosystems that to ensure their protection outside Protected Areas, across the wider landscape/seascape.
Species Recovery Plans were prepared for several of these species. The Lion (Panthera leo persica) and Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) populations are showing an increasing trend, and the Sangai (Rucervus eldii eldii) and Hangul (Cervus elaphus hanglu) populations are stable; but the populations of the Great Indian bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) and the Nicobar megapode (Megapodius nicobariensis) have recorded declines. Vulture populations, in particular Gyps bengalensis, that had declined substantially in recent times have registered a small upward trend, indicating that conservation measures taken for the species are showing a positive outcome. Efforts are underway for developing protocols for monitoring the status and trends of the remaining IDWH species.
Species under IDWH Scheme:
- Asian Wild Buffalo
- Asiatic Lion
- Brow-Antlered Deer or Sangai
- Dugong
- Edible Nest Swiftlet
- Gangetic River Dolphin
- Great Indian Bustard
- Hangul
- Indian Rhino or Great One-horned Rhinoceros
- Jerdon’s Courser
- Malabar Civet
- Marine Turtles
- Nicobar Megapode
- Nilgiri Tahr
- Snow Leopard
- Swamp Deer
- Vultures
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organisations has “Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)” as the counter terrorism wing?
Correct
Solution: C
The Regional Anti–Terrorist Structure (RATS), headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, is a permanent organ of the SCO which serves to promote cooperation of member states against the three evils of terrorism, separatism and extremism.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Regional Anti–Terrorist Structure (RATS), headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, is a permanent organ of the SCO which serves to promote cooperation of member states against the three evils of terrorism, separatism and extremism.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Conservation reserves and community reserves
- These are protected areas which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.
- These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002
- Community areas are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India. Such areas are designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities and community areas if part of the lands are privately owned.
These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India. Such areas are designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities and community areas if part of the lands are privately owned.
These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Folk Dance Related Community
- Bardo Chham Sherdukpen
- Buiya Dance Digaru Mishmis
- Bagurumba Bodo
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
Bardo Chham is performed by the Sherdukpen tribe of the West Kameng district. The dancers wear masks of 12 different animals and perform to the beats of many percussion instruments. Sherdukpen tribe believes that there are 12 different evil forces and they all appear in different months to mar the happiness of the community. The masks represent evil forces and the main objective of this art form is to ward off these evil forces. Men and women don colorful clothes before showcasing their dancing skills.
Performed by the Digaru Mishmis of Arunachal Pradesh, Buiya dance is the main attraction of many tribal festivals. Women dancers stand in a straight line before commencing the act, thus paving the way for a strange formation. Men support the performance by playing different instruments like drums, gongs and cymbals.
Bagurumba: The Bodo tribe of Assam practices this dance form. Usually performed by women, the dance is accompanied by instruments like drums and flutes. Since Bagurumba is believed to have been inspired from nature, it can be further classified into different dance forms – each inspired from elements of nature like animals, plants, birds, insects, water, air and so on.
https://www.culturalindia.net/indian-dance/folk-dances/north-east-india.html
Incorrect
Solution: D
Bardo Chham is performed by the Sherdukpen tribe of the West Kameng district. The dancers wear masks of 12 different animals and perform to the beats of many percussion instruments. Sherdukpen tribe believes that there are 12 different evil forces and they all appear in different months to mar the happiness of the community. The masks represent evil forces and the main objective of this art form is to ward off these evil forces. Men and women don colorful clothes before showcasing their dancing skills.
Performed by the Digaru Mishmis of Arunachal Pradesh, Buiya dance is the main attraction of many tribal festivals. Women dancers stand in a straight line before commencing the act, thus paving the way for a strange formation. Men support the performance by playing different instruments like drums, gongs and cymbals.
Bagurumba: The Bodo tribe of Assam practices this dance form. Usually performed by women, the dance is accompanied by instruments like drums and flutes. Since Bagurumba is believed to have been inspired from nature, it can be further classified into different dance forms – each inspired from elements of nature like animals, plants, birds, insects, water, air and so on.
https://www.culturalindia.net/indian-dance/folk-dances/north-east-india.html
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the standard criteria for designation of Important Bird Areas (IBAs)?
- They hold significant numbers of one or more globally threatened bird species.
- They are one of a set of sites that together hold a suite of restricted-range species or biome-restricted species
- They have exceptionally large numbers of migratory or congregatory birds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
What is Important Bird Areas (IBAs)
Birds are excellent indicators of ecosystem health. The IBA programme of Birdlife International aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of the world’s birds and associated biodiversity. The IBAs serve as conservation areas for protection of birds at the global, regional or sub-regional level. According to Birdlife International, designation of IBAs is based on standardized criteria, namely
(i) hold significant numbers of one or more globally threatened bird species,
(ii) be one of a set of sites that together hold a suite of restricted-range species or biome-restricted species and
(iii) have exceptionally large numbers of migratory or congregatory birds.
The IBAs contain a range of habitats, such as wetlands, mudflats, microhabitats in biodiversity hotspots, grasslands and scrublands, making them excellent indicators of biodiversity richness (India’s 5th National Report to the Convention on Biological Diversity, 2014). The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS; http://www.bnhs.org) and Birdlife International have identified 467 IBAs in India (Islam and Rahmani, 2004). Forty percent of these IBAs fall outside the PA network and thus form an important tool for landscape-level conservation planning. BNHS has also prepared a list of 96 new/potential sites which can be designated as IBAs in the future.
Incorrect
Solution: D
What is Important Bird Areas (IBAs)
Birds are excellent indicators of ecosystem health. The IBA programme of Birdlife International aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of the world’s birds and associated biodiversity. The IBAs serve as conservation areas for protection of birds at the global, regional or sub-regional level. According to Birdlife International, designation of IBAs is based on standardized criteria, namely
(i) hold significant numbers of one or more globally threatened bird species,
(ii) be one of a set of sites that together hold a suite of restricted-range species or biome-restricted species and
(iii) have exceptionally large numbers of migratory or congregatory birds.
The IBAs contain a range of habitats, such as wetlands, mudflats, microhabitats in biodiversity hotspots, grasslands and scrublands, making them excellent indicators of biodiversity richness (India’s 5th National Report to the Convention on Biological Diversity, 2014). The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS; http://www.bnhs.org) and Birdlife International have identified 467 IBAs in India (Islam and Rahmani, 2004). Forty percent of these IBAs fall outside the PA network and thus form an important tool for landscape-level conservation planning. BNHS has also prepared a list of 96 new/potential sites which can be designated as IBAs in the future.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following National Park has been designated as mixed site in the list of UNESCO’s World Heritage sites?
Correct
Solution: D
Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP), Sikkim has been inscribed as India’s first “Mixed World Heritage Site” on UNESCO World Heritage List, by fulfilling the nomination criteria under both natural and cultural heritage. The 40th Session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, at a meeting in Istanbul, Turkey, granted approval for the inscription of India’s on the coveted UNESCO World Heritage List.
The KNP exhibits one of the widest altitudinal ranges of any protected area worldwide. The Park has an extraordinary vertical sweep of over 7 kilometres (1,220m to 8,586m) within an area of only 178,400 ha and comprises a unique diversity of lowlands, steep-sided valleys and spectacular snow-clad mountains including the world’s third highest peak, Mt. Khangchendzonga. Numerous lakes and glaciers, including the 26 km long Zemu Glacier, dot the barren high altitudes.
The KNP is home to a significant number of endemic, rare and threatened plant and animal species and has the highest number of plant and mammal species recorded in the Central/High Asian Mountains, except compared to the Three Parallel Rivers of Yunnan Protected Areas, in China; and also has a high number of bird species.
The cultural significance of KNP is portrayed by two main different facets: firstly, the notion of beyul or hidden sacred land, which extends to all of Sikkim, but has its heart in the territory of Khangchendzonga National Park, is important in Tibetan Buddhism, not only intrinsic to Sikkim, but in the neighbouring countries and beyond – that is to say, KNP is home to a sacred site of one of the world’s leading religious traditions; secondly, the multi-layered sacred landscape of Khangchendzonga and the cultural and religious relevance of the hidden land (beyul in Tibetan Buddhism and Mayel Lyang, in Lepcha tradition) is specific to Sikkim and is a unique example of co-existence and exchange between different religious traditions and people.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP), Sikkim has been inscribed as India’s first “Mixed World Heritage Site” on UNESCO World Heritage List, by fulfilling the nomination criteria under both natural and cultural heritage. The 40th Session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, at a meeting in Istanbul, Turkey, granted approval for the inscription of India’s on the coveted UNESCO World Heritage List.
The KNP exhibits one of the widest altitudinal ranges of any protected area worldwide. The Park has an extraordinary vertical sweep of over 7 kilometres (1,220m to 8,586m) within an area of only 178,400 ha and comprises a unique diversity of lowlands, steep-sided valleys and spectacular snow-clad mountains including the world’s third highest peak, Mt. Khangchendzonga. Numerous lakes and glaciers, including the 26 km long Zemu Glacier, dot the barren high altitudes.
The KNP is home to a significant number of endemic, rare and threatened plant and animal species and has the highest number of plant and mammal species recorded in the Central/High Asian Mountains, except compared to the Three Parallel Rivers of Yunnan Protected Areas, in China; and also has a high number of bird species.
The cultural significance of KNP is portrayed by two main different facets: firstly, the notion of beyul or hidden sacred land, which extends to all of Sikkim, but has its heart in the territory of Khangchendzonga National Park, is important in Tibetan Buddhism, not only intrinsic to Sikkim, but in the neighbouring countries and beyond – that is to say, KNP is home to a sacred site of one of the world’s leading religious traditions; secondly, the multi-layered sacred landscape of Khangchendzonga and the cultural and religious relevance of the hidden land (beyul in Tibetan Buddhism and Mayel Lyang, in Lepcha tradition) is specific to Sikkim and is a unique example of co-existence and exchange between different religious traditions and people.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsWhat will be the time in the mirror image of the clock when minute hand and hour hand meet for the first time after 12 o’ clock?
Correct
Solution: B
After 12 o’ clock, the hour hand and minute hand will meet every 720/11 minutes.
So,(720/11) min = 1 hour 5 min 27 sec
The clock will read 01:05:27 approx.
The mirror image will be 10:54:32 approx.Incorrect
Solution: B
After 12 o’ clock, the hour hand and minute hand will meet every 720/11 minutes.
So,(720/11) min = 1 hour 5 min 27 sec
The clock will read 01:05:27 approx.
The mirror image will be 10:54:32 approx. -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsIn a row of boys, there are 15 boys between Surya and Suraj. Surya is 30th from the left end of the row. If Surya is nearer than Suraj to the right end of the row, then what is the position of Suraj from the left end of the row?
Correct
Solution: C
Surya is nearer to the right. So, the arrangement can be illustrated as
Suraj _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Surya
Surya is 30th from the left.
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _Suraj_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Surya
So, Suraj is 14th from the left endIncorrect
Solution: C
Surya is nearer to the right. So, the arrangement can be illustrated as
Suraj _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Surya
Surya is 30th from the left.
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _Suraj_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Surya
So, Suraj is 14th from the left end -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA squirrel, while climbing a slippery pole from ground level, climbs 5 feet in first 3 seconds and slips 2 feet in next 1 second. This will repeat. If the pole is 65 feet high above ground level, how much time does squirrel take to be on the top of pole?
Correct
Solution: A
If the squirrel climbs 5 feet in first 3 seconds and slips 2 feet in next 1second, the effective height it has climbed is 5 – 2 = 3 feet.
We have to look for the multiples of 3 which are below 65.Let us take 63.
Since it is multiple of 3, squirrel will be at this position after equal number of climbs and slips.But before it slips by 2feet, it would have been on top i.e. 65feet above ground level.
That means, after reaching 60feet it is a 5feet climb away from the top.
Upto 60feet, the squirrel had to alternatively do 20 climbs and undergo 20 slips.
20 climbs would take 20×3 = 60 seconds and 20 slips would take 20×1 = 20 seconds.
Totally the squirrel has spent 60 + 20 = 80 seconds to reach 60feet.
5 more feet in 3 more seconds, the squirrel will be on top.
Total time required = 83 seconds
Incorrect
Solution: A
If the squirrel climbs 5 feet in first 3 seconds and slips 2 feet in next 1second, the effective height it has climbed is 5 – 2 = 3 feet.
We have to look for the multiples of 3 which are below 65.Let us take 63.
Since it is multiple of 3, squirrel will be at this position after equal number of climbs and slips.But before it slips by 2feet, it would have been on top i.e. 65feet above ground level.
That means, after reaching 60feet it is a 5feet climb away from the top.
Upto 60feet, the squirrel had to alternatively do 20 climbs and undergo 20 slips.
20 climbs would take 20×3 = 60 seconds and 20 slips would take 20×1 = 20 seconds.
Totally the squirrel has spent 60 + 20 = 80 seconds to reach 60feet.
5 more feet in 3 more seconds, the squirrel will be on top.
Total time required = 83 seconds
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThere are two defective analog clocks which are showing 8 o’ clock. One clock is faster by 2 minutes per hour and another is slower by 2 minutes per hour when compared to the normal working clock. After how many hours they will show the same time again?
Correct
Solution: D
After each hour, the slower clock will fall 4 minutes behind that of a faster clock or the faster clock will be 4 minutes ahead of a slower clock.
Therefore, for the clocks to be 1 hr or 60 minutes apart, 15 hours are needed.
For the clocks to read the same time again, there required a gap of 12 hours between the clocks.
The time required to get the gap of 12 hours between clocks = 15 × 12 = 180 hours.
Incorrect
Solution: D
After each hour, the slower clock will fall 4 minutes behind that of a faster clock or the faster clock will be 4 minutes ahead of a slower clock.
Therefore, for the clocks to be 1 hr or 60 minutes apart, 15 hours are needed.
For the clocks to read the same time again, there required a gap of 12 hours between the clocks.
The time required to get the gap of 12 hours between clocks = 15 × 12 = 180 hours.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
Automation will likely impact most jobs involving highly structured physical activity in predictable environments, such as manufacturing and retail, alongside data collection and processing. Also, automation threatens to impact women more than men, suggests the report. It points out that women are a large component of the workforce in retail, business processing outsourcing and textiles/clothing /footwear.
Which of the following is the most logical and crucial inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Answer. A.
The most crucial and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage is A as the passage does give example of jobs involving routine work which are more at threat due to automation. Hence A.
Incorrect
Answer. A.
The most crucial and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage is A as the passage does give example of jobs involving routine work which are more at threat due to automation. Hence A.